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IUD Insertion and Infertility Worksheet Questions (Grade 13)

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for IUD insertion?

a)

History of dysmenorrhea

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Prior cesarean section

d)

Mild anemia

2.

A 19-year-old nulliparous patient requests an IUD. Which factor makes IUD placement contraindicated in this case?

a)

Age <20 with nulliparity

b)

Regular menstrual cycles

c)

No history of STI

d)

Prior oral contraceptive use

3.

Which infectious condition is a contraindication to IUD insertion?

a)

Bacterial vaginosis

b)

Candidiasis

c)

Active cervicitis or PID

d)

Recurrent UTIs

4.

The presence of which of the following uterine or pelvic conditions would prevent IUD placement?

a)

Normal anteverted uterus

b)

Abnormal uterine cavity

c)

Endometrial polyp

d)

Small simple ovarian cyst

5.

A patient with a history of gestational trophoblastic disease, pelvic tuberculosis, or untreated cervical cancer should avoid IUD insertion because these are:

a)

Temporary side effects

b)

Relative indications for IUD placement

c)

Contraindications to IUD insertion

d)

Normal findings before insertion

6.

Which of the following is a known risk associated with IUD use, especially shortly after insertion?

a)

Fibroid degeneration

b)

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

c)

Polycystic ovarian syndrome

d)

Endometriosis

7.

A patient with an IUD becomes pregnant. What complications is she at increased risk for?

a)

Benign ovarian cysts only

b)

Ectopic pregnancy, spontaneous abortion, and septic abortion

c)

Hyperemesis gravidarum

d)

Placenta previa

8.

Which of the following is considered a mechanical complication of IUD use?

a)

Uterine perforation

b)

Ovarian torsion

c)

Cervical stenosis

d)

Dysmenorrhea

9.

Where should a correctly positioned IUD be located?

a)

In the lower uterine segment

b)

Embedded in the myometrium

c)

In the uterine fundus above the internal os

d)

In the cervical canal

10.

What is the typical ultrasound appearance of an IUD?

a)

Hypoechoic ring with no shadowing

b)

Echogenic structure with high-amplitude echoes and acoustic shadowing

c)

Isoechoic line with no distinct borders

d)

Small cystic structure in the endometrium

11.

Which of the following symptoms may indicate an IUD is out of place or displaced?

a)

Mild PMS symptoms

b)

Changes in string length, pelvic pain, or severe cramping

c)

Temporary breast tenderness

d)

Decreased menstrual flow

12.

A patient with a malpositioned IUD may present with which additional symptom?

a)

No menstrual changes at all

b)

Abnormal bleeding or spotting, pain during intercourse, or abnormal discharge

c)

Sudden weight gain

d)

Dermatitis around the umbilicus

13.

Which of the following best defines infertility?

a)

Inability to conceive after six months of trying, regardless of age

b)

Failure to conceive after at least one year of trying, or two years for older individuals

c)

Failure to conceive after three months of trying

d)

Inability to conceive only when medical conditions are present

14.

Which of the following is a male factor that can contribute to infertility?

a)

Hormonal imbalance

b)

Varicoceles

c)

Age over 35

d)

Congenital uterine anomalies

15.

Which male condition related to the urethra can lead to infertility?

a)

Urethral strictures from venereal disease

b)

Epididymal cysts

c)

Prostate hypertrophy

d)

Testicular torsion

16.

Which of the following is a female factor that may affect fertility?

a)

Lowered sperm motility

b)

Infection

c)

Varicoceles

d)

Urethral stricture

17.

Which of the following is considered a female factor of infertility related to structural or congenital issues?

a)

Urethral stricture

b)

Congenital anomalies

c)

Low sperm count

d)

Varicoceles

18.

Which drugs are commonly used in ovulation induction therapy?

a)

Metformin and Letrozole

b)

Clomid and Pergonal

c)

Progesterone and Estrogen

d)

Tamoxifen and HCG

19.

What is the main difference between IVF and GIFT?

a)

IVF fertilization occurs inside the fallopian tube, GIFT occurs in a lab

b)

IVF fertilization occurs outside the body in a lab, GIFT occurs inside the body in the fallopian tube

c)

IVF requires at least one normal fallopian tube, GIFT does not

d)

IVF transfers sperm only, GIFT transfers embryos only

20.

Which statement correctly describes IVF (in vitro fertilization)?

a)

Ova and sperm are placed directly into the fallopian tube

b)

Mature ova are retrieved, fertilized in a lab dish, incubated, and 2–5 embryos are transferred to the uterus

c)

Fertilization occurs spontaneously within the uterus

d)

Only one embryo is always transferred

21.

Which requirement is specific to GIFT (gamete intrafallopian transfer)?

a)

The woman must have at least one normal, open fallopian tube

b)

Fertilization must occur in a lab incubator

c)

Multiple embryos must be frozen before transfer

d)

Hormonal therapy is unnecessary

22.

Which fertility procedure carries a higher risk of a pregnancy with multiple fetuses?

a)

GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer)

b)

Clomid therapy

c)

In vitro fertilization (IVF)

d)

Artificial insemination

23.

Where do the majority of ectopic pregnancies develop?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Cervix

c)

Fallopian tubes

d)

Abdominal cavity

24.

If a patient is suspected of having an ectopic pregnancy, what is the first immediate action?

a)

Schedule a routine follow-up in a week

b)

Allow the patient to go home and rest

c)

Do not let them leave and perform a STAT exam

d)

Prescribe bed rest

25.

Which diagnostic methods are used to confirm an ectopic pregnancy?

a)

HCG level measurement, ultrasound, D&C, culdocentesis, or laparoscopy

b)

Only physical exam

c)

X-ray of the abdomen

d)

Colonoscopy

26.

Which of the following are potential life-threatening consequences of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Mild nausea and fatigue

b)

Hemorrhage, severe pain, shock, and possible death

c)

Headache and dizziness only

d)

Temporary spotting

27.

Which long-term consequences may result from a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

a)

Loss of a fallopian tube (salpingectomy) and fertility issues

b)

Improved fertility

c)

Weight gain and hypertension

d)

Chronic urinary infections

28.

What is the most common cause of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Chlamydia and gonorrhea (STDs)

c)

IUD use

d)

Endometrial biopsy

29.

Which of the following is a less common cause of PID?

a)

STD infection

b)

IUD use

c)

Sigmoiditis

d)

Retained products of conception

30.

Which of the following are considered the least common causes of PID?

a)

Chlamydia and gonorrhea

b)

D&C, hysterosalpingography, endometrial biopsy, retained POC, appendicitis, and sigmoiditis

c)

IUD use

d)

Hormonal imbalance

31.

What is the initial stage of PID and how does it present?

a)

Salpingitis; inflamed fallopian tubes

b)

Endometritis; inflamed uterus with possible fluid in the endometrial cavity or cul-de-sac

c)

Tubo-ovarian abscess; pus collection in the ovary and tube

d)

Hydrosalpinx; fluid-filled fallopian tubes

32.

During Stage 2 of PID, which structures become involved?

a)

Ovaries only

b)

Fallopian tubes, leading to salpingitis, hydrosalpinx, or pyosalpinx

c)

Uterus only

d)

Cervix and vagina

33.

What is a tubo-ovarian abscess?

a)

A fluid-filled uterus

b)

A thick-walled pus collection involving both the ovary and fallopian tube

c)

An inflamed fallopian tube with no pus

d)

A cyst on the ovary unrelated to infection

34.

What are possible long-term complications of untreated PID?

a)

Infertility and chronic pelvic pain

b)

Increased menstrual flow only

c)

Ovarian cyst formation without pain

d)

Resolution without consequences

35.

Which statement correctly describes the progression of PID?

a)

Infection starts in the ovaries, moves to the tubes, then to the uterus

b)

Infection starts in the uterus (endometritis), progresses to the tubes (salpingitis), and can finally involve the ovary forming a tubo-ovarian abscess

c)

PID only affects the uterus

d)

PID progresses from the bladder to the cervix to the uterus

36.

What is endometritis?

a)

Inflammation or infection of the fallopian tube

b)

Obstructed tube filled with serous secretions

c)

Inflammation or infection of the endometrium

d)

A fused ovary and tube with pus

37.

What best describes hydrosalpinx?

a)

Acute inflammation of the ovary

b)

Obstructed fallopian tube filled with serous secretions, often secondary to PID, endometriosis, or postoperative adhesions

c)

Collection of pus in the endometrium

d)

Fusion of the ovary and inflamed tube

38.

Salpingitis, classified as Stage 2 PID, refers to:

a)

Inflammation or infection of the fallopian tube (can be acute, subacute, or chronic)

b)

Obstruction of the endometrium

c)

Fusion of ovary and tube

d)

Collection of pus in the cul-de-sac

39.

Pyosalpinx is defined as:

a)

Endometrial inflammation

b)

Retained pus in the oviduct with inflammation

c)

Obstructed tube with serous fluid

d)

Fusion of ovary and tube without pus

40.

What characterizes a tubo-ovarian complex?

a)

Ovary and tube are normal but inflamed

b)

Ovary cannot be separated from the inflamed dilated fallopian tube

c)

Obstructed tube filled with serous secretions

d)

Fusion of ovary and tube with loculated pus

41.

How is a tubo-ovarian abscess different from a tubo-ovarian complex?

a)

It is an early stage of infection

b)

The inflamed ovary and tube are fused and further loculated pus is present; structures are no longer distinguishable

c)

Only the tube is involved

d)

Only the ovary is involved

42.

What is the internal form of endometriosis called?

a)

Pyosalpinx

b)

Adenomyosis

c)

Hydrosalpinx

d)

Salpingitis

43.

What is the external or indirect form of endometriosis called?

a)

Endometriosis (indirect)

b)

Tubo-ovarian abscess

c)

Salpingitis

d)

Adenomyosis

44.

What is the focal type of endometriosis called?

a)

Adenomyosis

b)

Endometrioma (chocolate cyst)

c)

Hydrosalpinx

d)

Pyosalpinx

45.

Why is an endometrioma called a “chocolate cyst”?

a)

It contains fresh blood and tissue

b)

Old blood collects inside, giving it a dark brown “chocolate” appearance; it is localized and typically 2–5 cm

c)

It contains pus and fluid

d)

It is filled with serous secretions

46.

Which of the following is a common symptom of endometriosis?

a)

Severe dysmenorrhea (painful periods)

b)

Frequent urination

c)

Nausea only

d)

Hypertension

47.

Endometriosis may cause which types of pain?

a)

Lower abdominal, pelvic, and back pain

b)

Headache and chest pain

c)

Only shoulder pain

d)

Pain-free in all cases

48.

Which of the following are additional possible symptoms of endometriosis?

a)

Infertility, dyspareunia, and irregular bleeding

b)

High fever and rash

c)

Frequent urination and dehydration

d)

Hair loss and brittle nails

49.

Which group of women is most at risk of developing adenomyosis?

a)

Women who have had uterine surgery

b)

Women with no history of surgery

c)

Women who are postmenopausal only

d)

Teenagers

50.

Which of the following is a medical treatment option for endometriosis?

a)

Oral contraceptives

b)

Surgical excision only

c)

Complete hysterectomy only

d)

Appendectomy

51.

Which surgical treatments may be used for severe endometriosis?

a)

Surgical excision of mass and complete hysterectomy with bilateral oophorectomy

b)

Only laparoscopic biopsy

c)

Appendectomy

d)

Kidney removal

52.

Which of the following are additional treatment strategies for endometriosis?

a)

Danazol, drug therapy with laser therapy, natural menopause, or pregnancy

b)

Only antibiotics

c)

Chemotherapy

d)

Radiation therapy

53.

A simple ovarian cyst in a premenopausal woman is usually considered for surgical removal when it is:

a)

Greater than 10 cm

b)

Greater than 3 cm

c)

Greater than 5 cm

d)

Any size

54.

A simple ovarian cyst in a postmenopausal woman is usually considered for surgical removal when it is:

a)

Greater than 3 cm

b)

Greater than 5 cm

c)

Greater than 8 cm

d)

Any size

55.

Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma is:

a)

A benign ovarian cyst

b)

The malignant counterpart of a mucinous cystadenoma

c)

Only found in teenagers

d)

A type of endometrioma

56.

Which of the following characteristics describe mucinous cystadenocarcinoma?

a)

Small, unilocular cyst with no septations

b)

Large, multiloculated cystic mass with prominent septations, may contain papillary projections, and can reach up to 30 cm

c)

Solid ovarian tumor without cysts

d)

Fluid-filled tube with no septations

57.

What is a potential complication if a mucinous cystadenocarcinoma ruptures?

a)

Hemorrhagic cyst

b)

Pseudomyxoma peritonei

c)

Hydrosalpinx

d)

Salpingitis

58.

Which of the following best describes an ovarian fibroma?

a)

A malignant epithelial tumor

b)

A tumor composed of fibrous (connective) tissue

c)

A fluid-filled cystic tumor

d)

A tumor producing large amounts of progesterone

59.

Which statement is true about the demographics and size of ovarian fibromas?

a)

Most common in women in their 20s, usually bilateral, 1–3 cm

b)

Most common in women in their 50s–60s, 90% unilateral, typically 5–16 cm but can be larger

c)

Only occurs in postmenopausal women, always smaller than 5 cm

d)

Occurs mostly in teenagers, 50% bilateral, “melon size”

60.

Ovarian fibroma is most commonly associated with which syndrome?

a)

Turner Syndrome

b)

Meigs’ Syndrome

c)

Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

d)

Stein-Leventhal Syndrome

61.

What is a Krukenberg tumor?

a)

A primary ovarian cystadenoma

b)

A metastatic tumor to the ovary from a primary site elsewhere

c)

A benign fibrous ovarian tumor

d)

An endometrioma

62.

What is the most common primary site for a Krukenberg tumor?

a)

Breast

b)

Gastrointestinal (GI) tract

c)

Uterus

d)

Kidney

63.

Which of the following features are characteristic of Krukenberg tumors?

a)

Unilateral, solid only, no special cellular features

b)

Bilateral, “moth-eaten” sign, signet ring cells, can be cystic, mixed, or solid

c)

Always cystic and unilateral

d)

Only occurs in adolescents and is always benign

64.

Stein-Leventhal Syndrome is also known as:

a)

Meigs’ Syndrome

b)

Polycystic Ovarian Disease (PCOD)

c)

Krukenberg Tumor

d)

Adenomyosis

65.

Which of the following are common clinical features of Stein-Leventhal Syndrome?

a)

Obesity, menstrual abnormalities (oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea), hirsutism, and infertility

b)

Severe dysmenorrhea only

c)

Postmenopausal bleeding

d)

Pelvic inflammatory disease

66.

What hormonal changes are typically seen in patients with Stein-Leventhal Syndrome?

a)

High serum testosterone, LH, or FSH

b)

Low estrogen and progesterone only

c)

Only high prolactin

d)

No endocrine abnormalities

67.

Which of the following best describes the typical presentation of theca lutein cysts?

a)

Small, unilateral, simple cysts

b)

Large, bilateral, multiloculated cysts (3–20 cm) in both ovaries

c)

Solid ovarian masses with no cystic components

d)

Only found in teenagers

68.

Theca lutein cysts are commonly associated with:

a)

Low levels of HCG

b)

High levels of HCG, seen in 30% of patients with trophoblastic disease, or infertility drug therapy

c)

Endometriosis only

d)

Chronic PID

69.

Which of the following best describes a serous cystadenoma?

a)

A malignant ovarian tumor filled with mucinous material

b)

The most common benign epithelial ovarian tumor, usually filled with serous fluid, typically unilateral, 5–10 cm in size

c)

A solid fibrous tumor common in teenagers

d)

A multiloculated cyst associated with Meigs’ syndrome

70.

Serous cystadenomas are most commonly found in:

a)

Adolescents

b)

Premenopausal women only

c)

Postmenopausal women and are often asymptomatic

d)

Men

71.

Which statement best describes a Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor (Arrhenoblastoma)?

a)

A common epithelial ovarian tumor in postmenopausal women

b)

A rare sex cord–stromal ovarian tumor (<0.5% of ovarian tumors) that secretes androgens

c)

A benign cyst filled with serous fluid

d)

A cystic tumor associated with trophoblastic disease

72.

What are common clinical features of Sertoli-Leydig cell tumors?

a)

Pain, abdominal swelling, and masculinization due to increased testosterone

b)

Dysmenorrhea and irregular bleeding only

c)

Nausea and vomiting with multilocular cysts

d)

Infertility without hormonal changes