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Total questions: 131

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Using objective elements, what should Gio undertake to determine what is needed for his socio-technology sensor for water toxicity? Choices: 1 Create a survey or poll. 2 Use social media to identify needs. 3 Float the poll in different media. 4 Devise an online questionnaire.

a)

2 and 3 only

b)

2, 3, 4 only

c)

1 and 4 only

d)

1, 2, 3, 4

2.

Which does NOT belong to the structure of a society? Items: 1 Social institutions 2 Social groups 3 Statuses 4 Roles

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

4 only

c)

1, 2, and 3 only

d)

All belong

3.

Identify the characteristic of professionalism shown by AJ, who always thinks before speaking.

a)

Good Communication

b)

Accountable

c)

Reliable

d)

Ethical Behavior

4.

Giuseppe was always on time and worked well, but was always untidy. What professionalism characteristic did he violate?

a)

Time Management

b)

Smart Office Attire

c)

Organization Skills

d)

Soft Skills

5.

What is the best way to stay focused?

a)

Do not engage in social media

b)

Remove toxic people

c)

Do planning

d)

No answer

6.

What are the maxims of integrity?

a)

Education, Licensing

b)

Vision, love, commitment

c)

Commitment, integrity, responsibility, accountability

d)

No answer

7.

Ynah uses different media to gather youth perceptions on the SOGIE Bill. What type of social problem elements does she use?

a)

Objective elements

b)

Mixed elements

c)

Subjective elements

d)

No answer

8.

Blank are definitions and explanations of what is assumed to be true.

a)

Culture

b)

Beliefs

c)

Values

d)

Norms

9.

Bruha never goes to the office without ironing clothes and always dresses appropriately. What professionalism is this?

a)

Time Management

b)

Smart Office Attire

c)

Organization Skills

d)

Soft Skills

10.

His files and paperwork are always organized and prepared. What professionalism is this?

a)

Time Management

b)

Smart Office Attire

c)

Organization Skills

d)

Soft Skills

11.

It means no one is an island.

a)

Communication

b)

Collaboration

c)

Critical Thinking

d)

Creativity

12.

A skill that looks at problems from different angles and links learning across subjects.

a)

Communication

b)

Collaboration

c)

Critical Thinking

d)

Creativity

13.

From conflict theory, which is the definition of society? 1 Social change is inevitable. 2 Social order is constructed through interactions as individuals. 3 Society has balance and harmony. 4 Society has inequities which result to conflict…

a)

3,5,6, and 9

b)

2,8,12

c)

1,4,7,10,11

d)

All given

14.

From symbolic interactionism, which best defines society? 1 Social change is inevitable. 2 Social order is constructed through interactions as individuals. 3 Society has balance and harmony. 4 Society has inequities which result to conflict…

a)

3,5,6,9

b)

1,4,7,10,11

c)

2,8,12

d)

All descriptions true

15.

Humans are interpretative and interactive, changing with the environment.

a)

Structural Functionalism

b)

Symbolic Interactionism

c)

Conflict Theory

d)

Logical Theory

16.

Which group believes institutions are controlled by groups with power?

a)

Structural Functionalism

b)

Conflict Theory

c)

Symbolic Interactionism

d)

Logical Theory

17.

True or False: IT professionals are not liable for malpractice.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

True or False: IT professionals are not licensed by state or government.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

What forces change the work services of an IT professional? Fair distribution of network

a)

Client sophistication

b)

Governance

c)

Modularization

d)

Communication

20.

Providing money or favors to obtain business advantage.

a)

Fraud

b)

Misrepresentation

c)

Bribery

d)

Breach of contract

21.

Michaelangelo writes all client requirements before a project. What duty is this?

a)

Documentation

b)

Time management

c)

Confidentiality

d)

Conflict of interest

22.

Which issue serves as an end product of IT services?

a)

Provide benefits to society

b)

Avoiding harm

c)

Actions of IT workers

d)

A code of ethics to guide everything

23.

Which is true about the professional code of ethics?

a)

Ethics state core values

b)

Includes rules members follow

c)

Includes commitment to education

d)

A, B, and C

24.

What forces change the work services of an IT professional (Alex posting fake news)?

a)

Client sophistication

b)

Grievances

c)

Transparency

d)

Modularization

25.

What force changes Gio’s work services while monitoring data in/out of the company?

a)

Client sophistication

b)

Governance

c)

Modularization

d)

Communication

26.

Determine what forces change the work services of an IT professional. Lexinne develop an application that everybody can use regardless of device and platform.

a)

globalization

b)

modularization

c)

commodization

d)

all of the above

27.

Determine what forces change the work services of an IT professional. Promoting quality products could be attained through collaborative communication with stakeholders.

a)

client sophistication

b)

governance

c)

connectivity

d)

transparency

28.

The crime of obtaining goods, services, or property through deception or trickery

a)

Fraud

b)

Misrepresentation

c)

Bribery

d)

Breach of contract

29.

What benefit you can get, when professional code of ethics was followed religiously? 1. It aids in good decision making 2. It aids to have high standards of practice and ethical behavior 3. It adds trust and respect from general public 4. It adds value in self-assessment benchmarking

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

3 and 4 only

c)

1 and 4 only

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

30.

It added value to IT profession which includes set of acquired skills through training

a)

Certification

b)

Leadership Training

c)

Curriculum development

d)

Self-training

31.

Which of the following is true about vendor certification? 1. It improves IT skills, salaries and experiences 2. It narrows the aspect of IT worker roles 3. It can be got through hands on laboratory demonstration skills and knowledge 4. It can be taken a year or beyond 5. It can be expensive and sometimes free

a)

1, 3 and 4 are true

b)

2, 3 and 5 are all true

c)

1, 3 and 4 are true

d)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are true

32.

Which one best describes relationships between IT workers and Employers 1. IT workers agree on many aspects of work relationships before workers accept the job offer. 2. Aspect of work relationship defined in the company’s policy and procedure manual or code of conduct. 3. It must be sent as an example and enforce policies regarding the ethical use of IT in different field.

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

1, 2 and 3 only

d)

none of the above

33.

Determine what is the issue in the given statement: Maricel never told anyone how the process of encryption and decryption on their confidential file took effect, with this the company’s confidential file will be kept secret.

a)

software piracy

b)

trade secret

c)

whistle blowing

d)

bribery

34.

True or False: A gift that was given secretly is known as bribe.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

A business information that was generally hidden to others

a)

confidential funds

b)

intelligent funds

c)

trade secrets

d)

all of the above

36.

It requires a higher level of experience and a broader perspective than vendor certification

a)

Industry association

b)

Government Licensing

c)

IT professional malpractice

d)

Vendor Certification

37.

Determine what is the issue in the given statement: Forgot to log off; coworker has full access.

a)

Negligence leading to unauthorized access

b)

Whistleblowing

c)

Software piracy

d)

Bribery

38.

What is being discussed in the given scenario?

a)

Negligence

b)

Duty of care

c)

Professional malpractice

d)

IT malpractice

39.

Which of the following is a practice of ethical consideration in an IT solution project development? 1. Confidential data should be kept in the database and should be encrypted so no one can see the data 2. In getting confidential data, statement of data privacy consolidation and usage must be given to the stakeholders 3. Confidential data stored in database must have a data privacy act consent 4. Upon collection of data, consent in data collection must took place, and should state where data will be used, how it will be collected and how it will be used and disposed.

a)

1, 3 and 4

b)

4 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

3 and 4 only

40.

Francis is an IT end-user and a commissioned programmer… Which component should be discussed when using client workspace?

a)

Guidelines on how he will do the system

b)

Policy on usage of IT resources and infrastructure

c)

Guidelines in structuring IT resources and data

d)

Guidelines in Data Protection

41.

_____ means a state of undivided loyalty to self-belief.

a)

accountability

b)

integrity

c)

love

d)

all of the above

42.

It means entire, undivided, or whole.

a)

accountability

b)

integrity

c)

love

d)

no answer

43.

True or false: the person making the commitment must do willingly without duress

a)

true

b)

false

44.

True or false: Vision is the capacity to anticipate and make a plan of action that will eliminate obstacles

a)

true

b)

false

45.

It bonds the individual to whatever he or she is doing until done

a)

integrity

b)

love

c)

commitment

d)

vision

46.

When can you be called a professional? (1) specialized knowledge, (2) long preparation, 3 standardization in work, 4 special rights and responsibilities, 5 exercise discretion

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

2 and 4 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

3 and 4 only

47.

A profession requires (1) specialized knowledge, (2) long preparation, 3 standardization in work, 4 special rights and responsibilities, 5 exercise discretion

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 and 4 only

d)

3 and 4 only

48.

Carla blind follower — best reason why she didn't get the job and a junior get it instead

a)

Carla never engages in training outside…

b)

Carla did not exercise good judgement at work

c)

Carla carries special rights and responsibilities at work

d)

Carla does not make contribution in lifelong training…

49.

Which of the following should be considered in order for professional codes of conduct to be effective? 1. enforcement 2. reporting 3. hearing procedures 4. sanctions 5. appeals

a)

1 and 3

b)

1 and 3

c)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

d)

no answer

50.

The most widely used professional ethical boards, standing committees, or review boards are charged with promoting the image of the profession

a)

enforcement

b)

reporting

c)

hearing procedures

d)

sanctions and appeals

51.

Determine the professional services force: storyboarding and smooth bargaining to stakeholder

a)

client sophistication

b)

Governance

c)

Connectivity

d)

Transparency

52.

Determine the professional services force: controlled network, created a list of allowed websites

a)

client sophistication

b)

governance

c)

connectivity

d)

transparency

53.

Which best describes relationships between IT workers and employers? 1. A contract was given and agreed by both employee and employer before project starts 2. IT workers abide company's policy and procedure manual imposed by project stakeholders 3. No matter what project IT workers handles, he/she must practice IT ethical standards. 4. Not all policy was given directly, some of its aspect was developed over time

a)

1, 3 and 4 only

b)

2 and 3 only

c)

1, 2 and 4 only

d)

1, 2, 3 and 4

54.

What is the main purpose of the Data Privacy Act of 2012 (Republic Act 10173)?

a)

To regulate the use of personal data for marketing purposes

b)

To promote public access to information

c)

To prevent the use of the internet in spreading misinformation

d)

To ensure the protection of personal data in both public and private sectors

55.

Which government agency oversees the implementation of the Data Privacy Act?

a)

Department of Information and Communications Technology (DICT)

b)

National Privacy Commission (NPC)

c)

Commission on Audit (COA)

d)

Cybercrime Investigation and Coordinating Center (CICC)

56.

Why is data privacy important?

a)

To ensure trust, security, and ethical handling of personal information

b)

To promote unrestricted sharing of personal data

c)

To increase government surveillance capabilities

d)

To restrict all access to public records

57.

What is the core principle of transparency under the Data Privacy Act?

a)

Hiding critical data from users

b)

Allowing unrestricted data collection without user consent

c)

Sharing all personal data with third-party vendors

d)

Informing data subjects about how their data is collected, used, and processed

58.

What is the role of a Data Controller?

a)

To collect payments for data processing services

b)

To physically safeguard data centers

c)

To determine the purpose and means of data processing

d)

To supervise the National Privacy Commission

59.

What is required before processing personal data?

a)

Approval from the NPC

b)

Consent of the data subject

c)

A public announcement

d)

A court order

60.

Which is NOT a component of the five pillars of compliance?

a)

Data privacy policies

b)

IT infrastructure investments

c)

Privacy impact assessments

d)

Breach notification protocols

61.

Section 11 of the Data Privacy Act covers what aspect of personal information?

a)

Processing of sensitive personal data

b)

General data protection principles

c)

Data life cycle management

d)

Accountability

62.

What does Section 13 of the Data Privacy Act pertain to?

a)

Collection of privileged information

b)

Sensitive personal information processing

c)

General transparency guidelines

63.

Which term refers to information about an individual’s race, religion, or political affiliation?

a)

Privileged information

b)

Sensitive personal information

c)

Public information

d)

Personal information

64.

What is the primary focus of confidentiality in data protection?

a)

Ensuring data is always available to users

b)

Keeping data stored for long-term use

c)

Disclosing sensitive information when needed

d)

Preventing unauthorized access to personal data

65.

Accountability in data privacy means:

a)

Data breaches are the fault of the IT department

b)

Only the NPC is accountable for breaches

c)

Organizations are responsible for complying with privacy laws and regulations

d)

The data subject is responsible for securing their own data

66.

What is the role of a Personal Information Processor?

a)

To act as a liaison between the NPC and the data controller

b)

To store all organizational data

c)

To enforce penalties for data breaches

d)

To process personal data on behalf of the data controller

67.

The Data Privacy Act defines “data subject” as:

a)

A group of companies sharing data

b)

The organization responsible for data processing

c)

The regulatory agency overseeing data privacy laws

d)

An individual whose personal data is processed

68.

What are the penalties for violating the Data Privacy Act?

a)

Fines, imprisonment, or both

b)

Revocation of business licenses only

c)

Public apology letters

d)

Suspension of organizational operations

69.

Which of the following best describes the principle of “Legitimate Purpose”?

a)

Processing data only for lawful and valid reasons

b)

Storing data indefinitely without the subject’s knowledge

c)

Sharing data with any third party as needed

d)

Collecting data without specific objectives

70.

What is a critical step in the Data Life Cycle?

a)

Encrypting data only during the collection phase

b)

Transferring data ownership to other organizations

c)

Proper disposal or destruction of data after its purpose has been served

d)

Making data publicly available after storage

71.

Privileged information refers to:

a)

Data that is confidential and protected by professional relationships

b)

Data available in the public domain

c)

Sensitive personal information under Section 13

d)

Information accessible to any public entity

72.

Demonstrable compliance refers to:

a)

Avoiding public acknowledgment of compliance measures

b)

Allowing data breaches without accountability

c)

Regularly updating privacy policies without documentation

d)

Proving that organizational practices meet legal requirements

73.

Which of the following is a responsibility of the National Privacy Commission (NPC)?

a)

Promoting unlimited sharing of data

b)

Issuing business permits for data-related activities

c)

Educating the public and ensuring compliance with data privacy laws

d)

Collecting personal data for government use

74.

How should you respond to insider breaches?

a)

Focus only on recovering lost data

b)

Ensure monitoring of all privileged accounts and critical systems

c)

Block network access for the affected user permanently

d)

Disable all privileged accounts immediately

75.

Why is environmental awareness important in incident triage?

a)

It helps understand the current state and changes in your network

b)

It prevents all false positives

c)

It eliminates the need for external threat intelligence

d)

It replaces traditional monitoring tools

76.

What stage does Advanced Persistent Threat (APT) span across in the Cyber Kill Chain?

a)

Reconnaissance only

b)

All stages

c)

Exploitation only

d)

Delivery and Installation stages

77.

What is a key element of combining local and global threat intelligence?

a)

Preventing all configuration changes

b)

Replacing vulnerability management practices

c)

Identifying known threat actors and patterns

d)

Eliminating the need for patch management

78.

What should be the focus when dealing with DDoS diversion tactics?

a)

Assume all diversions are false alarms

b)

Increase monitoring and investigate related activities

c)

Block all traffic from the internet

d)

Prioritize recovery from the diversion attack

79.

What is a potential intent behind port scanning activity?

a)

Reconnaissance for future attacks

b)

Launching a DDoS attack

c)

Testing firewall configurations

d)

Removing false positives

80.

Which attack vector involves using removable media like USB drives?

a)

Attrition

b)

External/Removable Media

c)

Improper Usage

d)

Email

81.

What is the first step in building a response plan aligned with the Cyber Kill Chain?

a)

Testing patch management processes

b)

Assessing reconnaissance activities

c)

Preventing all email-based attacks

d)

Identifying critical systems

82.

What kind of attack is likely to result from violating acceptable usage policies?

a)

Web-based attacks

b)

Improper Usage

c)

Attrition

d)

Reconnaissance

83.

What is the primary objective of "system compromise"?

a)

Gain unauthorized access to data

b)

Ex-filtrate sensitive information

c)

Evade detection by monitoring tools

d)

Exploit and maintain persistence on systems

84.

What priority level is typically assigned to Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?

a)

High

b)

Medium

c)

Low

d)

Critical only when combined with another attack

85.

What should you consider when detecting unusual configuration changes?

a)

Delay investigation until a full audit

b)

Treat as signs of possible compromise

c)

Disregard unless systems are mission-critical

d)

Ignore if they meet compliance standards

86.

What model helps describe the sequence of stages in an attacker's strategy?

a)

The Defense in Depth model

b)

The Cyber Kill Chain

c)

The ISO 27001 Security Model

d)

The Cybersecurity Framework

87.

Which of the following best describes the role of compliance in incident management?

a)

Reduces risk of insider breaches

b)

Detects active threats in real-time

c)

Ensures alignment with external regulations

d)

Solely prevents attacks

88.

What is the primary focus of information security incidents?

a)

Physical security breaches

b)

Violations involving digital information

c)

Disaster recovery plans

d)

Preventing hardware failure

89.

Which stage of the Cyber Kill Chain focuses on exploiting vulnerabilities to gain access?

a)

Delivery & Attack

b)

Reconnaissance

c)

System Compromise

d)

Exploitation & Installation

90.

What is the purpose of incident triage?

a)

To improve compliance with policies

b)

To rapidly assess and prioritize incidents

c)

To prevent attacks from occurring

d)

To conduct forensic analysis

91.

What is the main goal during the "Delivery & Attack" stage of the Cyber Kill Chain?

a)

Stealing sensitive data

b)

Inducing the target to access malware

c)

Evading detection

d)

Finding vulnerabilities

92.

What type of attack might involve a physical component like laptop theft?

a)

Improper Usage

b)

Attrition

c)

Loss or Theft of Equipment

d)

Reconnaissance

93.

What is a common source for verifying the reputation of an IP address?

a)

WHOIS database

b)

Threat Intelligence Platforms like AlienVault

c)

Proxy server configurations

d)

Organizational internal logs

94.

What should be done in response to a malware infection?

a)

Notify legal authorities

b)

Ignore unless repeated infections occur

c)

Remediate infections and scan for related indicators of compromise

d)

Immediately disconnect affected systems from the network

95.

What is a "destructive attack" best mitigated by?

a)

Backing up and testing recovery procedures

b)

Disabling all external connections

c)

Focusing only on evidence collection

d)

Blocking suspicious IPs immediately

96.

Which type of attack often uses social engineering methods?

a)

Improper Usage

b)

Reconnaissance

c)

Attrition

d)

Delivery & Attack

97.

What type of attack is described as brute force methods to degrade systems?

a)

Attrition

b)

Email-based attacks

c)

Web attacks

d)

Reconnaissance

98.

What is the key focus when dealing with false alarms?

a)

Balance relevant alerts against irrelevant noise

b)

Eliminate false positives

c)

Focus on improving policy compliance

d)

Ignore events classified as low-priority

99.

What helps ensure effective incident response?

a)

Eliminating all false positives

b)

Static and unchanging infrastructures

c)

Disabling automation tools

d)

Comprehensive monitoring and regular updates

100.

What is the recommended response to unauthorized privilege escalation attempts?

a)

Reboot the affected system

b)

Ignore unless tied to critical assets

c)

Record all escalation events and set alarms

d)

Notify external authorities immediately

101.

What is one key challenge in identifying information security incidents?

a)

Too much reliance on automation

b)

The stealthiness of modern attacker tools

c)

Poor understanding of organizational goals

d)

The complexity of network configurations

102.

Act of illegally making copies of software or enabling access to software to which they are not entitled

a)

software piracy

b)

no answer

c)

whistle blowing

d)

trade secrets

103.

Area in which IT workers can be tempted to violate laws and policies

a)

Trade Secrets

b)

Whistle Blowing

c)

Software Piracy

d)

no answer

104.

Crime of obtaining goods, services, or property through deception or trickery

a)

Whistle Blowing

b)

Trade Secrets

c)

Software Piracy

d)

No answer

105.

Determine the ethical platform stated in given scenario: Boots weigh the different consequences of actions occurs on her mind before decision making took place, this way moral obligation, moral actions and morality in nature wont suffer over self-indulgence.

a)

Pursuit of Good Life

b)

Determination of Right and Wrong

c)

Human Morality

d)

care for the soul

106.

Determine the ethical platform stated in given scenario: Gio always based his decision to the practice their community was doing since the beginning of time.

a)

Belief

b)

Tradition

c)

No answer

d)

Law

107.

Gian was doing his final project, it requires documentation, tired of doing all the program for couple of days, he just download their requirements templates, and he copy all the contents from the internet. He then forgot to include references on their documentation. Question: To what section of ACM code of Ethics, he violates.

a)

section 1.7

b)

section 1.8

c)

Section 1.5

d)

section 1.6

108.

Francis created a program that was used to give AYUDA or donation, His program includes the list of families registered to DSWD, dataset from SSS and BIR in order to determine family members accumulated income and the AYUDA dataset where all household / Family that was given donation was listed. Through Francis program, proper distribution of Donation was given and corruption was minimized somewhat, as what Francis believes. Question: To what section of ACM Code of Ethics does Francis action belongs.

a)

section 2

b)

section 3

c)

section 1

d)

section 4

109.

In order to pass the graphics and visualization course, Emman hired a graphic designer to enhance his work based on the technicalities his professor gave. Segments of his video were also taken from other free videos found on the internet and placed in the credits at the end of the video, including the names of those who were part of the project. To what section does Emman violate in Section 1?

a)

section 1.4

b)

no violation was made

c)

section 1.3

d)

section 1.2

e)

section 1.1

110.

Gio is working as a Team Leader in ABC Corporation. He sees to it that all his people have an equal workload. He even uses a checklist to identify which project each of his people is doing, together with the complexity of the project he handles. For him, equality and equity is the best way to show how a good leader should be. To what section of the ACM Code of Ethics does Gio follow?

a)

section 2

b)

section 3

c)

section 1

d)

section 4

111.

Ethics to improve our basic health needs

a)

Professional Ethics

b)

Decision ethics

c)

Clinical Ethics

d)

Business Ethics

112.

Ethics to improve professionalism

a)

Professional Ethics

b)

Decision ethics

c)

Clinical Ethics

d)

Business Ethics

113.

M1: It means that society is disturbed by external or internal forces of social change.

a)

Social Issues

b)

Social Change

c)

Social Problem

d)

Social Perspectives

114.

M1: A formal norm backed by authority

a)

Folkways

b)

Laws

c)

Mores

d)

no answer

115.

Linda believes praying before judgment leads to a better decision.

a)

Determination of Right or Wrong

b)

Pursuit of Good Life

c)

Care for the Soul

d)

Human Morality

116.

M1: Established and enduring pattern of social relationships.

a)

Social institutions

b)

Social groups

c)

Statuses

d)

Roles

117.

Marie believes goodwill comes from helping the less fortunate.

a)

Pursuit of Good Life

b)

Determination of Right or Wrong

c)

Care for the Soul

d)

Human Morality

118.

Merlin’s judgment lies on faith in being a good person.

a)

law

b)

tradition

c)

belief

d)

no answer

119.

Onnie follows intuition and investigates before deciding.

a)

Care for the Soul

b)

Determination of Right or Wrong

c)

Human Morality

d)

Pursuit of Good Life

120.

M1: Two or more people who have a common identity, interact, and form a social relationship.

a)

Social institutions

b)

Social groups

c)

Statuses

d)

Roles

121.

Social agreements on what is considered good, bad, right, wrong, desirable and undesirable.

a)

Culture

b)

Values

c)

Beliefs

d)

Norms

122.

M1: Meanings and ways of life that characterize society including beliefs, norms, sanctions and symbols.

a)

Culture

b)

Beliefs

c)

Values

d)

Norms

123.

Issue arising because of individual perceptions

a)

social issues

b)

applied issues

c)

professional issues

d)

no answer

124.

M1: It can be either ascribed or achieved.

a)

Social institutions

b)

Social groups

c)

Statuses

d)

Roles

125.

Issue relating to societies’ perception of personal lives

a)

Social Issues

b)

Social Change

c)

Social Problem

d)

Social Perspectives

126.

Element concerned with supernatural magic and religion

a)

economic institutions

b)

the structure of government and law

c)

religious institutions

d)

family

127.

Elements dealing with training individuals (knowledge, values, skills…)

a)

religious institutions

b)

educational institutions

c)

government and law

d)

no answer

128.

Two or more people with common traits

a)

social group

b)

primary group

c)

secondary group

d)

no answer

129.

Characterized by intimate and informal interaction

a)

social group

b)

primary group

c)

secondary group

d)

no answer

130.

Task-oriented group, impersonal & formal

a)

social group

b)

primary group

c)

secondary group

d)

no answer

131.

Conduct/aims/qualities marking a profession

a)

professional

b)

professionalism

c)

professional conduct

d)

no answer