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GAT and VVC and Anorectal Disorders

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the preferred terminology when discussing sex classification in a patient?

a)

Biologic sex

b)

Natal sex

c)

Sex assigned at birth

d)

Genetic sex

2.

Gender dysphoria differs from gender incongruence in that gender dysphoria:

a)

Is not considered a psychiatric condition

b)

Requires the presence of psychological distress or impairment

c)

Is determined solely by hormone levels

d)

Must be present since childhood

3.

Which of the following communication approaches aligns with inclusive care?

a)

Always use “sir” or “ma’am” when unsure

b)

Use pronouns based on the patient’s appearance

c)

Ask the patient how they would like to be addressed

d)

Avoid asking about pronouns unless the patient brings it up

4.

Which of the following is a limitation of feminizing hormone therapy?

a)

Breast development typically fully matches cisgender females

b)

Reduction in facial hair growth is usually complete

c)

Voice pitch does NOT change with estrogen therapy

d)

Skeletal structure (pelvis, jaw) significantly changes with therapy

5.

Which estrogen formulation is recommended for feminizing therapy according to guidelines?

a)

Conjugated equine estrogens

b)

Ethinyl estradiol

c)

Estradiol

d)

Estrone

6.

For patients over age 45 or with a history of VTE who desire feminizing therapy, the preferred estradiol route is:

a)

Oral tablets

b)

Transdermal patch

c)

Intramuscular valerate

d)

Subcutaneous cypionate

7.

Which antiandrogen is the most commonly used agent in feminizing therapy?

a)

Finasteride

b)

Bicalutamide

c)

GnRH analogue implants

d)

Spironolactone

8.

Progesterone use in gender-affirming care:

a)

Is strongly recommended for all patients

b)

Has strong evidence supporting improved breast development

c)

Is not recommended due to limited evidence and potential risks

d)

Has no known risks or side effects

9.

Which of the following is an irreversible effect of masculinizing testosterone therapy?

a)

Increased acne

b)

Increased facial/body hair

c)

Deepening of the voice

d)

Increased hemoglobin levels

10.

A patient using testosterone with an intact uterus and ovaries must be counseled that:

a)

Testosterone fully prevents pregnancy

b)

Contraception is unnecessary once menses stop

c)

Testosterone is teratogenic and contraception is required

d)

Fertility is permanently lost immediately after initiation

11.

Which adverse effect is most associated with testosterone therapy?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Hyperprolactinemia

d)

Severe edema

12.

Puberty suppression with GnRH analogues may be initiated once a child has reached:

a)

Tanner stage 1

b)

Tanner stage 2

c)

Tanner stage 3

d)

Tanner stage 4

13.

Which of the following is a benefit of puberty suppression in adolescents?

a)

Prevents the need for any hormone therapy later

b)

Ensures that gender dysphoria will resolve

c)

Gives time to explore gender identity and prevents unwanted pubertal changes

d)

Makes future fertility preservation unnecessary

14.

Which agent used for puberty suppression is available as an annual implant?

a)

Leuprolide

b)

Triptorelin pamoate

c)

Histrelin acetate

d)

Degarelix

15.

Monitoring during the first year of gender-affirming hormone therapy should occur:

a)

Once every 12 months

b)

Every 3 months until a stable dose is achieved

c)

Weekly for the first 6 months

d)

Only if symptoms worsen

16.

Which laboratory is specifically important to monitor when spironolactone is used?

a)

Hemoglobin and hematocrit

b)

Liver function tests

c)

Potassium and creatinine

d)

LH and FSH levels

17.

Which of the following is NOT considered a reversible effect of feminizing therapy?

a)

Skin softening

b)

Breast development

c)

Decreased libido

d)

Decreased muscle mass

18.

Nonpharmacologic gender-affirming methods such as chest binding or tucking may require counseling because:

a)

They are ineffective

b)

They must be medically supervised

c)

They may cause irritation, pain, or infection if done improperly

d)

They reduce the need for hormone therapy

19.

Which of the following best describes “gender expression”?

a)

A person’s internal sense of their gender

b)

How someone presents their gender outwardly

c)

A person’s sexual orientation

d)

The sex assigned at birth

20.

Which term refers specifically to a person whose gender identity aligns with their sex assigned at birth?

a)

Intersex

b)

Cisgender

c)

Transgender

d)

Nonbinary

21.

Which counseling point is MOST appropriate when discussing estradiol injections?

a)

Estradiol valerate and cypionate doses are interchangeable

b)

Dose should be reduced by ¼–⅓ when switching from valerate to cypionate

c)

Estradiol injections cannot cause infertility

d)

Injectable estradiol has no VTE risk

22.

Which of the following describes the role of spironolactone in gender-affirming therapy?

a)

Provides potent estrogenic activity

b)

Serves as the primary estrogen in feminizing therapy

c)

Blocks androgen receptors and lowers testosterone production

d)

Increases conversion of testosterone to DHT

23.

A patient with liver disease wants to begin feminizing hormone therapy. Which option is preferred?

a)

Oral estradiol

b)

Transdermal estradiol

c)

Ethinyl estradiol

d)

Conjugated equine estrogens

24.

Which statement about puberty suppression with GnRH analogues is TRUE?

a)

It irreversibly stops puberty permanently

b)

It should begin before Tanner stage 2

c)

It prevents irreversible pubertal changes

d)

It guarantees the patient will want hormone therapy later

25.

Which outcome is LEAST likely to be achieved with feminizing hormone therapy?

a)

Reduced spontaneous erections

b)

Breast development

c)

Voice feminization

d)

Softer skin

26.

Which is a rare but documented adverse effect of GnRH analogue therapy in adolescents?

a)

Bone fractures

b)

Intracranial hypertension

c)

Hypoglycemia

d)

Severe hyperkalemia

27.

Which of the following changes should be monitored in a patient receiving testosterone therapy?

a)

Potassium levels

b)

Serum estradiol levels only

c)

Hemoglobin and hematocrit

d)

Prolactin levels

28.

Nonbinary patients should receive gender-affirming hormone therapy that is:

a)

Identical to typical male or female protocols

b)

Determined by provider preference

c)

Tailored to their individual embodiment goals

d)

Avoided due to insufficient evidence

29.

When counseling a patient beginning estradiol therapy, which point is appropriate?

a)

Expect maximal breast development within 1 month

b)

Smoking increases thromboembolic risk

c)

Estradiol prevents all fertility

d)

Dose adjustments are rarely required

30.

Which of the following disparities is commonly experienced by transgender and gender-diverse (TGD) individuals?

a)

Lower rates of depression compared to the general population

b)

Higher employment rates

c)

Increased risk of homelessness and poverty

d)

Lower risk of substance use disorder

31.

Which organism is MOST responsible for maintaining normal vaginal pH through lactic acid and hydrogen peroxide production?

a)

Gardnerella vaginalis

b)

Lactobacillus

c)

Candida albicans

d)

Bacteroides

32.

Which change occurs during menopause that increases the risk of vaginal infections?

a)

Increased vaginal glycogen stores

b)

Increased lactobacillus presence

c)

Thinning of vaginal lining and increased pH

d)

Increased hydrogen peroxide production

33.

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis?

a)

Candida glabrata

b)

Candida tropicalis

c)

Saccharomyces cerevisiae

d)

Candida albicans

34.

Which of the following medications increases vulvovaginal candidiasis risk by reducing normal vaginal flora?

a)

Clomiphene

b)

Broad-spectrum antibiotics

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Loop diuretics

35.

Which symptom is characteristic of vulvovaginal candidiasis and differentiates it from bacterial vaginosis?

a)

Fishy vaginal odor

b)

Thick white “cottage-cheese” discharge without odor

c)

Frothy green discharge

d)

Elevated pH > 4.5

36.

Which patient is appropriate for vulovaginal candidiasis self-treatment with OTC antifungals?

a)

Symptoms returned 1 month after last infection

b)

First-time symptoms never medically diagnosed

c)

Mild symptoms, pH ≤ 4.5, and fewer than 3 infections/year

d)

Taking warfarin

37.

Which of the following is an exclusion for VVC self-treatment?

a)

Mild itching and irritation

b)

Symptoms occurring less than 3 times/year

c)

Pregnancy

d)

History of one medically diagnosed VVC episode

38.

Which statement about OTC imidazole antifungals is TRUE?

a)

7-day products are more effective than 1-day products

b)

1-day regimens provide faster symptom relief than 7-day

c)

Oral therapy is recommended before topical therapy

d)

All OTC products require a prescription

39.

A patient on warfarin wants to use miconazole for vulvovaginal candidiasis. What should you advise?

a)

Safe—no interactions

b)

Avoid miconazole; may increase warfarin effect

c)

Use only 7-day regimens

d)

Take warfarin with food only

40.

Which counseling point is correct regarding vaginal antifungal administration?

a)

Use tampons to prevent leakage

b)

OK to discontinue once symptoms resolve

c)

Insert at bedtime to reduce leakage

d)

Do not use during menstruation

41.

Which is the primary cause of atrophic vaginitis?

a)

Vaginal infection

b)

Elevated estrogen levels

c)

Estrogen deficiency leading to mucosal atrophy

d)

Excessive vaginal moisture

42.

Which symptom MOST strongly suggests atrophic vaginitis?

a)

Cottage-cheese discharge

b)

Thin, watery, or bloody discharge

c)

Frothy green discharge

d)

Strong odor

43.

Which patient should be referred for medical evaluation?

a)

Mild dryness relieved by lubricants

b)

Postmenopausal bleeding

c)

Dyspareunia relieved with lubricant

d)

Occasional itching

44.

Which is a known adverse effect of routine douching?

a)

Decreases risk of pelvic inflammatory disease

b)

Improves natural vaginal flora balance

c)

Increases risk of vaginal infections and ectopic pregnancy

d)

Improves contraceptive efficacy

45.

Which counseling point for douching is correct?

a)

Recommended for routine hygiene

b)

Safe for use during pregnancy

c)

Do not use 48 hours before gynecologic exam

d)

Helps treat vaginal infections

46.

Grade 3 hemorrhoids are described as:

a)

Enlarged but do not prolapse

b)

Prolapse and cannot be reinserted

c)

Prolapse during defecation but retract spontaneously

d)

Prolapse during defecation and require manual reduction

47.

Which symptom requires referral rather than self-treatment?

a)

Itching

b)

Burning

c)

Mild swelling

d)

Pain or bleeding

48.

Which OTC class forms a physical barrier to decrease water loss and protect tissue?

a)

Vasoconstrictors

b)

Protectants

c)

Astringents

d)

Local anesthetics

49.

Which counseling point for vasoconstrictors is correct?

a)

Safe for anyone

b)

Avoid in hypertension and diabetes

c)

First-line therapy

d)

Only effective for internal hemorrhoids

50.

Which factor is LEAST likely to contribute to developing vulvovaginal candidiasis?

a)

High-dose estrogen therapy

b)

Frequent antibiotic use

c)

Wearing tight, non-absorbent clothing

d)

Using water-based vaginal lubricants

51.

Which adverse effect is MOST commonly associated with vaginal antifungal products?

a)

Severe systemic rash

b)

Burning or irritation with first application

c)

Hypertension

d)

Fever and chills

52.

A patient is using a vaginal antifungal. Which behavior decreases product efficacy?

a)

Wearing a sanitary pad

b)

Using a tampon during therapy

c)

Taking the medication at bedtime

d)

Continuing therapy during menses

53.

Which OTC therapy is most appropriate for mild atrophic vaginitis?

a)

Oral estrogen therapy

b)

Water-soluble vaginal lubricants

c)

OTC antifungals

d)

Douching products

54.

Which scenario requires referral instead of self-care?

a)

Dryness during intercourse

b)

Mild itching improved with lubricants

c)

Postmenopausal bleeding

d)

Occasional discomfort during sexual activity

55.

Which counseling point for vaginal lubricants is TRUE?

a)

Petroleum jelly is preferred because it lasts longer

b)

Apply up to 2 teaspoons initially and adjust as needed

c)

Lubricants can damage latex contraception

d)

They should be applied only externally

56.

Which type of douche ingredient poses a risk of fetal thyroid problems if overused during pregnancy?

a)

Witch hazel

b)

Vinegar and water

c)

Povidone-iodine

d)

Calamine

57.

Which lifestyle recommendation helps prevent hemorrhoid symptoms?

a)

Avoid drinking water before meals

b)

Limit dietary fiber to reduce stool volume

c)

Increase daily fiber to 25–40 grams

d)

Delay defecation to strengthen muscles

58.

Which grading description correctly matches Grade 2 hemorrhoids?

a)

Prolapse with defecation, require manual reduction

b)

Permanently prolapsed and cannot be reintroduced

c)

Enlarge but do not prolapse

d)

Prolapse with defecation but retract spontaneously

59.

Which protective ingredient is appropriate for both internal and external hemorrhoids?

a)

Witch hazel

b)

Glycerin

c)

Zinc oxide

d)

Menthol

60.

Which class includes agents that promote desquamation of epidermal cells but should NOT be used intrarectally?

a)

Keratolytics

b)

Astringents

c)

Vasoconstrictors

d)

Protectants