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Medical term- south college finals

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure is a primary lymphoid organ responsible for T-lymphocyte maturation?

a)

Spleen in left upper quadrant

b)

Thymus in anterior mediastinum

c)

Bone marrow in long bones

d)

Tonsils in oropharyngeal ring

2.

Which function is a core role of the lymphatic system?

a)

Draining interstitial fluid to circulation

b)

Producing bile for fat digestion

c)

Generating hydrochloric acid in stomach

d)

Synthesizing insulin for glucose control

3.

Which component carries lymph from tissues toward the venous system?

a)

Arterioles and venules

b)

Renal tubules and loops

c)

Alveolar ducts and sacs

d)

Lymphatic capillaries and vessels

4.

Which term best defines immunity?

a)

Ability to digest complex nutrients

b)

Capacity to resist and eliminate pathogens

c)

Mechanism of exchanging respiratory gases

d)

Process of filtering plasma in kidneys

5.

Which statement distinguishes innate from adaptive immunity?

a)

Innate only in lymph nodes; adaptive only in skin

b)

Innate requires antibodies; adaptive never uses them

c)

Innate needs memory cells; adaptive lacks memory

d)

Innate is rapid, non-specific; adaptive is specific

6.

Which definition correctly identifies pathogens?

a)

Foreign agents causing disease

b)

Benign commensals in colon

c)

Self antigens from host tissues

d)

Neutral metabolites in blood

7.

Which description of antigens is accurate?

a)

Ions maintaining membrane potentials

b)

Lipid hormones regulating metabolism

c)

Molecules that elicit immune responses

d)

Self proteins ignored by immunity

8.

Which cell type primarily produces antibodies (immunoglobulins)?

a)

Natural killer cells

b)

Plasma cells from B-lymphocytes

c)

Helper T-lymphocytes

d)

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

9.

Which statement compares B-lymphocytes with plasma cells?

a)

B cells form memory; plasma cells release cytokines

b)

B cells are phagocytes; plasma cells digest bacteria

c)

B cells kill viruses; plasma cells present antigens

d)

B cells are precursors; plasma cells secrete antibodies

10.

Which T-lymphocyte subtype directly kills infected cells?

a)

Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes (Tc)

b)

Helper T-lymphocytes (Th)

c)

Regulatory T-lymphocytes (Treg)

d)

Follicular dendritic cells (FDC)

11.

Which adaptive immunity branch is mediated by antibodies?

a)

Cell-mediated immunity

b)

Complement-only immunity

c)

Humoral immunity

d)

Innate barrier immunity

12.

Which tissues are secondary lymphoid organs involved in immune responses?

a)

Bone marrow and thymus

b)

Kidneys and pancreas

c)

Lymph nodes and spleen

d)

Adrenal cortex and pituitary

13.

Which process describes phagocytosis?

a)

Secreting peptide hormones

b)

Conducting neural action potentials

c)

Engulfing and digesting particulates

d)

Excreting nitrogenous wastes

14.

Which cells differentiate into macrophages within tissues to perform phagocytosis?

a)

Monocytes from blood

b)

Eosinophils from spleen

c)

Megakaryocytes from nodes

d)

Basophils from marrow

15.

Which cell type specializes in antigen presentation to T cells?

a)

Parietal cells in stomach

b)

Goblet cells in mucosa

c)

Erythrocytes in vessels

d)

Dendritic cells in tissues

16.

Which term describes infections occurring when host defenses are compromised?

a)

Nosocomial infections

b)

Opportunistic infections

c)

Vector-borne infections

d)

Zoonotic infections

17.

Which statement best defines autoimmunity?

a)

Immune suppression by corticosteroids

b)

Immune tolerance toward self

c)

Immune response against self antigens

d)

Immune memory against vaccines

18.

Which malignancy primarily involves lymphatic tissues with abnormal lymphocytes?

a)

Carcinoma of the colon

b)

Melanoma of the skin

c)

Lymphoma of lymph nodes

d)

Glioma of the brain

19.

Which virus is the causative agent associated with acquired immunodeficiency?

a)

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

b)

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

c)

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

d)

Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)

20.

Which physician specializes in diagnosing and treating allergy-related immune problems?

a)

Endocrinologist in hormonal disorders

b)

Allergist or immunologist specialist

c)

Neurologist in nervous system

d)

Cardiologist in heart diseases

21.

Which reaction is immediate and often linked to anaphylaxis?

a)

Type III hypersensitivity

b)

Type II hypersensitivity

c)

Type I hypersensitivity

d)

Type IV hypersensitivity

22.

Which hypersensitivity type is antibody-mediated and classically involves transfusion reactions?

a)

Type I reaction immediate

b)

Type II reaction cytotoxic

c)

Type III reaction immune complex

d)

Type IV reaction delayed-type

23.

Which hypersensitivity involves immune-complex deposition leading to vasculitis?

a)

Type III complex-mediated

b)

Type I IgE-mediated

c)

Type IV T-cell mediated

d)

Type II complement lysis

24.

Which hypersensitivity is mediated by T cells and develops hours to days later?

a)

Type I immediate IgE

b)

Type IV delayed T-cell

c)

Type III immune complex

d)

Type II antibody cytotoxic

25.

Which statement best describes the primary function of the digestive system?

a)

Exchange gases and regulate pH

b)

Breakdown food and absorb nutrients

c)

Produce hormones and store minerals

d)

Filter blood and balance electrolytes

26.

Which structure is part of the alimentary canal?

a)

Pancreas and spleen

b)

Liver and gallbladder

c)

Esophagus and stomach

d)

Kidneys and ureters

27.

Which process is mechanical digestion?

a)

Hydrochloric acid secretion

b)

Chewing by the teeth

c)

Action of pepsin

d)

Action of lipase

28.

Which enzyme converts carbohydrates to glucose or simple sugars?

a)

Amylase activity

b)

Lipase activity

c)

Trypsin activity

d)

Pepsin activity

29.

Proteases primarily convert which substrates?

a)

Nucleic acids to nucleotides

b)

Proteins to amino acids

c)

Fats to fatty acids

d)

Starches to maltose

30.

Lipases are responsible for converting what?

a)

Fats to fatty acids

b)

Proteins to peptides

c)

Starches to glucose

d)

DNA to nucleotides

31.

Nucleases catalyze the conversion of which macromolecules?

a)

Nucleic acids to nucleotides

b)

Triglycerides to glycerol

c)

Polysaccharides to maltose

d)

Proteins to polypeptides

32.

Which list correctly identifies major components of the alimentary canal in order?

a)

Mouth, esophagus, stomach, intestines, rectum

b)

Mouth, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi

c)

Liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen, kidney

d)

Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, pelvis

33.

Which accessory organ stores bile produced by the liver?

a)

Gallbladder function

b)

Pancreas function

c)

Appendix function

d)

Spleen function

34.

Which motion moves food along the gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Filtration in colon

b)

Osmosis in stomach

c)

Diffusion across villi

d)

Peristalsis in intestines

35.

Which term best matches difficulty swallowing?

a)

Steatorrhea definition

b)

Incontinence definition

c)

Dyspepsia definition

d)

Dysphagia definition

36.

Which condition is fatty stool?

a)

Hematochezia description

b)

Dysentery description

c)

Steatorrhea description

d)

Melena description

37.

Bright red blood in stool is termed what?

a)

Melena term

b)

Hematochezia term

c)

Dysentery term

d)

Hematemesis term

38.

Which statement distinguishes diarrhea from dysentery?

a)

Diarrhea lacks blood, dysentery has blood

b)

Diarrhea has fat, dysentery has bile

c)

Diarrhea is gas, dysentery is bloating

d)

Diarrhea is vomiting, dysentery is reflux

39.

Which GI secretion originates from salivary glands?

a)

Mucus production

b)

Saliva production

c)

Bile production

d)

Hydrochloric acid production

40.

Hydrochloric acid is secreted primarily by which organ?

a)

Small intestine villi

b)

Liver hepatocytes

c)

Stomach parietal cells

d)

Pancreas acinar cells

41.

Which procedure visually examines the colon using a scope?

a)

Colonoscopy screening

b)

Cholecystogram imaging

c)

Gastroscopy therapy

d)

Sigmoidoscopy surgery

42.

What is the most accurate definition of ileostomy?

a)

Surgical opening from ileum to surface

b)

Inflammation of ileum by infection

c)

Resection of ileum with anastomosis

d)

Obstruction of ileum by adhesions

43.

Which hepatitis type is primarily transmitted via the fecal–oral route?

a)

Hepatitis B and C

b)

Hepatitis B and D

c)

Hepatitis A and E

d)

Hepatitis C and D

44.

Which combining form refers to the kidney in medical terminology?

a)

nephr/o

b)

cyst/o

c)

urethr/o

d)

vesic/o

45.

Which structure transports urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder?

a)

Ureter

b)

Urethra

c)

Minor calyx

d)

Renal vein

46.

Which component is the functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtration?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Renal pyramid

c)

Renal pelvis

d)

Nephron

47.

Which region of the kidney contains the renal pyramids?

a)

Renal cortex

b)

Renal medulla

c)

Hilum

d)

Renal pelvis

48.

Which finding in urine most directly indicates a urinary tract infection?

a)

Positive WBCs

b)

High bilirubin

c)

Low specific gravity

d)

Elevated ketones

49.

Which condition is inflammation of the bladder?

a)

Cystitis

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Urethritis

d)

Nephrolithiasis

50.

Which imaging procedure uses endoscopic visualization of the bladder interior?

a)

Dialysis

b)

Renogram

c)

Cystoscopy

d)

Pyelogram

51.

Which urine analyte suggests diabetes when elevated due to fat breakdown?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Urea

d)

Ketones

52.

Which term denotes painful urination?

a)

Dysuria

b)

Anuria

c)

Polyuria

d)

Oliguria

53.

Which kidney structure collects urine from minor calyces before entering the ureter?

a)

Renal artery

b)

Renal papilla

c)

Renal cortex

d)

Renal pelvis

54.

Which condition is characterized by excess urea in the blood?

a)

Pyuria

b)

Hematuria

c)

Nocturia

d)

Uremia

55.

Which urinary condition involves stones formed in the kidney?

a)

Oliguria

b)

Incontinence

c)

Cystinuria

d)

Nephrolithiasis

56.

Which laboratory finding in urine most likely indicates liver disease?

a)

Presence of glucose

b)

Elevated bilirubin

c)

High WBCs

d)

Low creatinine

57.

Which structure is the site of initial filtration of blood in the nephron?

a)

Glomerulus

b)

Major calyx

c)

Ureter

d)

Renal pelvis

58.

Which term describes absence of urination?

a)

Polyuria

b)

Nocturia

c)

Hematuria

d)

Anuria

59.

Which combining form refers to the urinary bladder?

a)

cyst/o

b)

renal/o

c)

ureter/o

d)

nephr/o

60.

Which condition is defined as frequent urination at night?

a)

Nocturia

b)

Oliguria

c)

Anuria

d)

Dysuria

61.

Which test specifically images the renal pelvis and ureters with contrast?

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Cystogram

c)

Pyelogram

d)

Renogram

62.

Which term denotes white blood cells present in urine?

a)

Glycosuria

b)

Proteinuria

c)

Hematuria

d)

Pyuria

63.

Which combining form refers specifically to the testis?

a)

balan/o

b)

epididym/o

c)

prostat/o

d)

orchid/o

64.

What is the primary function of the male reproductive system?

a)

Produce testosterone only

b)

Regulate scrotal temperature

c)

Produce and deliver sperm

d)

Store urine and semen

65.

Which structure is removed during circumcision?

a)

Prepuce or foreskin

b)

Urethral meatus

c)

Glans penis

d)

Corpus cavernosum

66.

Which tube transports sperm from the epididymis to the urethra?

a)

Vas deferens

b)

Seminiferous tubule

c)

Ejaculatory duct

d)

Prostatic duct

67.

Which accessory gland contributes seminal fluid rich in fructose?

a)

Bulbourethral gland

b)

Prostate gland

c)

Cowper’s gland

d)

Seminal vesicle

68.

Which term best describes mature male sex cells?

a)

Oocytes

b)

Spermatids

c)

Spermatozoa

d)

Gamete precursors

69.

Identify the correct set of sperm parts.

a)

Flagella, corona, sheath

b)

Acrosome, mitochondria, nucleus only

c)

Head, neck, midpiece, tail

d)

Head, neck, acrosome

70.

Which screening test measures a biomarker for prostate disease?

a)

Digital rectal exam

b)

Semen analysis

c)

Prostate-specific antigen

d)

Urethrogram imaging

71.

Which test is primarily used to evaluate male infertility?

a)

DRE examination

b)

Semen analysis

c)

Biopsy of prostate

d)

PSA test

72.

Which condition is defined as erectile dysfunction?

a)

Impotence

b)

Priapism

c)

Varicocele

d)

Phimosis

73.

Which term describes undescended testes?

a)

Hydrocele

b)

Gynecomastia

c)

Cryptorchidism

d)

Anorchia

74.

Which diagnosis refers to fluid-filled hernia of the testes or scrotum?

a)

Varicocele

b)

Prostatitis

c)

Epididymitis

d)

Hydrocele

75.

Which term means painful, persistent erection without sexual arousal?

a)

Phimosis

b)

Impotence

c)

Peyronie’s disease

d)

Priapism

76.

Which condition is an abnormal curvature of the penis?

a)

Epispadias

b)

Balanitis

c)

Peyronie’s disease

d)

Hypospadias

77.

Which inflammation specifically affects the epididymis?

a)

Epididymitis

b)

Prostatitis

c)

Balanitis

d)

Orchitis

78.

Which congenital condition places the urethral opening on the ventral side of the penis?

a)

Epispadias

b)

Hypospadias

c)

Phimosis

d)

Anorchia

79.

Which term refers to narrowing of the foreskin that prevents retraction?

a)

Phimosis

b)

Paraphimosis

c)

Balanitis

d)

Varicocele

80.

Which term indicates scanty sperm count?

a)

Hypospermia

b)

Azoospermia

c)

Aspermia

d)

Oligospermia

81.

Which tumor type arises from testicular germ cells and is listed as common?

a)

Seminoma

b)

Adenoma

c)

Carcinoma in situ

d)

Sarcoma

82.

Which term best defines the region between the scrotum and anus?

a)

Periosteum

b)

Perineum

c)

Peritoneum

d)

Pericardium

83.

Which combining form refers to the uterus in medical terminology?

a)

salping/o

b)

oophor/o

c)

hyster/o

d)

colp/o

84.

Which structure is part of the external female genitalia?

a)

Ovary cortex

b)

Endometrium

c)

Fallopian tube

d)

Labia majora

85.

Which primary function do the ovaries perform?

a)

Store urine

b)

Produce oocytes

c)

Secrete insulin

d)

Pump lymph

86.

Which term best describes the release of an oocyte from an ovary?

a)

Menarche

b)

Ovulation

c)

Gestation

d)

Parturition

87.

Which hormones are primary regulators of the menstrual cycle?

a)

Oxytocin and prolactin

b)

Testosterone and aldosterone

c)

Estrogen and progesterone

d)

FSH and cortisol

88.

Which description defines menstruation?

a)

Luteinization of the follicle

b)

Fertilization of the ovum

c)

Implantation in the uterus

d)

Shedding of the endometrium

89.

Which term refers to painful menstrual cramping?

a)

Menorrhagia

b)

Metrorrhagia

c)

Amenorrhea

d)

Dysmenorrhea

90.

Which condition is the absence of menstruation?

a)

Metrorrhagia

b)

Oligomenorrhea

c)

Menometrorrhagia

d)

Amenorrhea

91.

Which term indicates bleeding between menstrual periods?

a)

Colporrhagia

b)

Dysmenorrhea

c)

Menorrhagia

d)

Metrorrhagia

92.

Which phrase best matches menometrorrhagia?

a)

Vaginal discharge of leukocytes

b)

Prolonged irregular heavy bleeding

c)

Painful cyclic uterine cramping

d)

Scant infrequent menstruation

93.

Which term refers to painful sexual intercourse?

a)

Dysmenorrhea

b)

Dyspareunia

c)

Endometritis

d)

Mastitis

94.

Which sexually transmitted infection is commonly screened in reproductive health?

a)

Chlamydia

b)

Malaria

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Tetanus

95.

Which device is a long-acting reversible contraceptive placed in the uterus?

a)

Intrauterine device

b)

Male condom

c)

Spermicide sponge

d)

Contraceptive patch

96.

Which test is used to detect cervical cancer early?

a)

Spirometry test

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Fasting lipid panel

d)

Papanicolaou smear

97.

Which healthcare specialist focuses on pregnancy and delivery?

a)

Radiologist

b)

Endocrinologist

c)

Urologist

d)

Obstetrician

98.

Which gland contributes to the vestibular bulbs and lubrication?

a)

Pituitary lobe

b)

Thyroid gland

c)

Bartholin’s gland

d)

Pancreatic duct

99.

Which structures are mammary gland components?

a)

Alveoli and ducts

b)

Nephrons and loops

c)

Acini and sinusoids

d)

Follicles and villi

100.

Which statement best characterizes oligomenorrhea?

a)

Scant infrequent menstruation

b)

Absent cyclic endometrial shedding

c)

Prolonged heavy monthly bleeding

d)

Bleeding irregularly between cycles

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