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1A03 Final Review- 2025

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which structure contains endolymph?

a)

Scala tympani

b)

Scala vestibuli

c)

Cochlear duct

d)

Round window

2.

Rods are specialized for:

a)

Colour vision

b)

High-acuity vision

c)

High-acuity vision

d)

High-acuity vision

3.

The fovea centralis contains mostly:

a)

 Rods

b)

Cones

c)

Bipolar cells

d)

Ganglion cells only

4.

The round window is necessary because it:

a)

Equalizes pressure in the middle ear

b)

Allows fluid displacement in the cochlea

c)

 Amplifies sound waves

d)

Produces perilymph

5.

Semicircular canals detect:

a)

 Linear acceleration

b)

Angular (rotational) acceleration

c)

Sound frequency

d)

Head tilt relative to gravity

6.

Otoliths in utricle/saccule detect:

a)

Linear acceleration and head position

b)

Angular movement

c)

Sound

d)

 Temperature changes

7.

Odorants must dissolve into mucus because:

a)

 Olfactory hairs are hydrophobic

b)

They must be dissolved to bind chemoreceptors

c)

They cross directly into the olfactory bulb

d)

Mucus neutralizes toxins

8.

 Taste receptors are activated by:

a)

 Mechanoreceptors

b)

Chemoreceptors

c)

Thermoreceptors

d)

Nociceptors

9.

Anterior 2/3 of tongue taste is carried by:

a)

CN V

b)

CN VII

c)

CN IX

d)

CN X

10.

The optic disc is the blind spot because:

a)

Rods only

b)

Cones only

c)

No photoreceptors

d)

It is covered by the lens

11.

The tympanic membrane transmits vibrations to the:

a)

Oval window

b)

Stapes

c)

Malleus

d)

Round window

12.

Which structure equalizes air pressure in the middle ear?

a)

Round Window

b)

Cochlear duct

c)

Eustachian tube

d)

Tympanic membrane

13.

Aqueous humor is produced by the:

a)

Iris

b)

Ciliary body

c)

Choroid

d)

Retina

14.

The utricle and saccule detect:

a)

Rotation

b)

Vibration

c)

 Linear acceleration

d)

Colour

15.

Which CN carries auditory information?

a)

CN III

b)

CN V

c)

CN VII

d)

CN VIII

16.

Sympathetic division originates in:

a)

Craniosacral region

b)

Thoracolumbar region

c)

Cervical region

d)

Sacral only

17.

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons arise from:

a)

T1–L2

b)

CN III, VII, IX, X and S2–S4

c)

C1–C5

d)

 L3-L5

18.

Preganglionic sympathetic neurons release:

a)

NE

b)

ACh

c)

E

d)

Dopamine

19.

The adrenal medulla releases:

a)

ACh

b)

NE and E

c)

Serotonin

d)

Histamine

20.

Parasympathetic activation causes:

a)

Increased HR

b)

Pupil dilation

c)

Increased digestion

d)

Bronchodilation

21.

The somatic nervous system:

a)

Has one neuron to muscle

b)

Has two neurons

c)

Can inhibit skeletal muscle

d)

Uses NE

22.

Dual innervation means:

a)

Organs get only sympathetic fibres

b)

Organs get only parasympathetic fibres

c)

Both divisions affect the same organ

d)

Somatic and autonomic interact

23.

Splanchnic nerves (sympathetic) travel to:

a)

Eyes

b)

Heart

c)

Abdominopelvic organs

d)

Skeletal muscle

24.

Postganglionic sympathetic neurons commonly release:

a)

ACh

b)

NE

c)

GABA

d)

Serotonin

25.

Terminal ganglia are found in:

a)

Sympathetic division

b)

 Parasympathetic division

c)

Somatic division

d)

None of the above

26.

The major mineral stored in bone is:

a)

Chlorine

b)

Potassium

c)

Calcium

d)

Irom

27.

Osteoclasts function to:

a)

Build bone

b)

Break down bone

c)

Produce cartilage

d)

Form marrow

28.

Compact bone’s functional unit is the:

a)

Trabecula

b)

Osteon

c)

Lacuna

d)

Canaliculus

29.

What structure connects lacunae?

a)

Trabeculae

b)

Osteonic canal

c)

Canaliculi

d)

Lamellae

30.

Which cartilage type is found at synovial joints?

a)

Elastic

b)

Fibrocartilage

c)

Hylaine Cartilage

d)

Reticular Cartilage

31.

Red bone marrow is responsible for:

a)

Storing fat

b)

Temperature regulation

c)

Blood cell formation

d)

Producing calcium

32.

Appositional bone growth increases:

a)

Length

b)

Width

c)

Density Only

d)

Epiphyseal Closure

33.

Osteocytes reside in:

a)

Lacunae

b)

Marrow Cavities

c)

Periosteum

d)

Canaliculi

34.

The occipital condyles articulate with:

a)

C2

b)

Atlas (C1)

c)

 C7

d)

Temporal bone

35.

Which vertebra has a dens?

a)

C1

b)

C2

c)

T3

d)

L5

36.

True ribs attach to:

a)

No cartilage

b)

The sternum directly

c)

The sternum via shared cartilage

d)

Not connected to sternum at all

37.

The glenoid cavity belongs to the:

a)

Humerus

b)

 Scapula

c)

Clavicle

d)

Radius

38.

The acetabulum is part of the:

a)

Pelvis

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Fibula

39.

The medial malleolus is part of the:

a)

Fibula

b)

Femur

c)

Tibia

d)

Talus

40.

The olecranon process is part of the:

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Scapula

d)

Humerus

41.

 A synarthrosis joint is:

a)

Immovable

b)

Slightly Moveable

c)

Fully Moveable

d)

A Cartilage-Only Joint

42.

The shoulder is a:

a)

Hinge joint

b)

Ball and socket joint

c)

Saddle joint

d)

Pivot joint

43.

The atlas–axis articulation is mainly a:

a)

Hinge

b)

Pivot

c)

Plane

d)

Condylar

44.

Flexion at the elbow decreases:

a)

Angle between radius and ulna

b)

Angle between humerus and forearm

c)

Tension on carpal bones

d)

Shoulder rotation

45.

 The menisci of the knee are made of:

a)

Hylaine Cartilage

b)

Elastic Cartilage

c)

Fibrocartilage

d)

Bone

46.

The functional unit of skeletal muscle is the:

a)

Myofibril

b)

Sacromere

c)

T-tubule

d)

Sacrolemma

47.

Calcium in skeletal muscle binds to:

a)

Actin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Troponin

d)

Myosin

48.

During contraction, the H zone:

a)

Widens

b)

Disappears

c)

Doubles

d)

Does not change

49.

The power stroke occurs when:

a)

ATP binds myosin

b)

Myosin head detaches

c)

ADP + Pi are released

d)

Calcium is pumped into SR

50.

A motor unit consists of:

a)

One muscle and many neurons

b)

One neuron and many muscle fibres

c)

One fibre and many neurons

d)

Only sensory neurons