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Exam I Review

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During a pediatric pelvic ultrasound, what is the recommended patient interaction to improve cooperation?

a)

Avoid explaining the jelly to the child

b)

Allow a parent to stay with the child

c)

Keep equipment out of the child’s view

d)

Restrain the child to prevent movement

2.

Fill in the blank: For optimal visualization in pediatric transabdominal pelvic ultrasound, the patient should have a (a)   .

3.

Match each exam step with the correct detail for pediatric transabdominal ultrasound preparation and technique.

a)

Hydration timing and amount

1.

24 ounces water 45–60 minutes before

b)

Alternative access route

2.

Rarely, transperineal may be used

c)

Transducer frequency range

3.

Approximately 5 to 7.5 MHz

d)

Imaging approach allowed

4.

Transabdominal imaging only

4.

Fill in the blank: The most common cause of vaginal bleeding in prepubertal girls is a (a)   .

5.

A 13-year-old with a history of in utero exposure to diethylstilbestrol (DES) presents with postmenarchal vaginal bleeding. Which sonographic pattern best aligns with the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Large poorly circumscribed complex mass

b)

Thin-walled simple anechoic cyst

c)

Fat-containing heterogeneous mass

d)

Predominantly solid tumor without cystic spaces

6.

Which statement best describes ovarian cysts in children?

a)

They account for over 70% of ovarian masses

b)

They rarely exceed one percent of ovarian masses

c)

They are always multiple and multiloculated lesions

d)

They usually require urgent surgical excision

7.

Match each ovarian lesion or feature to the correct description.

a)

Follicular retention cysts

1.

Common simple functional cyst type

b)

Hormone-secreting cysts

2.

May lead to precocious puberty in children

c)

Paraovarian cysts

3.

Situated between tube and ovary in mesosalpinx

8.

A 13-year-old presents with a solid ovarian mass that is bilateral on imaging. Which tumor type is most likely?

a)

Endodermal sinus tumor typically cystic

b)

Dysgerminoma fits this presentation

c)

Benign cysts always bilateral masses

d)

Adult-type tumors are common in children

9.

Which characteristic is typical of dysgerminoma in pediatric patients?

a)

Most common malignant ovarian tumor

b)

Always unilateral without solid areas

c)

Frequently secretes hormones causing puberty

d)

Usually derived from endodermal sinus cells

10.

Which statement best describes ovarian agenesis in pediatric patients?

a)

Often bilateral and common in neonates

b)

Associated with rapid postnatal ovarian growth

c)

Extremely rare, often from in utero torsion

d)

Usually acquired after menarche trauma

11.

Gonadal dysgenesis is characterized by which key feature in affected individuals?

a)

Normal-sized functional ovaries present

b)

Reversible enlargement with nutritional therapy

c)

Rudimentary, small, and deficient gonads

d)

Excess androgen production causing virilization

12.

In evaluating ambiguous genitalia in a newborn, what is the most appropriate immediate imaging goal of sonography?

a)

Detect chromosomal mosaicism with imaging

b)

Assess bone age and growth plate fusion

c)

Identify internal reproductive anatomy quickly

d)

Quantify circulating androgen levels precisely

13.

A 6-year-old girl presents with breast development and sonography shows postpubertal-sized ovaries and uterus. Which next step best reflects the pathophysiology to investigate?

a)

Begin iron therapy for anemia-related menarche

b)

Delay evaluation because size is prepubertal

c)

Evaluate for hypothalamic lesions occasionally implicated

d)

Order ovarian biopsy to confirm gonadal dysgenesis

14.

Which finding best defines vaginal atresia?

a)

Incomplete vaginal canalization

b)

Absent ovarian follicles

c)

External genital fusion defects

d)

Congenital uterine duplication

15.

Match each sonographic term with its primary content.

a)

Hydrocolpos

1.

Fluid-filled vagina

b)

Hydrometrocolpos

2.

Fluid-filled vagina and uterus

c)

Hematometrocolpos

3.

Blood-filled vagina and uterus

16.

A 22-year-old has two cervices on speculum exam and pelvic ultrasound shows duplicated uterine horns. Which counseling point is most appropriate?

a)

Requires immediate surgical correction

b)

Usually presents as a small lateral uterus

c)

High risk of renal agenesis contralaterally

d)

Fertility is typically not a problem

17.

On ultrasound, which view most reliably demonstrates the characteristic heart-shaped fundus of a bicornuate uterus?

a)

Transverse pelvic view over the fundus

b)

Oblique adnexal sweep laterally

c)

Transvaginal coronal cervix view

d)

Sagittal midline uterine view only

18.

Which embryologic fact best explains why urinary and reproductive anomalies often co-occur?

a)

They develop at completely separate time points

b)

They arise from postnatal hormonal exposure

c)

They are controlled by unrelated germ layers

d)

They share closely related developmental origins

19.

What clinical action is guided by recognizing the urinary–reproductive developmental link?

a)

Examine both systems when one shows anomaly

b)

Ignore urinary findings in genital anomalies

c)

Screen only kidneys after birth exclusively

d)

Treat reproductive defects without imaging

20.

Which gamete always contributes an X chromosome?

a)

Neither gamete consistently

b)

Either gamete randomly

c)

The sperm from the male

d)

The oocyte from the female

21.

In a fetus with a Müllerian anomaly, what additional evaluation is most justified?

a)

Cardiac MRI for septal abnormalities

b)

Endocrine testing for thyroid disease

c)

Skeletal survey for limb differences

d)

Renal tract imaging for associated defects

22.

Which clinical screening protocol aligns with the GU anomaly prevalence in utero?

a)

Delayed postnatal GU exam only at 1 year

b)

Prenatal ultrasound focusing on kidneys

c)

Routine fetal brain MRI for all pregnancies

d)

Universal amniocentesis for limb defects

23.

Which best distinguishes genetic sex from phenotypic sex?

a)

Genetic sex fixed at fertilization; phenotype develops later

b)

Genetic sex changes at puberty; phenotype fixed at birth

c)

Phenotypic sex fixed at fertilization; genetic changes later

d)

Both genetic and phenotypic sex fixed at birth

24.

Fill in the blank: An embryo with chromosomes XY will typically develop as (a)   .

25.

Fill in the blank: An embryo with chromosomes XX will typically develop as (a)   .

26.

Match each prenatal observation with the most relevant follow-up action.

a)

Detected renal agenesis

1.

Evaluate contralateral kidney function

b)

Identified uterine septum

2.

Assess kidneys and collecting system

c)

Normal GU survey

3.

Routine obstetric care schedule

27.

Which statement about GU anomalies is most accurate for prenatal counseling?

a)

They occur only after birth is completed

b)

They are among the most frequently detected anomalies

c)

They rarely appear on prenatal imaging studies

d)

They usually indicate unrelated cardiac defects

28.

Which investigation is most appropriate when prenatal hydronephrosis is seen?

a)

Assess reproductive tract for anomalies

b)

Thyroid hormone replacement therapy

c)

Genetic testing for cystic fibrosis

d)

Immediate neonatal cardiac surgery

29.

Which time point best matches the establishment of chromosomal sex?

a)

External genitalia formation in second trimester

b)

Gonadal differentiation in first trimester

c)

Postnatal androgen surge in infancy

d)

Zygote formation at conception

30.

The area located between the posterior vaginal wall and the anus

(a)  

31.

The section of the fallopian tube which connects to the uterus

(a)  

32.

Benign uterine tumor also called a leiomyoma

(a)  

33.

Which of the following best describes the piriformis

a)

Serves as a landmark for the bladder

b)

Muscle that courses anteriorly from the sacrum

c)

Courses along the anterolateral border of the pelvis

d)

Consists of 3 paired muscle groups in the inferior pelvis

34.

We can blame incontinence on this muscle group

a)

Pirformis

b)

Coccygeus

c)

Levator Ani

d)

Obturator internus

35.

The angle relationship between the vagina and the cervix is usually

a)

45 degrees

b)

75 degrees

c)

90 degrees

d)

Highly variable between women

36.

Relative to the rectum, the uterus is located

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

37.

The distal widest portion of the uterus

a)

Cervix

b)

Fundus

c)

Corpus

d)

Isthmus

38.

Portion of the uterus indicated by yellow arrow

a)

Vagina

b)

Isthmus

c)

Corpus

d)

Cervix

39.

Portion of the uterus at yellow arrow

a)

Isthmus

b)

Interstitial

c)

Cornua

d)

Ampulla

40.

Area at yellow arrow

a)

Cornua

b)

Interstitial

c)

Infundibulum

d)

Ampulla

41.

Yellow arrow is pointing to

a)

External os

b)

Fornix

c)

Serosa

d)

Internal os

42.

Yellow arrow is pointing to

a)

Endocervical canal

b)

Anterior os

c)

Lateral fornix

d)

Internal os

43.

Yellow arrow is pointing to

a)

Broad ligament

b)

Round ligament

c)

Ovarian ligament

d)

Suspensory ligament

44.

Uterine layer indicated by yellow arrow

a)

Serosa

b)

Myometrium

c)

Endometrium

d)

Mucosal

45.

A double fold of peritoneum lateral to the uterus enveloping ligaments, vessels and tube

a)

Serosa

b)

Perimetrium

c)

Broad

d)

Uterine

46.

Ligament responsible for maintaining uterine position

a)

Uterine

b)

Suspensory

c)

Broad

d)

Round

47.

The sonographic appearance of the endometrium at ovulation can be best described as

a)

Uniformly hyperechoic

b)

Highly variable

c)

Triple layer

d)

Hypoechoic layers

48.

Responsible for secreting progesterone

a)

Follicles

b)

Secretory endometrium

c)

Pituitary gland

d)

Corpus luteum

49.

Ovarian support includes all the following except

a)

Broad ligament

b)

Round ligament

c)

Ovarian ligament

d)

Infundibulopelvic ligament

50.

Where fertilization should occur

a)

Uterine cavity

b)

Ampulla of tube

c)

Ovary

d)

Interstitial tube

51.

Potential space between uterus and rectum

a)

Rectouterine

b)

PCDS

c)

Pouch of Douglas

d)

All are correct

52.

A decline in which of the following triggers menses

a)

Estrogen

b)

Progesterone

c)

FSH

d)

LH