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Cardiology Worksheet

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In patients with cardiomegaly, the cardio-thoracic ratio in the chest radiograph will increase. Which of the following value represent the normal range of the cardio-thoracic ratio?

a)

0.30-0.47

b)

0.43-0.55

c)

0.42-0.50

d)

0.51-0.60

2.

The following are true about the right ventricle, EXCEPT?

a)

Pumps blood to the pulmonary arteries

b)

Is separated from the right atrium by the mitral valve

c)

Contains deoxygenated blood.

d)

Is separated from the left ventricle by the interventricular septum

3.

Which of the following valves prevent backflow to the left ventricle?

a)

Aortic valve

b)

Pulmonary valve

c)

Mitral valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

4.

Which of the following coronary vessels supply blood to the inferior and lateral right wall of the heart?

a)

Left anterior descending artery

b)

Right coronary artery

c)

Circumflex artery

d)

Posterior descending artery

5.

CJ, a 31-year old male, was scheduled for annual physical check-up and his ECG was taken with the tracing shown below. Using ECG, what would be the heart rate of this patient?

a)

60 bpm

b)

80 bpm

c)

100 bpm

d)

120 bpm

6.

Which term refers to the resistance to the ejection of blood volume from the ventricles?

a)

Cardiac output

b)

Total peripheral resistance

c)

Preload

d)

Afterload

7.

Sengoku, a 68-year old ICU patient, has the ECG tracing shown below. The following are true for this tracing, EXCEPT?

a)

A type of polymorphic VT rhythm

b)

The ECG racing represents ventricular fibrillation

c)

Patient is in impending cardiac arrest

d)

Characterized by alternating increasing and decreasing amplitude of conduction waves

8.

Chiz, a 52-year old patient, is currently admitted in the cardiovascular care unit. While taking the ECG, the tracing below was taken from the patient. The following are true regarding this ECG tracing, EXCEPT?

a)

Described as a “sawtooth pattern” appearance

b)

Caused by a conduction defect in the atrium.

c)

Caused by rapid, disorganized, and uncoordinated twitching of the atrial musculature.

d)

More atrial contractions are produced compared to ventricular contractions.

9.

The nurse is taking care of a patient with the following ECG tracing. The following are true regarding this tracing, EXCEPT?

a)

a. Usually harmless in healthy individuals

b)

b. Is caused by an impulse that starts in a ventricle and is conducted through the ventricles before the next sinus impulse

c)

c. an occurrence of this tracing for 3 times in a row or more represents a significant cardiovascular problem

d)

d. None of the above

10.

When caring for a patient with an AV block, which characteristic of the ECG will tell you that the patient is suffering from a 3rd-degree AV block?

a)

PR interval is longer than 0.2 seconds

b)

Progressive prolongation of PR interval followed by disappearing QRS complex

c)

Fixed PR intervals followed by disappearing QRS complex

d)

Lack of association between P-waves and QRS complex

11.

A patient with ventricular tachycardia (VT) has no pulse. What is the nurse’s immediate action?

a)

Administer amiodarone IV

b)

Begin chest compressions

c)

Prepare for synchronized cardioversion

d)

Give epinephrine IV push

12.

A post-MI patient develops ventricular fibrillation (VFF). The nurse should first:

a)

Check for carotid pulse

b)

Start CPR immediately

c)

Administer lidocaine

d)

Prepare for synchronized cardioversion

13.

A 60-year old patient with third-degree heart block is hypotensive. Which device should be prepared?

a)

Defibrillator

b)

Pacemaker

c)

Oxygen mask

d)

Nebulizer

14.

A patient in ICU shows asystole on the cardiac monitor. The nurse should

a)

Defibrillate immediately

b)

Give atropine and epinephrine

c)

Perform CPR and give epinephrine

d)

Prepare for synchronized cardioversion

15.

A patient complains of dizziness and syncope. ECG reveals sinus bradycardia at 40 bpm. The nurse anticipates which intervention?

a)

Beta-blocker administration

b)

Atropine IV

c)

Cardioversion

d)

Lidocaine infusion

16.

A patient with chronic atrial fibrillation is started on metoprolol. Which assessment finding indicates a need to hold the medication?

a)

Heart rate 110 bpm

b)

Blood pressure 100/60

c)

Heart rate 48 bpm

d)

Respiratory rate 22/min

17.

A patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is stable but symptomatic. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Give diltiazem IV

b)

Administer adenosine

c)

Apply synchronized cardioversion

d)

Encourage vagal maneuver

18.

A patient presents with ST segment depression in leads V3 and AVL. What portions of the patient’s hearts are affected?

a)

Inferior and lateral area

b)

Anterior and inferior area

c)

Lateral and anterior area

d)

Anterior and septal area

19.

A patient presents with non-specific ECG changes in leads I and II. What portions of the patient’s heart are affected?

a)

Inferior and lateral area

b)

Septal and inferior area

c)

Lateral and anterior area

d)

Anterior and septal area

20.

In placing the ECG chest leads, where is the location of the placement of lead V5?

a)

4th ICS left sternal border

b)

4th ICS Right sternal border

c)

5th ICS Left Midclavicular Lines

d)

5th ICS Left Anterior Axillary Line

21.

A 72-year old with known HFrEF (EF 30%) reports sudden weight gain of 3kg in 48 hours, increasing dyspnea, and swelling. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Start high-flow oxygen

b)

Assess intake/output and notify provider for diuretic order adjustment

c)

Teach low-sodium diet

d)

Obtain echocardiogram

22.

A patient on loop diuretics reports muscle cramps and palpitations. Which laboratory value should the nurse check for?

a)

Serum calcium

b)

Serum potassium

c)

Serum albumin

d)

Serum magnesium

23.

What teaching point is highest priority for a patient discharged on an ACE inhibitor?

a)

Report cough, dizziness, or swelling of face/mouth immediately

b)

Avoid exercise for 6 weeks

c)

Increase dietary potassium immediately

d)

Expect pink urine

24.

A nurse notes ascites and jugular venous distention (JVD) in a HF patient. Which chamber dysfunction is most associated with this finding?

a)

Left ventricular failure only

b)

Right ventricular failure/backward failure

c)

Atrial septal defect

d)

Coronary artery occlusion only

25.

A patient reports orthopnea and two-pillow orthopnea. Which of the following correlates with this assessment finding?

a)

Right lower lobe consolidation only

b)

Pulmonary congestion from left-sided HF

c)

Peripheral arterial disease signs

d)

Hypovolemia

26.

A patient with HF has pitting edema +1 and normal breath sounds. Which nursing diagnosis fits best?

a)

Ineffective airway clearance

b)

Excess fluid volume (mild)

c)

Activity intolerance (severe)

d)

Impaired gas exchange

27.

A patient on spironolactone reports gynecomastia and hyperkalemia. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Continue medications and reassure patient

b)

Hold medications and notify physician

c)

Increase dietary potassium

d)

Obtain an ECG only and continue medications

28.

A patient with HF has BNP markedly elevated. What does this typically indicate?

a)

Volume overload/ventricular stretch

b)

Liver failure only

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Hyperthyroidism only

29.

A hospitalized HF patient has cool, clammy skin, low urine output, and MAP 55 mmHg after diuresis. What is the priority?

a)

Continue diuresis aggressively

b)

Assess for cardiogenic shock and notify provider emergently

c)

Start aspirin immediately

d)

Encourage oral fluids only

30.

A patient with HF develops worsening dyspnea and pink frothy sputum. What is the immediate nursing action?

a)

Sit patient upright, give oxygen, then call for rapid response

b)

Give oral diuretics only

c)

Lay patient flat and start feeding

d)

Give subcutaneous heparin only

31.

A nurse is assessing a client and notices pitting edema in the lower legs. The client has a history of mild congestive heart failure (CHF), which is controlled with medication, and reports that the swelling has become worse lately. Which could the increased edema indicate?

a)

The client has increased physical activity

b)

The client has not been compliant with medications

c)

The client has been under stress

d)

The client has a possible progression of CHF

32.

A client is learning about a low-sodium diet due to heart failure. Which food does the client select for lunch to demonstrate understanding of a low-sodium diet?

a)

Hot dog

b)

Ham

c)

Chicken breast

d)

Shrimp

33.

A 68-year old client is admitted to the coronary care unit with complaints of dyspnea at rest, orthopnea, weight gain, and inability to perform chores in the home due to severe weakness. The client is currently undergoing medical management for her symptoms. What would be the HF classification of this patient?

a)

II-C

b)

III-C

c)

IV-C

d)

IV-D

34.

A nurse is evaluating lab results on a 70-year-old client. The nurse notices an increased level of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). What does this indicate?

a)

Increased left ventricular pressure

b)

Decreased vascular congestion

c)

Decreased gas exchange in lungs

d)

Reduced cardiac workload

35.

A nurse receives a triage call from a client with newly diagnosed heart failure. Which statement indicates a worsening of the client’s condition?

a)

I’ve had two episodes of diarrhea this past week.

b)

I’m eating 6 small meals a day now.

c)

I’ve gained 3 pounds in 24 hours.

d)

I’m most comfortable sleeping with 2 pillows.

36.

A 56-year old man with a history of hypertension and smoking reports chest pain radiating to his left arm. What is the nurse’s priority action?

a)

Administer sublingual nitroglycerine

b)

Obtain a 12-lead ECG

c)

Give 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula

d)

Notify the healthcare provider

37.

A patient with stable angina reports chest pain after climbing stairs that resolves with rest. Which medication should the nurse expect to administer?

a)

Nitroglycerin

b)

Morphine Sulfate

c)

Furosemide

d)

Epinephrine

38.

A patient with myocardial ischemia asks why oxygen is given. The nurse replies:

a)

It prevents blood clots from forming.

b)

it decreases the heart’s oxygen demand.

c)

It increases oxygen supply to the myocardium.

d)

It relaxes coronary arteries.

39.

A patient receiving nitroglycerin IV complains of a headache. What should the nurse do?

a)

Stop the infusion immediately

b)

Reassure and administer acetaminophen

c)

Increase infusion rate

d)

Notify the physician immediately

40.

A patient with CAD asks how beta-blockers help. The nurse explains:

a)

They increase heart rate and oxygen supply.

b)

They decrease myocardial oxygen demand by slowing the heart rate.

c)

They dilate peripheral arteries.

d)

They dissolve coronary artery plaques.

41.

A patient's cardiac enzymes are elevated after chest pain. Which enzyme is most specific for myocardial injury?

a)

AST

b)

LDH

c)

Troponin I

d)

CK-MB

42.

A patient with CAD asks how to prevent angina episodes. The nurse’s best response is:

a)

Avoid large meals and strenuous activity.

b)

Carry nitroglycerin only when exercising.

c)

Take your medication only if you feel chest pain.

d)

Decrease your fluid intake.

43.

The nurse teaches a patient about nitroglycerin use. Which statement shows need for further teaching?

a)

I’ll keep the bottle tightly closed.

b)

I’ll replace my tablets every 6 months.

c)

I’ll take it with a full glass of water.

d)

I’ll keep it in a cool, dark place.

44.

A patient taking atorvastatin complains of muscle pain. The nurse should:

a)

Encourage exercise

b)

Reassure it is expected

c)

Notify the physician

d)

Increase fluid intake

45.

A patient with CAD has BP 88/54 mmHg after nitroglycerin administration. What should the nurse do?

a)

Administer another dose

b)

Elevate the legs

c)

Place the patient upright

d)

Give furosemide

46.

The nurse teaches a patient prescribed metoprolol. Which side effect should be reported immediately?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Dizziness on standing

c)

Shortness of breath and wheezing

d)

Mild bradycardia

47.

A patient with angina reports chest pain while walking. The nurse instructs the patient to:

a)

Stop and rest immediately

b)

Walk faster to improve blood flow

c)

Take nitroglycerin and continue walking

d)

Ignore the pain if mild

48.

Which of the following indicates the most serious complication of myocardial infarction?

a)

Fever

b)

Ventricular dysrhythmia

c)

Fatigue

d)

Mild hypotension

49.

The nurse is evaluating a patient on a low-cholesterol diet. Which meal choice indicates effective teaching?

a)

fried fish and buttered vegetables

b)

Baked chicken with steamed broccoli

c)

Cheeseburger with fries

d)

Sausage and egg

50.

A patient with angina reports chest pain after emotional stress. The nurse recognizes this as:

a)

Variant angina

b)

Stable angina

c)

Unstable angina

d)

Silent ischemia

51.

A patient with unstable angina develops ST-segment elevation. Which test confirms myocardial damage?

a)

serum potassium

b)

troponin level

c)

chest x-ray

d)

echocardiogram

52.

A patient is prescribed metoprolol for angina. What is the priority nursing assessment?

a)

Respiratory rate

b)

Heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Bowel sounds

d)

Reflexes

53.

A patient on betablockers for CAD reports fatigue. What should the nurse explain?

a)

This is expected and may improve over time

b)

Stop the medication immediately

c)

You should double your next dose

d)

It indicates worsening heart failure

54.

A patient reports chest pain unrelieved by three doses of nitroglycerin taken 5 mins apart. The next nursing action is:

a)

Administer morphine

b)

Call emergency medical services

c)

Encourage deep breathing

d)

Give another dose of nitroglycerin

55.

A patient asks, “Why do I need to take aspirin every day if I’m not in pain?” The nurse explains

a)

it helps prevent blood clots in your arteries.

b)

It strengthens your heart muscle.

c)

it improves oxygen delivery.

d)

It lowers your blood pressure.

56.

A 58-year old patient is newly diagnosed with hypertension. Which instruction should the nurse give first?

a)

"Take your medication only"

b)

"Begin exercising three times per week"

c)

"Reduce sodium intake"

d)

"Have your blood pressure checked regularly"

57.

A patient’s BP is 168/100 mmHg. What should the nurse do first?

a)

Recheck BP in the opposite arm

b)

Notify the healthcare provider immediately

c)

Administer IV antihypertensive

d)

Document as normal for age

58.

A patient prescribed hydrochlorothiazide reports muscle weakness. Which lab result should the nurse assess?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Chloride

59.

A patient with hypertension is taking atenolol. Which finding requires immediate attention?

a)

Heart rate 52 bpm

b)

BP 128/78 mmHg

c)

Mild dizziness

d)

Fatigue

60.

A patient prescribed amlodipine reports swollen ankles. What should the nurse do?

a)

Discontinue the medication

b)

Elevate the legs and notify physician

c)

Administer furosemide

d)

Restrict fluids

61.

A patient with stage 2 hypertension asks, “Why do I need two medications?” The best response of the nurse is:

a)

It’s common to use two drugs to control blood pressure effectively.

b)

“One drug increases the effect of the other.”

c)

“You’re resistant to medications.”

d)

“Two medications prevent side effects.”

62.

A hypertensive patient says, “I stopped taking my medications because I felt fine.” The nurse should respond:

a)

That’s good; it means your hypertension is cured

b)

You need to continue taking it to prevent complications.

c)

You can restart it if your BP increases.

d)

Skip a few doses each week.

63.

A patient’s BP is 178/98 mmHg despite taking medications. The nurse should first:

a)

Ask about medication adherence

b)

Increase sodium intake

c)

Encourage fluid restriction

d)

Give another dose immediately

64.

A patient prescribed losartan asks how the medication works. The nurse responds:

a)

It blocks the action of angiotensin II, lowering blood pressure.

b)

It increases the production of angiotensin II, raising blood pressure.

c)

It stimulates beta receptors to slow the heart rate.

d)

It inhibits calcium channels to relax blood vessels.

65.

If a hypertensive patient is in step 3 of the management algorithm, the following drug combinations represent the treatment algorithm, EXCEPT?

a)

Valsartan + Amlodipine + Hydrochlorothiazide

b)

Perindopril + Amlodipine + Indapimide

c)

Atenolol + Nicardipine + Chlorthiadone

d)

Olmesartan + Amlodipine + Hydrochlorothiazide

66.

Which valvular heart disease is caused by a bicuspid valve?

a)

Pulmonary stenosis

b)

Aortic stenosis

c)

Mitral stenosis

d)

Mitral regurgitation

67.

What valvular heart disease is seen in patients with Tetralogy of Fallot?

a)

Pulmonary stenosis

b)

Aortic stenosis

c)

Tricuspid regurgitation

d)

Mitral regurgitation

68.

The following are part of the major criteria in the Jones Criteria, EXCEPT?

a)

Polyarthritis

b)

Subcutaneous Nodules

c)

Carditis

d)

Leukocytosis

69.

The following are part of the minor criteria for the Duke’s Criteria, EXCEPT?

a)

Elevated body temperature

b)

Embolic phenomenon

c)

Echocardiographic evidence of endocardial involvement

d)

Immunological phenomena

70.

What is the primary treatment of choice for peripheral vascular disease?

a)

Nitrates

b)

Beta-blockers

c)

Anticoagulants

d)

Diuretics