wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Mens. Disorders and Contraceptive Drugs

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which event is directly triggered by the mid-cycle LH surge?

a)

Thickening of cervical mucus

b)

Endometrial shedding

c)

Rupture of the dominant follicle and ovulation

d)

Regression of the corpus luteum

2.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for converting the endometrium from proliferative to secretory phase?

a)

FSH

b)

LH

c)

Estrogen

d)

Progesterone

3.

Which of the following is a synthetic estrogen commonly used in oral contraceptives?

a)

Norethindrone

b)

Ethinyl estradiol

c)

Medroxyprogesterone

d)

Norgestrel

4.

Which progestin is derived from spironolactone and may increase potassium levels?

a)

Norgestimate

b)

Norethindrone

c)

Drospirenone

d)

Etonogestrel

5.

What is the primary mechanism by which combination oral contraceptives prevent ovulation?

a)

Thinning endometrium

b)

Suppression of GnRH and inhibition of LH surge

c)

Increasing FSH levels

d)

Blocking progesterone receptors

6.

Which effect is unique to progestin-only contraceptives?

a)

Suppression of FSH

b)

Inhibition of mid-cycle LH surge

c)

Thickening of cervical mucus

d)

Increased estrogen levels

7.

Combination oral contraceptives are associated with a decreased risk of which condition?

a)

DVT

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Ovarian cancer

d)

Hypertension

8.

Which patient group has increased risk of DVT when using combined oral contraceptives?

a)

Adolescents

b)

Smokers

c)

Patients using only progestin therapy

d)

Vegetarians

9.

Which of the following significantly reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives by inducing hepatic enzymes and inhibiting enterohepatic recycling?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Rifampin

c)

Duloxetine

d)

Metoprolol

10.

The primary mechanism by which certain antibiotics (e.g., penicillin, tetracycline) reduce oral contraceptive efficacy is through:

a)

CYP inhibition

b)

CYP induction

c)

Eradication of gut flora reducing enterohepatic recycling

d)

Increased renal elimination

11.

Which structural feature allows norethindrone to be orally active?

a)

Removal of C-3 hydroxyl group

b)

Addition of ethinyl group

c)

Presence of lactone ring

d)

Addition of methyl group at C-19

12.

Which statement about Medroxyprogesterone Acetate (MPA) is TRUE?

a)

Has strong androgenic activity

b)

Administered intramuscularly and can reduce bone mineral density

c)

Increases GnRH release

d)

Used exclusively as an oral contraceptive

13.

Which agent is a progesterone antagonist effective for post-coital contraception and early pregnancy termination when paired with misoprostol?

a)

Drospirenone

b)

Mifepristone

c)

Norethindrone

d)

Medroxyprogesterone

14.

Ulipristal acetate acts primarily by:

a)

Inhibiting progesterone synthesis

b)

Blocking progesterone receptors

c)

Thickening cervical mucus

d)

Suppressing estrogen production

15.

Which statement accurately describes male hormonal contraception?

a)

Effective and widely used

b)

Androgens produce complete azoospermia in all men

c)

Testosterone enanthate causes azoospermia in ~50% of men and can cause gynecomastia

d)

Cyproterone acetate increases sperm production

16.

Which change caused by progestins plays the largest role in preventing sperm from reaching the ovum?

a)

Suppression of LH

b)

Thickening of cervical mucus

c)

Increased FSH pulses

d)

Increased endometrial proliferation

17.

Why do estrogen components of combined oral contraceptives suppress follicular development?

a)

They directly block ovulation at the ovary

b)

They stimulate GnRH secretion

c)

They suppress FSH release

d)

They prevent cervical mucus thickening

18.

A patient taking a drospirenone-containing contraceptive should be monitored for which abnormality?

a)

Elevated sodium

b)

Elevated potassium

c)

Low estrogen levels

d)

Low FSH levels

19.

Which progestin is intentionally designed to reduce androgenic effects?

a)

Norgestrel

b)

Norethindrone

c)

Norgestimate

d)

Dimethisterone

20.

Why does medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) have a boxed warning for bone mineral density loss?

a)

It contains estrogen

b)

It causes high androgen levels

c)

It dramatically reduces GnRH

d)

It prevents progesterone breakdown

21.

Which characteristic of mifepristone makes it effective for post-coital contraception?

a)

It inhibits androgen receptors

b)

It stimulates FSH release

c)

It blocks progesterone receptors

d)

It inhibits estrogen synthesis

22.

Why has testosterone enanthate not become a widely used male contraceptive?

a)

It is too expensive

b)

It is ineffective in suppressing sperm production in most men

c)

It produces azoospermia in only ~50%

d)

It increases estrogen to toxic levels

23.

Which structural feature is essential for a molecule to exhibit progestin activity?

a)

An aromatic A-ring

b)

A lactone ring at the C-17 position

c)

A steroid nucleus structure

d)

A hydroxyl group at C-3

24.

The ethinyl group found in norethindrone and norgestrel is primarily responsible for which property?

a)

Increasing androgenic side effects

b)

Reducing mineralocorticoid activity

c)

Making the drug orally active

d)

Increasing estrogenic activity

25.

Structural derivatives of testosterone used as progestins (e.g., estrane derivatives) are associated with which side effect?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Increased risk of osteoporosis

c)

Acne and hirsutism

d)

Increased blood glucose

26.

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) contains which functional modification that enhances its stability and activity?

a)

Removal of C-19 methyl

b)

Esterification at the 17-alpha hydroxyl

c)

Aromatization of ring A

d)

Addition of lactone ring

27.

Which structural change distinguishes estrane derivatives (e.g., norethindrone) from other steroid hormones?

a)

Addition of a methyl at C-6

b)

Removal of the methyl group at C-19

c)

Conversion of ring D into a lactone

d)

Aromatization of ring A

28.

Which structural component of mifepristone is primarily responsible for its antagonism at progesterone receptors?

a)

Ethinyl group

b)

Dimethyl-aminophenyl group

c)

Lactone ring

d)

21-carbon backbone

29.

Norgestrel is described as a racemic mixture, but only one isomer is biologically active. Which is the active isomer?

a)

D-isomer

b)

(+)-isomer

c)

S-enantiomer

d)

L-isomer

30.

Which statement best describes monophasic oral contraceptive formulations?

a)

The estrogen dose changes weekly

b)

The progestin dose changes twice during the cycle

c)

The estrogen and progestin doses remain constant throughout the cycle

d)

Only progestin is supplied

31.

Which of the following best describes dysmenorrhea?

a)

Bleeding at irregular intervals

b)

Painful menstrual cramps caused by uterine contractions

c)

Absence of menstruation

d)

Heavy menstrual bleeding

32.

Menorrhagia is characterized by:

a)

Bleeding between menstrual periods

b)

Light menstrual periods

c)

Prolonged or excessive menstrual bleeding

d)

Painful ovulation

33.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a cause of menstrual disorders?

a)

Uterine fibroids

b)

Hormonal imbalances

c)

Autoimmune thyroiditis

d)

Polycystic ovary syndrome

34.

Which treatment is considered first-line for heavy menstrual bleeding?

a)

Tranexamic acid

b)

Depo-Provera

c)

Mirena

d)

NSAIDs alone

35.

Tranexamic acid works by:

a)

Blocking estrogen receptors

b)

Increasing progesterone levels

c)

Preventing fibrinolysis

d)

Stimulating FSH and LH release

36.

Which medication is associated with masculinizing side effects and therefore not suitable for long-term use?

a)

Leuprolide

b)

Danazol

c)

Clomiphene

d)

Bromocriptine

37.

Endometriosis is best defined as:

a)

Growth of uterine fibroids

b)

Presence of estrogen-sensitive endometrial tissue outside the uterus

c)

Excessive menstrual bleeding due to clotting disorder

d)

Ovarian cyst formation

38.

Which of the following is a key risk factor for endometriosis?

a)

High BMI

b)

Late menarche

c)

Short menstrual cycles

d)

Low estrogen levels

39.

A major complication of endometriosis includes:

a)

VTE

b)

Infertility

c)

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

d)

Heavy menstrual bleeding only

40.

Which therapy is limited to 6 months due to its risk of bone mineral density loss?

a)

Danazol

b)

Aromatase inhibitors

c)

GnRH agonists

d)

Bromocriptine

41.

Which symptom is commonly associated with endometriosis?

a)

Frequent urination

b)

Pain with bowel movements or urination

c)

Polyphagia

d)

Weight loss

42.

Infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after:

a)

3 months of unprotected intercourse

b)

6 months of unprotected intercourse

c)

1 year of unprotected intercourse

d)

2 years of unprotected intercourse

43.

The MOST common causes of female infertility include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Ovulation disorders

b)

Tubal abnormalities

c)

Endometriosis

d)

Hypothyroidism

44.

Clomiphene induces ovulation primarily by:

a)

Blocking dopamine receptors

b)

Inhibiting estrogen’s negative feedback on GnRH

c)

Increasing prolactin levels

d)

Directly stimulating ovarian follicles

45.

Which adverse effect is associated with clomiphene use?

a)

Bone loss

b)

Visual disturbances and hot flashes

c)

Masculinizing effects

d)

Postural hypotension

46.

Bromocriptine is used to treat infertility by:

a)

Stimulating FSH and LH directly

b)

Increasing estrogen production

c)

Decreasing prolactin secretion via D2 receptor activation

d)

Enhancing ovulation through aromatase inhibition

47.

Which ovulation-inducing drug has a 20–40% chance of causing multiple births?

a)

Clomiphene

b)

hMG/FSH

c)

Bromocriptine

d)

GnRH pump

48.

Aromatase inhibitors such as letrozole promote ovulation by:

a)

Blocking androgen production

b)

Inhibiting conversion of androgens to estrogens

c)

Increasing prolactin release

d)

Mimicking FSH

49.

PCOS is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Many small cysts containing immature follicles

b)

Regular ovulation

c)

Infertility

d)

Irregular menstrual periods

50.

Which therapy is appropriate for PCOS when pregnancy is NOT desired?

a)

hMG

b)

GnRH pump

c)

Low-dose oral contraceptives

d)

High-dose estrogen

51.

Metformin helps in PCOS management by:

a)

Increasing estrogen levels

b)

Increasing insulin sensitivity via AMPK activation

c)

Stimulating LH release

d)

Blocking progesterone receptors

52.

Which drug used for menstrual disorders carries a contraindication in women with venous thromboembolism?

a)

Danazol

b)

Tranexamic acid

c)

Mirena

d)

GnRH agonists

53.

hich drug class is used for both menstrual disorders and endometriosis due to its ability to suppress LH and FSH?

a)

Aromatase inhibitors

b)

GnRH agonists

c)

Dopamine agonists

d)

Insulin sensitizers

54.

What is the primary rationale for avoiding long-term Danazol therapy?

a)

Bone mineral density loss

b)

Severe hepatotoxicity

c)

Masculinizing side effects

d)

Increased risk of thrombosis

55.

Which symptom best differentiates PMDD from PMS?

a)

Bloating

b)

Mood swings and severe irritability

c)

Breast tenderness

d)

Fatigue

56.

Which infertility therapy requires the patient to wear an infusion pump delivering medication every 90 minutes?

a)

GnRH therapy

b)

hMG/FSH injections

c)

Bromocriptine

d)

Aromatase inhibitors

57.

Which drug should be avoided in patients with pituitary tumors >1 cm?

a)

Clomiphene

b)

Bromocriptine

c)

hMG

d)

GnRH agonists

58.

Which menstrual disorder is defined as infrequent menstrual periods?

a)

Amenorrhea

b)

Oligomenorrhea

c)

Hypomenorrhea

d)

Metrorrhagia

59.

GnRH agonists manage menstrual disorders by

a)

Enhancing estrogen production

b)

Blocking LH and FSH release

c)

Increasing progesterone secretion

d)

Inhibiting aromatase

60.

Which of the following theories describes menstrual blood flowing backward into the pelvic cavity?

a)

Immune system defect

b)

Transformed peritoneal cells

c)

Retrograde menstruation

d)

Endometrial cell transport