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OB full 60 questions Exam Prep

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Human behavior in organizations primarily results from:

a)

Personality only

b)

Environment only

c)

Personality and environment

d)

Work experience

2.

An employee who is generally calm becomes impatient during a chaotic meeting due to:

a)

A sudden change in personality

b)

Situational pressure

c)

A lack of competence

d)

Poor time management

3.

A social norm in an organization is:

a)

A written rule

b)

A government law

c)

An unwritten rule shared by the group

d)

A personal rule of a manager

4.

Newcomers primarily learn organizational norms by:

a)

Reading the company manual

b)

Observing colleagues

c)

Listening to the CEO

d)

Taking a formal exam

5.

Primary emotions such as joy or fear are:

a)

Specific to culture

b)

Learned in childhood

c)

Universal

d)

Rare in organizations

6.

The main difference between emotions and moods is that emotions:

a)

Last longer

b)

Are brief and related to an event

c)

Have no cause

d)

Are always negative

7.

Displaying emotions that are not genuinely felt is called:

a)

Emotional balance

b)

Emotional dissonance

c)

Emotional freedom

d)

Emotional neutrality

8.

Emotional dissonance over time leads to:

a)

More creativity

b)

Emotional fatigue

c)

A higher salary

d)

Better focus

9.

Positive emotions during a brainstorming session tend to:

a)

Block cooperation

b)

Reduce productivity

c)

Facilitate creativity

d)

Have no effect

10.

Personality is best defined as:

a)

A temporary state of mind

b)

A set of stable individual characteristics

c)

A technical skill

d)

A situational reaction

11.

Temperament refers to personality traits that are:

a)

Learned

b)

Cultural

c)

Innate

d)

Unrelated to behavior

12.

The MBTI identifies:

a)

4 types of personality

b)

8 types of personality

c)

12 types of personality

d)

16 types of personality

13.

The MBTI is based on the work of:

a)

Freud

b)

Jung

c)

Skinner

d)

Adler

14.

The Big Five model contains:

a)

Three traits

b)

Four traits

c)

Five traits

d)

Six traits

15.

The openness in the Big Five is associated with:

a)

Aggression

b)

Creativity

c)

Strength

d)

Conformity

16.

The acronym for the Big Five is:

a)

SMART

b)

PERMA

c)

OCEAN

d)

TEAM

17.

According to Schwartz, values are:

a)

Short-term emotions

b)

Stable principles guiding what matters

c)

Professional skills

d)

Personality traits

18.

Hedonism as a value refers to:

a)

Respecting traditions

b)

Avoiding risks

c)

Pursuing pleasure

d)

Obeying authority

19.

Behavior strongly depends on:

a)

Objective reality

b)

Perception of reality

c)

Size of the company

d)

Salary

20.

According to Herzberg, hygiene factors:

a)

Strongly motivate

b)

Have no effect

c)

Prevent dissatisfaction

d)

Reduce performance

21.

A clean and comfortable office:

a)

Strongly motivate

b)

Has no impact

c)

Prevents complaints

d)

Reduces stress

22.

Which is one of McClelland's needs?

a)

Security

b)

Money

c)

Achievement

d)

Routine

23.

A manager who likes to influence others has a strong need for:

a)

Affiliation

b)

Power

c)

Autonomy

d)

Security

24.

Which of the needs is NOT a part of Alderfer's ERG theory?

a)

Existence

b)

Relationships

c)

Growth

d)

Security

25.

Goals are most effective when they are:

a)

Vague

b)

Too easy

c)

Clear and specific

d)

Hidden

26.

Vroom's Expectancy Theory states that motivation occurs when people believe that:

a)

Rewards are random

b)

Effort leads to performance and valued rewards

c)

Effort always causes stress

d)

Performance is unimportant

27.

According to Adams' equity theory, employees:

a)

Ignore the rewards of others

b)

Compare their contributions and results with those of others

c)

Seek inequality

d)

Focus solely on personal goals

28.

Perception is the process of:

a)

Recording objective facts

b)

Organizing and interpreting impressions

c)

Measuring intelligence

d)

Estimating performance

29.

The formation of an impression when meeting someone is generally:

a)

Slow and cautious

b)

Based on random cues

c)

Fast and based on shortcuts

d)

Completely rational

30.

Asch's research showed that:

a)

No single trait can change an impression

b)

A central trait like 'warm' or 'cold' can change the entire impression

c)

Only physical traits matter

d)

First impressions are always wrong

31.

The halo effect occurs when:

a)

Each trait is judged separately

b)

One trait dominates the overall judgment

c)

Appearance is ignored

d)

Complete information is available

32.

The implicit theories of personality are:

a)

Corporate policies

b)

Beliefs about traits that go together

c)

Legal definitions of personality

d)

Random errors

33.

The homogeneity of external groups means seeing the members of another group as:

a)

Very diverse

b)

All the same

c)

Superior

d)

Unpredictable

34.

The homogeneity of groups means seeing the members of another group as:

a)

Very diverse

b)

All the same

c)

Superior

d)

Unpredictable

35.

Stereotypes influence perception because they:

a)

Have no effect

b)

Guide attention and interpretation

c)

Eliminate bias

d)

Improve accuracy

36.

Favoring one's group of belonging helps individuals to:

a)

Reduce self-esteem

b)

Increase self-esteem

c)

Avoid bias

d)

Reject group identity

37.

The social desirability bias leads people to:

a)

Answer honestly

b)

Give socially acceptable answers

c)

Refuse to answer

d)

Always lie intentionally

38.

The difference between stereotypes and prejudices is that:

a)

Both are emotional

b)

Both are cognitive

c)

Stereotypes are beliefs; prejudices are an attitude/emotion

d)

They are identical

39.

Regular contact between groups tends to:

a)

Increase stereotypes

b)

Reduce stereotypes and improve relations

c)

Have no effect

d)

Always create conflicts

40.

Education about other groups helps to:

a)

Reinforce stereotypes

b)

Deconstruct false stereotypes

c)

Create conflicts

d)

Prevent cooperation

41.

Social facilitation means that the presence of other people:

a)

Improves performance on simple tasks

b)

Always reduces performance

c)

Has no effect

d)

Only occurs when one is alone

42.

Social loafing occurs when people:

a)

Work harder in groups

b)

Reduce their efforts when contributions are pooled

c)

Ignore group goals

d)

Take on leadership roles

43.

Team spirit occurs when members:

a)

Work in isolation

b)

Compete aggressively

c)

Show loyalty and self-sacrifice

d)

Avoid helping others

44.

A team differs from a group because the members of the team:

a)

Work individually

b)

Avoid communication

c)

Share responsibility and act as a unit

d)

Do not have objectives

45.

The study with simulated guards and prisoners is the:

a)

The Milgram experiment

b)

The Robbers Cave experiment

c)

The Stanford prison experiment

d)

The Hawthorne studies

46.

In the prisoner's dilemma, the best mutual outcome occurs when both partners:

a)

Defect

b)

Remain silent and cooperate

c)

One defects and the other cooperates

d)

Ignore each other

47.

The orientation of social value (OSV) refers to:

a)

Personality disorders

b)

Preferences for resource distribution

c)

Levels of motivation

d)

Communication styles

48.

A competitive person in the OVS tends to:

a)

Maximize the common gain

b)

Reduce their own gain

c)

Maximize their gain while reducing the gains of others

d)

Ignore the distribution of resources

49.

Empathy increases cooperation because it:

a)

Blocks understanding

b)

Encourages competition

c)

Helps to understand others' perspectives

d)

Has no effect

50.

The Robbers Cave experiment studied:

a)

Intelligence

b)

Intergroup conflict and cooperation

c)

Customer behavior

d)

Task performance

51.

L'influence minoritaire est la plus efficace lorsque la minorité est :

a)

Incohérente

b)

Passive

c)

Cohérente dans le temps

d)

Agressive

52.

L'engagement augmente lorsque les actions sont :

a)

Privées

b)

Annoncées publiquement

c)

Forcées

d)

Anonymes

53.

« Plus on agit, plus on justifie l'action » illustre :

a)

La facilitation sociale

b)

La théorie de l'équité

c)

L'escalade de l'engagement

d)

Le biais d'outgroup

54.

La justice interactionnelle concerne :

a)

Les salaires

b)

Les politiques uniquement

c)

Le traitement respectueux par les décideurs

d)

Les lois nationales

55.

L'effet du témoin se produit lorsque :

a)

Plus de témoins entraînent plus d'aide

b)

Les gens aident toujours quand ils sont seuls

c)

Plus de témoins réduisent l'intervention individuelle

d)

Les urgences sont rares

56.

La dissonance cognitive apparaît lorsque :

a)

Les croyances et les comportements sont cohérents

b)

Il y a une contradiction entre les croyances et le comportement

c)

Les gens n'ont pas de croyances

d)

Le comportement est aléatoire

57.

La recherche classique de Milgram porte sur :

a)

La créativité

b)

La performance de groupe

c)

L'obéissance à l'autorité

d)

La satisfaction au travail

58.

Se voir comme un instrument d'autorité décrit le :

a)

État créatif

b)

État autonome

c)

État agentique

d)

État détendu

59.

La catégorisation sociale aide les gens à :

a)

Compliquer les environnements sociaux

b)

Éviter les stéréotypes

c)

Simplifier l'environnement social

d)

Arrêter la prise de décision

60.

Les émotions primaires telles que la joie ou la colère apparaissent dans :

a)

Une seule culture

b)

Les humains et certains animaux avec des structures cérébrales similaires

c)

Les adultes mais pas les enfants

d)

Uniquement dans les lieux de travail

61.

Les émotions sont des réactions brèves, tandis que les humeurs sont :

a)

Des réactions courtes

b)

Identiques aux émotions

c)

Des états durables sans cause claire

d)

Sans rapport avec le comportement