wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Blood and Hematology Quiz

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which term describes the fluid component of blood?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Plasma

c)

Serum

d)

Leukogram

2.

What would be the best option for a technician to prepare a good blood smear using an older blood sample that is thick and has some clotting?

a)

Change the angle of the spreader to 45 degrees

b)

Dilute the sample with EDTA

c)

Obtain a fresh sample before creating the slide

d)

Change the angle of the spreader to 20 degrees

3.

What term describes small fragmented sections of erythrocytes seen on a blood smear and is also a type of erythrocyte abnormality that might be present on a blood smear when a patient has been diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)?

a)

Acanthocyte

b)

Echinocyte

c)

Drepanocytes

d)

Shistocyte

4.

Which blood collection tube is best suited for the collection of blood for a hematologic test that does not alter morphology but is not good for chemistry analysis?

a)

Blue-top

b)

Red-top

c)

Lavender-top

d)

Tiger-top

5.

Which organ is primarily involved in the production of erythropoietin?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Bone Marrow

6.

Which organ is primarily involved in the production of thrombopoietin?

a)

Kidney

b)

Liver

c)

Pancreas

d)

Bone Marrow

7.

What internal parasite is noted in the picture to the right?

a)

Toxocara canis

b)

Dirofilaria immitis

c)

Trichurus vulpis

d)

Toxoplasma gondii

8.

What internal parasite is noted in the picture to the right?

a)

Toxocara canis

b)

Dirofilaria immitis

c)

Trichurus vulpis

d)

Ancylostoma spp.

9.

Which parasite does not concern humans, no zoonotic concern?

a)

Toxocara canis

b)

Dirofilaria immitis

c)

Trichurus vulpis

10.

Which is not a reason for false negative DX test (negative test when heartworms are actually present)?

a)

The dog is less than a year old

b)

All of the worms are one sex, there is no mating occurring

c)

The infection is less than 6 months in the period

d)

The females in the system are deceased

11.

Which parasite is seen in the pic on the right?

a)

Ctenocephalades felis

b)

Sarcoptes scabei

c)

Demodex spp.

d)

Otodectes cyanotis

12.

Which sample would be the best to use for a urinalysis (UA)?

a)

Sample gotten at the appointment time

b)

Sample gotten first thing in the morning but the appointment is at 4pm

c)

Sample gotten first thing in morning, refrigerated, and then brought in for 9am appointment

d)

Sample gotten first thing in the morning and then brought in for appointment at 9am

13.

Glucose found in the urine is always cause for investigation.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Which urinary crystal is in the image to the right?

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Calcium Oxalate

c)

Struvite

d)

Cystine

15.

Which urinary crystal is in the image to the right?

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Calcium Oxalate

c)

Struvite

d)

Cystine

16.

A lipemic sample is always an artifact.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Only in plasma samples

d)

Only in serum samples

17.

Proteins are fundamental components of all living cells and include many substances. They are necessary for the proper functioning of an organism. Which protein catalyzes chemical reactions of other substances without itself being destroyed or altered upon completion of the reactions?

a)

Enzymes

b)

Hormones

c)

Antibodies

d)

Vitamins

18.

Albumin and Fibrinogen come from which organ(s)?

a)

Kidney

b)

Pancreas

c)

Liver

d)

Lymph nodes

19.

Which liver enzymes, if elevated with no other abnormalities on the chemistry, would lean to a diagnosis of liver damage?

a)

ALT and Ck

b)

ALT and AST

c)

AST and CK

d)

ALT and GGT

20.

Which is the proper order for Bile Acid testing in a clinic?

a)

Make sure patient is fasted, take baseline sample, wait 2 hours, give dog a small meal, immediately pull postprandial sample

b)

Make sure patient is fasted, feed patient a small meal, immediately take sample, wait 2 hours, take postprandial sample

c)

Make sure patient is fasted, immediately pull sample, feed dog a small meal, wait 2 hours, take postprandial sample

d)

Make sure patient is fasted, wait 2 hours, take baseline sample, feed dog a small meal, immediately pull postprandial sample

21.

If a geriatric feline presents with polyurea/polydipsia, weight loss, normal appetite, lethargy and the blood chemistry panel azotemia, what would be the next tests that would be advised the client to agree to?

a)

SDMA and a urinalysis

b)

SDMA and BUN/Crea ratio

c)

Urinalysis and ultrasound

d)

TP and SDMA

22.

Uric acid is a value utilized in which patients?

a)

Avians and Weimaraners

b)

Avians and Dalmatians

c)

Avians and Camelids

d)

Avians and Bernese mountain dogs

23.

Which enzyme is pancreatic specific where it can be utilized in a feline or canine snap test to run in house for pancreatitis diagnosis?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Glucagon

d)

Trypsin

24.

When running electrolytes on chemistry machines, which is preferred?

a)

Serum

b)

Plasma

25.

On a laparotomy for foreign body on a German shepherd, an incidental finding is extreme pancreas atrophy. The pet has lost weight but owners and vet assumed blood work and weight loss were due to foreign body. What test might be performed that could explain all of the findings?

a)

Canine pancreatic lipase (cPLI)

b)

Serum Trypsin-like Immunoreactivity (TLI)

c)

Serum Amylase Immunoreactivity (sAI)

26.

When talking about oxygen use in classification of bacteria, Bacteria that require oxygen to survive:

a)

Obligate aerobe

b)

Obligate anaerobe

c)

Facultative anaerobe

d)

Omniscient excreoebic

27.

When talking about oxygen use in classification of bacteria, Bacteria that can survive in the absence of oxygen, but their growth is limited:

a)

Obligate aerobe

b)

Obligate anaerobe

c)

Facultative anaerobe

d)

Omniscient excreoebic

28.

A gram positive cocci that is typically found in pyogenic lesions such as wounds, dermatitis, otitis, and mastitis is ______________________

a)

Enterococcus spp.

b)

Staphylococcus spp.

c)

Streptococcus spp.

d)

Bacillus spp.

29.

The most common problem with cytology is that cells cannot be evaluated due to lack of them or that they have been mangled.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Exfoliative Cytology includes all of the following except:

a)

Fine needle aspirate

b)

Swabs

c)

Scrapings

d)

Impression smears

31.

If there is suspicion that the bacteria is a highly zoonotic agent, the sample should be saved and tested in the vet lab after hours and not shipped to an outside lab.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Which gram negative bacteria is the cause of Lyme disease in people and arthritis and lameness in dogs?

a)

Campylobacter spp.

b)

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

c)

Leptospira spp.

d)

Borrelia burgdorferi

33.

Your coworker received an open wound after assisting with a flea infested, feral cat neuter. She ended up calling in the next day stating the area was large and swollen along with her closest lymph nodes. What fastidious bacterium should the feral cat be looked at for along with your coworker?

a)

Rickettsia

b)

Chlamydophila

c)

Ehrlichia

d)

Bartonella

34.

Your vet asks you to go get a culture media to get a sample of the infected wound on the 2 day post dog fight patient. This clinic is not equipped for in house micro and usually sends everything out to the lab. Which media would you choose?

a)

Enriched Media

b)

Selective Media

c)

Transport Media

d)

Differential Media

35.

Which test is preferred as the most accurate in house test for dermatophyte recognition?

a)

Woods lamp

b)

Trichogram

c)

DTM Culture

d)

PCV testing

36.

Which stain is utilized for slides to see a positive dermatophyte species?

a)

Safranin Counterstain

b)

Lactophenol Cotton Blue

c)

Crystal Violet DTM Stain

d)

Iodine with additive

37.

A fluid that is clear, non-inflammatory, has low total protein and low total nucleated cells is considered a/an

a)

Exudate

b)

Modified Transudate

c)

Transudate

d)

Purulent

38.

A fluid that is cloudy to turbid, has high total nucleated cell count, has high protein, and bacteria present is considered a/an

a)

Exudate

b)

Modified Transudate

c)

Transudate

d)

Serum

39.

What is not an advantage of cytology in a diagnostic capacity?

a)

Rapid

b)

Inexpensive

c)

Easy definitive cancer staging

d)

Minimally invasive

40.

When you gather cells in a vaginal cytology, what exact cells are you looking at?

a)

Leukocyte

b)

Epithelial

c)

Bacterial

d)

Connective

41.

If you looked into this ear canal in the picture to the right, what would you inform your veterinarian that you saw?

a)

Malassezia

b)

Wax

c)

Sarcoptes

d)

Otodectes

42.

This class of antibodies is involved in allergic responses and parasite infections:

a)

IgM

b)

IgA

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

43.

If you are performing a MAJOR cross match, you are taking cells from the ____________________ and mixing them with plasma from the ____________________.

a)

Donor/Recipient

b)

Recipient/Donor

44.

What type of testing is indicated to right?

a)

Immunodiffusion

b)

Immunochromatography

c)

ELISA

45.

The principal action of Prolactin is it triggers

a)

Promotes egg ovulation

b)

Promotes milk production by mammary glands

c)

Promotes sperm let down from epididymis

d)

Stimulates bone growth

46.

The posterior pituitary is responsible for housing these two hormones

a)

TSH and FSH

b)

LH and ACTH

c)

Oxytocin and ADH

d)

ADH and GH

47.

This hormone completes process of follicle development in ovary and usually causes ovulation

a)

Prolactin

b)

FSH

c)

LH

d)

TSH

48.

Canines that are more prone to __________________________.

a)

hyperthyroidism

b)

hypothyroidism

c)

diabetes mellitus

d)

Addison's disease

49.

The outer zone or the Zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland is responsible for __________________________.

a)

Mineralocorticoids

b)

Glucocorticoids

c)

Catecholamines

d)

Insulin

50.

Cushings disease is known as __________________________.

a)

Hypoadrenocorticism

b)

Hyperadrenocorticism

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Hypothyroidism

51.

Cushings disease is typically __________________________ dependant.

a)

Pituitary

b)

Thyroid

c)

Adrenal

d)

Pancreatic

52.

If a patient has Cushing’s disease that was caused iatrogenically, that means:

a)

Pituitary caused

b)

Caused by steroid therapy

c)

Adrenal caused

d)

Caused by thyroid therapy

53.

To diagnose Addison’s disease, the best test to utilize is

a)

ACTH Stem test

b)

LDDS

c)

HDDS

54.

Class 1 diabetes mellitus is

a)

Caused by lack of insulin production

b)

Failure of the body to respond to the insulin produced by the body

55.

A client will not be able to adequately control DM if there is an untreated other endocrine issue.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

When the cells are “starved” for glucose, the body begins breaking down fat for emergency fuel. This can result in a life threatening diagnosis of

a)

Diabetic renalacidosis

b)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

c)

Diabetic glucagonadosis

d)

Diabetic metabolic alkalosis

57.

If the oocyte is not fertilized, it will

a)

Stay in the body and be broken down and recycled into hormone

b)

Degenerate and be shed with the thickened layer of endometrium

c)

It will turn into a cyst inside the horn of the uterus

58.

Progesterone in most mammals other than dogs is secreted from the corpus luteum and then by the placenta.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

What is the least invasive and inexpensive in-clinic test to determine if a patient has ovulated?

a)

Serum Progesterone

b)

Vaginal Cytology

c)

Ultrasonography

d)

Radiography

60.

Which peptide hormone produced by the follicles, uterus, and placenta can be measured to confirm pregnancy in a bitch?

a)

Relaxin

b)

Luteinizing

c)

Prolactin

d)

GnRH

61.

What is the best process for handling a rabies testing case?

a)

Send out plasma to state lab while the pt stays in quarantine

b)

Send out the pt entire head after they have been humanely euthanized

c)

Sent entire body to state lab after humanely euthanized

d)

Send out CSF fluid tap to state lab while the pt is in quarantine