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AVS 1500 Final Review Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The consumer does not determine the value of the beef industry.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Pigs have lower dressing percentages when compared to cattle.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Select the common terms used to describe domestic bos taurus and bos indicus animals.

a)

Mare, gelding, colt, filly, stallion

b)

Ewe, ram, lamb, wether

c)

Cow, calf, heifer, steer, bull

d)

Sow, boar, barrow, piglet

4.

Select the common terms used to describe domestic sus scrofa domesticus animals.

a)

Ewe, ram, lamb, wether

b)

Sow, boar, barrow, piglet

c)

Mare, gelding, colt, filly, stallion

d)

Cow, calf, heifer, steer, bull

5.

Select the common terms used to describe domestic ovis aries animals.

a)

Mare, gelding, colt, filly, stallion

b)

Ewe, ram, lamb, wether

c)

Cow, calf, heifer, steer, bull

d)

Sow, boar, barrow, piglet

6.

What is the term that is described by the definition, “managing and providing care, shelter, and protection of domesticated animals to avoid abuse, improve their health, and production to meet human needs”?

a)

Animal abuse

b)

Animal science

c)

Animal breeding

d)

Animal husbandry

7.

Please select which animals are classified as ruminants.

a)

Cow

b)

Goats

c)

Horse

d)

Sheep

8.

Select the species of animals that are polyestrous.

a)

Cattle

b)

Horses

c)

Dogs

d)

Sheep

9.

The period of cyclic ovarian functions induced by reproductive hormones in females is referred to as __________.

a)

Gestation

b)

Parturition

c)

Lactation

d)

Estrous

10.

The ____________ is the largest compartment of a ruminant’s digestive tract.

a)

reticulum

b)

omasum

c)

abomasum

d)

rumen

11.

____________ is the first milk produced after calving that provides antibodies to the calf.

a)

whole milk

b)

colostrum

c)

foremilk

d)

transitional milk

12.

What is an advantage of a beef on dairy calf?

a)

decreased milk production

b)

health issues

c)

improved carcass value

d)

smaller calf size

13.

Which industry is primarily vertically integrated?

a)

Sheep industry

b)

Equine industry

c)

Beef industry

d)

Poultry industry

14.

Which of the following are the three main stages of production in the swine industry?

a)

Hatching, brooding, finishing

b)

Cow-calf, backgrounding, finishing

c)

Farrowing, nursery, finishing

15.

Genetic progress is when the genetic value of the offspring is _______ than the average genetic value of the previous generation.

a)

Higher

b)

Equal

c)

Lower

16.

Poultry breeds can be divided into two groups:

a)

maternal and terminal

b)

meat and fiber

c)

broilers and layers

d)

dairy and beef

17.

Which animals are considered to have a monogastric digestive system?

a)

Horses

b)

Pigs

c)

Goats

d)

Dogs

18.

Carcass traits like, rib eye area, would have a heritability index of:

a)

h2 = 0.18

b)

h2 = 0.56

c)

h2 = 0.02

19.

Sex sorted semen would be an effective breeding method for poultry.

a)

False

b)

True

20.

During a breeding soundness exam of a ram, semen is evaluated for:

a)

Motility

b)

Morphology

c)

Color

d)

Morbidity

21.

Feed tags will have recommendations for intake and nutrient information on a dry matter and ________.

a)

As fed basis

b)

Wet basis

c)

Exact basis

d)

As collected basis

22.

What are some common acronyms that would be on a feed tag?

a)

ADC

b)

RFV

c)

TDN

d)

CP

23.

Oviduct — select the description that matches.

a)

absorbs water and nutrients

b)

captures the egg post ovulation/site of fertilization

c)

stores and mixes food/site of chemical digestion

d)

connects the uterus and vagina

24.

Cecum — select the description that matches.

a)

site of microbial fermentation in ruminants

b)

absorbs water and nutrients

c)

connects the uterus and vagina

d)

stores and produces eggs, estrogen, and progesterone

e)

primary site of hindgut fermentation in horses

25.

Stomach — select the description that matches.

a)

stores and produces eggs, estrogen, and progesterone

b)

site of microbial fermentation in ruminants

c)

stores and mixes food/site of chemical digestion

d)

connects the uterus and vagina

e)

captures the egg post ovulation/site of fertilization

26.

Rumen — select the description that matches.

a)

captures the egg post ovulation/site of fertilization

b)

connects the uterus and vagina

c)

site of microbial fermentation in ruminants

d)

absorbs water and nutrients

27.

Omasum — select the description that matches.

a)

site of microbial fermentation in ruminants

b)

absorbs water and nutrients

c)

connects the uterus and vagina

d)

captures the egg post ovulation/site of fertilization

28.

Which option best defines innate behavior in animals?

a)

Behavior shaped solely by complex cognition

b)

Behavior influenced only by social learning

c)

Behavior acquired through repeated experiences

d)

Behavior genetically determined or inherited

29.

Which behaviors are classified as innate?

a)

Reflexes such as blinking

b)

Instincts like nesting

c)

Habituation to repeated stimuli

d)

Imprinting on a caregiver

30.

Social behavior in animals most directly refers to which pattern?

a)

Hormonal changes across seasonal cycles

b)

Interactions occurring among members of a species

c)

Competition leading to ritualized aggression

d)

Random movements with no group structure

e)

Instinctive copying of neighbor actions

31.

Two horses rear and bite while one eventually lowers its head and backs away. Which behavior category best fits this interaction?

a)

Cooperative courtship between herd mates

b)

Allelomimetic synchronized feeding response

c)

Cyclical migration triggered by weather changes

d)

Agonistic conflict involving threats and submission

32.

During winter, an animal reduces metabolic activity and relies on stored food. Identify the behavior.

a)

Cyclical hibernation with lowered metabolism

b)

Daily circadian entrainment to light cues

c)

Allelomimetic synchronized barking events

d)

Territorial agonism and threat displays

33.

Which statement best characterizes allelomimetic behavior in social animals?

a)

Individuals copy and time the same actions under shared stimuli

b)

Individuals migrate independently based on personal energy reserves

c)

Individuals hibernate alone without group communication

d)

Individuals fight to establish access to mates and territories

34.

Which statement best defines mutualism?

a)

Only one species benefits, the other unaffected

b)

One species benefits while the other is harmed

c)

Both species benefit from the interaction

d)

Both species lose fitness due to resource reduction

35.

A bird nests in a tree without harming the tree. What interaction is this?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Competition

36.

Tapeworms absorb nutrients from a host, causing nutrient deprivation. Identify the interaction.

a)

Competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Parasitism

d)

Commensalism

37.

Lions and hyenas competing for the same prey exemplify which interaction?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Competition

c)

Mutualism

d)

Parasitism

38.

Select which statement best defines growth?

a)

Increase in cell number only

b)

Increase in cell size only

c)

Stage from conception to maturation

d)

Increase in cell number and cell size

39.

Which statement correctly defines hyperplasia?

a)

Decrease in tissue mass

b)

Replacement of fat with muscle

c)

Increase in cell number

d)

Increase in cell size

40.

Which list shows the three stages of prenatal growth in their proper names?

a)

Zygotic, Fetal, Neonatal

b)

Prenatal, Perinatal, Postnatal

c)

Embryonic, Postnatal, Juvenile

d)

Germinal, Embryonic, Fetal

41.

What is the main difference between prenatal and postnatal development?

a)

Both occur only during adulthood

b)

Prenatal occurs before birth; postnatal occurs after birth

c)

Prenatal refers only to muscle; postnatal refers only to fat

d)

Prenatal occurs after birth; postnatal occurs before birth

42.

Where are epithelial tissues primarily found?

a)

Heart walls only

b)

Brain, spinal cord, nerves

c)

GI tract, organs, glands

d)

Bone, fat, blood

43.

Which list includes the three muscle tissue types named in the lecture?

a)

White, beige, brown

b)

Cardiac, epithelial, smooth

c)

Skeletal, smooth, cardiac

d)

Nervous, connective, epithelial

44.

Which list names the three types of adipose tissue identified in the lecture?

a)

White, beige (brite), brown

b)

Marbling, seam, backfat

c)

Red, yellow, brown

d)

Subcutaneous, visceral, intermuscular

45.

Intermuscular fat (seam) is fat deposited in which location?

a)

Under the skin

b)

Between muscles

c)

Around the kidneys and other internal organs

d)

Within muscles

46.

Intramuscular fat (marbling) is fat deposited in which location?

a)

Under the skin

b)

Between muscles

c)

Within muscles

d)

Around the kidneys and other internal organs

47.

Subcutaneous fat (backfat) is deposited in which location?

a)

Between muscles

b)

Within muscles

c)

Under the skin

d)

Around the kidneys and other internal organs

48.

Visceral fat is deposited in which location?

a)

Between muscles

b)

Around the kidneys and other internal organs

c)

Under the skin

d)

Within muscles

49.

Which muscle is identified as the largest muscle in beef and lamb?

a)

Semitendinosus

b)

Psoas major

c)

Longissimus

d)

Biceps femoris

50.

Why is improving livestock efficiency and productivity emphasized for future food systems?

a)

To reduce environmental impacts from production expansion

b)

To avoid any changes in management strategies

c)

To meet food and fiber needs of a growing population

d)

To maximize luxury goods markets globally

51.

Which combination best represents the three pillars of sustainability in animal agriculture?

a)

Metabolic efficiency, animal welfare, nitrogen waste

b)

Environmental protection, economic efficiency, social acceptability

c)

Biodiversity, product quality, landscape preservation

d)

Greenhouse gas control, herd size, rural development

52.

Which combinations best distinguish prenatal from postnatal influences on growth?

a)

Environmental temperature and housing

b)

Maternal nutrition and stress

c)

Heredity and genotype

d)

Sex of offspring and litter size

53.

Which selection best describes the difference between maturity of large breeds (Holstein, Brown Swiss) and smaller breeds (Jersey, Guernsey)?

a)

Large breeds attain higher mature weights at similar ages

b)

Small breeds grow faster and surpass large breeds late

c)

Small breeds plateau later with higher mature weights

d)

Large breeds mature earlier but weigh less at maturity

54.

Within beef cattle, what relationship between sex and breed size is typically seen?

a)

Sex differences disappear after 24 months

b)

British females exceed Continental bulls at maturity

c)

Bulls mature heavier than females within a breed group

d)

British breeds mature heavier than Continental breeds

55.

Which statement best captures the core idea of fetal programming?

a)

Prenatal stressors can shape long-term health trajectories

b)

Short-term maternal stress has no lasting effects

c)

Genetic mutations solely determine postnatal disease risk

d)

Newborn environment fully overrides prenatal influences

56.

Which factors are central to fetal programming as described? Select all that apply.

a)

Environmental exposures during pregnancy

b)

Maternal stress at critical gestational windows

c)

Genetic inheritance only

d)

Postnatal diet exclusively

57.

Which set lists only environmental stressors affecting animal performance? Select all that apply.

a)

Social isolation; heat stress

b)

Vitamin deficiency; mineral deficiency

c)

Food restriction; low quality feed

d)

Overgrazing; predator stress

58.

In a confined housing system, which practice most likely increases disease transmission and reduces efficiency?

a)

Vitamin supplementation program

b)

Stocking density causing overcrowding

c)

Cold stress mitigation shelters

d)

Predator exclusion fencing

59.

A producer notes poor reproductive rates despite adequate calories. Which nutritional issue is most plausible?

a)

Predator stress near enclosures

b)

Vitamin and mineral supplements

c)

Social isolation among animals

d)

Low quality feed lacking nutrients

60.

A cow in her third trimester of gestation needs which approximate TDN percentage in the diet?

a)

20-30% TDN

b)

50-60% TDN

c)

10-20% TDN

d)

30-40% TDN

61.

Which definition best matches ADG in animal production metrics?

a)

adjusted diet guideline

b)

average diet gradient

c)

animal digestive gas

d)

average daily gain

62.

Select the abbreviations that refer to feed efficiency metrics used in beef cattle production.

a)

FCR: feed conversion ratio

b)

ADG: average daily gain

c)

OTU: operational taxonomic unit

d)

RFI: residual feed intake

63.

After weaning, calves typically enter which stage and what is a key activity there?

a)

Genetics; selection for breeding traits

b)

Finishing; harvested at market weight

c)

Backgrounding; ensuring successful weaning

d)

Cow/calf; nursing and staying with mothers

64.

Cattle with a lower RFI, exhibit which performance characteristic relative to expected intake?

a)

Higher intake than predicted for production

b)

Lower intake than predicted for production

c)

Intake exactly matching model prediction

d)

Random intake unrelated to production

65.

An animal consumes 120 kg of feed and gains 40 kg of body weight over the course of a week. What is its Feed Conversion Ratio (FCR)?

a)

FCR = 4.0

b)

FCR = 2.0

c)

FCR = 10.0

d)

FCR = 3.0

66.

Which statement correctly interprets efficiency using RFI and ADG?

a)

Higher ADG and lower RFI indicates more efficient animals

b)

Lower ADG and higher RFI indicates more efficient animals

67.

A steer is 300 kg on day 0 and 380 kg on day 20. What is it's Average Daily Gain (ADG)?

a)

ADG = 0.5

b)

ADG = 4.0

c)

ADG = 1.5

d)

ADG = 2.0