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Chemistry Unit 3

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best defines intermolecular forces (IMFs)?

a)

Attractions between molecules due to electrostatic effects

b)

Attractions between ions forming ionic bonds

c)

Attractions causing nuclei to fuse into larger atoms

d)

Attractions between atoms within one molecule

2.

Compared to chemical bonds, IMFs are generally

a)

stronger and more permanent interactions

b)

weaker and involve no true bonding

c)

unrelated to molecular properties

d)

equal in strength and permanence

3.

Which physical property typically increases as IMFs become stronger?

a)

Boiling point of a pure substance

b)

Volatility of a nonpolar gas

c)

Ease of evaporation at room temperature

d)

Vapor pressure of a liquid sample

4.

Which set correctly pairs high IMFs with the property trend?

a)

Boiling point

1.

Higher value

b)

Vapor pressure

2.

Lower value

c)

Viscosity

3.

Higher value

d)

Surface tension

4.

Higher value

5.

Hydrogen bonding doesn't occur when H is bonded to which of these atoms in a molecule?

a)

Chlorine atoms in a molecule

b)

Nitrogen atoms in a molecule

c)

Oxygen atoms in a molecule

d)

Fluorine atoms in a molecule

6.

Why are hydrogen bonds significant in biology?

a)

They create metallic bonding in cells

b)

They ionize all amino acids fully

c)

They prevent diffusion across membranes

d)

They hold DNA bases together in pairs

7.

Water has a high specific heat primarily because

a)

its electrons are fully delocalized

b)

its low mass increases heat capacity

c)

its ionic bonds absorb heat strongly

d)

its hydrogen bonds require energy to disrupt

8.

Which statement about hydrogen bonds is accurate?

a)

They are chemical bonds forming new compounds

b)

They are relatively weak but crucial for life

c)

They occur only in gaseous hydrogen

d)

They are strongest at very high temperatures

9.

Dipole-dipole forces arise between

a)

opposite partial charges of polar molecules

b)

two nonpolar molecules without charges

c)

ionic crystals with full charges

d)

atoms in a metallic lattice

10.

Which example illustrates an induced dipole moment?

a)

O2 becoming temporarily attracted to water

b)

NaCl dissolving into separate ions

c)

N2 permanently gaining ionic charge

d)

H2O forming covalent bonds with O2

11.

Cold water holds more dissolved oxygen than warm water because

a)

oxygen reacts chemically at low temperature

b)

molecules move slower, enhancing attractions

c)

salts increase permanent dipoles

d)

colder water forms stronger covalent bonds

12.

Which statement about London dispersion forces (LDFs) is correct?

a)

They result from temporary electron clumping

b)

Only polar molecules exhibit LDFs

c)

They are permanent and direction-specific

d)

They require hydrogen directly bonded to O

13.

Which substances can experience only London dispersion forces between their particles?

a)

Noble gases like neon and argon

b)

Hydrogen-bonded liquids like HF

c)

Ionic salts like sodium chloride

d)

Polar molecules like HCl gas

14.

How does polarizability affect LDF strength?

a)

Polarizability only affects ionic compounds

b)

Greater polarizability strengthens dispersion forces

c)

More electrons reduce polarizability significantly

d)

Fewer electrons always increase polarizability

15.

Match the IMF type to the key description.

a)

Hydrogen bonding

1.

Strong dipole with H–F, H–O, or H–N

b)

Dipole-dipole forces

2.

Attraction between polar molecules

c)

London dispersion forces

3.

Instantaneous dipoles from electron movement

16.

Which statement best explains why molecular shape matters in chemistry?

a)

Shape affects polarity and charge of molecules

b)

Shape only changes the molecule’s mass value

c)

Shape controls nuclear stability in the atoms

d)

Shape determines isotope ratios in elements

17.

According to VSEPR theory, what causes the arrangement of electron sets around a central atom?

a)

Repulsion between valence electron sets maximized

b)

Attraction between paired and unpaired electrons

c)

Gravitational pull from the nucleus on bonds

d)

Magnetic alignment of electron spin directions

18.

Which statement correctly compares lone pairs and shared pairs in VSEPR?

a)

Shared pairs repel more strongly than lone pairs

b)

Lone pairs repel more strongly than shared pairs

c)

Both pairs have equal repulsion strengths

d)

Neither pair contributes to molecular geometry

19.

Which description matches a sigma (σ) bond?

a)

Head‑to‑head overlap of orbitals forming first bonds

b)

Side‑by‑side p orbital overlap in multiple bonds

c)

Electrostatic attraction without orbital overlap

d)

Overlap only between d orbitals in transition metals

20.

Which bonds are created by side‑by‑side overlap and occur in double or triple bonds?

a)

Pi (π) bonds

b)

Sigma (σ) bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Ionic bonds

21.

Match each molecular shape with its key parameter set.

a)

Linear

1.

180° bond angle; AB2 formula

b)

Trigonal‑planar

2.

120° bond angles; AB3 formula

c)

Both shapes

3.

All atoms in one plane

22.

Which molecules are correctly classified by their ideal VSEPR shapes?

a)

BeF2 as linear with 180° angle

b)

H2O as trigonal‑planar due to AB3

c)

CO2 as linear due to two regions

d)

BF3 as trigonal‑planar at 120°

23.

Which molecular geometry has two atoms bonded to the central atom, bond angles greater than 120°, and the basic formula AB2E?

a)

Bent planar with AB2E

b)

Trigonal planar with AB3

c)

Linear shape with AB2

d)

Tetrahedral with AB4

24.

Water (H2O) is best described by which set of features?

a)

Tetrahedral, 109.5° angles, AB4

b)

Bent planar, >120° angles, AB2E

c)

Trigonal planar, 120° angles, AB3

d)

Bent pyramidal, 104.5° angles, AB2E2

25.

Which statement correctly matches geometry, bond angles, and base formula for a tetrahedral molecule like CH4?

a)

Octahedral, 90° vertical and horizontal, AB6

b)

Tetrahedral, 109.5° angles, AB4

c)

Trigonal-pyramidal, 107° angles, AB3E

d)

Trigonal-bipyramidal, 90° and 120°, AB5

26.

Ammonia (NH3) has which molecular geometry and basic formula?

a)

Bent planar, AB2E

b)

Trigonal-bipyramidal, AB5

c)

Tetrahedral, AB4

d)

Trigonal-pyramidal, AB3E

27.

Phosphorus pentachloride (PCl5) exhibits which ideal bond angles and base formula?

a)

180° only, AB2

b)

90° axial and 120° equatorial, AB5

c)

109.5° all around, AB4

d)

104.5° all around, AB2E2

28.

Match each molecular geometry to its example compound.

a)

Bent pyramidal (AB2E2)

1.

H2O

b)

Tetrahedral (AB4)

2.

CH4

c)

Trigonal-pyramidal (AB3E)

3.

NH3

d)

Trigonal-bipyramidal (AB5)

4.

PCl5

e)

Octahedral (AB6)

5.

SF6

29.

Which features define an octahedral molecule such as SF6?

a)

Vertical and horizontal angles are 90°

b)

Basic formula AB6 applies

c)

Contains one lone pair on the apex

d)

Internal angles include 120° in a plane

e)

Six atoms bonded to the central atom

30.

Which statements describe orbital hybridization during covalent bonding in carbon?

a)

Electrons occupy unchanged original s and p orbitals

b)

Orbitals of similar energies mix to equal energies

c)

Hybridized orbitals form equivalent covalent bonds

d)

Mixing occurs between different atoms’ orbitals only

e)

An s electron promotes to an empty p orbital

31.

Which set describes a molecule that is linear with bond angles of 180°?

a)

4 bonded atoms, 0 lone pairs, sp3

b)

2 bonded atoms, 0 lone pairs, sp

c)

3 bonded atoms, 0 lone pairs, sp2

d)

2 bonded atoms, 1 lone pair, sp2

32.

BF3 has which combination of geometry and hybridization at the central atom?

a)

Trigonal planar, sp2

b)

Tetrahedral, sp3

c)

Trigonal pyramidal, sp3

d)

Linear, sp

33.

Which statement best explains why H2O has a bond angle less than 109.5°?

a)

Two lone pairs compress the H–O–H angle

b)

Oxygen uses sp hybrid orbitals only

c)

Water is trigonal planar at oxygen

d)

There is no lone pair repulsion present

34.

Match each molecular formula to its listed geometry.

a)

CH4

1.

Tetrahedral

b)

NH3

2.

Trigonal pyramidal

c)

H2O

3.

Bent (angular)

d)

BeF2

4.

Linear

e)

BF3

5.

Trigonal planar

35.

Which central-atom hybridization corresponds to approximately 109.5° bond angles?

a)

sp3d with zero lone pairs

b)

sp with zero lone pairs

c)

sp3 with zero lone pairs

d)

sp2 with zero lone pairs

36.

Which combination leads to a trigonal pyramidal shape?

a)

3 bonded atoms and 0 lone pairs

b)

4 bonded atoms and 0 lone pairs

c)

3 bonded atoms and 1 lone pair

d)

2 bonded atoms and 2 lone pairs

37.

Select all molecules that are linear according to VSEPR.

a)

CO2 (as a central-atom example)

b)

BeF2

c)

ClF3

d)

XeF2

e)

SF6

38.

In a trigonal bipyramidal arrangement with no lone pairs, what are the bond angles present?

a)

Less than 105°

b)

90° and 180° only

c)

109.5° only

d)

90°, 120°, and 180°

39.

Which geometry arises from five electron domains with one lone pair on the central atom?

a)

T-shaped

b)

Octahedral

c)

Square planar

d)

Seesaw (distorted trigonal bipyramidal)

40.

Choose all species that have octahedral electron-domain geometry at the central atom.

a)

ClF3

b)

SF6

c)

PCl5

d)

BrF5

e)

XeF4

41.

Which pairing of geometry and example is correct?

a)

Square planar – XeF4

b)

T-shaped – SF4

c)

Seesaw – XeF2

d)

Trigonal bipyramidal – SF6

42.

What hybridization is associated with a central atom that forms two sigma bonds and has no lone pairs?

a)

sp3 with tetrahedral

b)

sp2 with trigonal planar

c)

sp with linear geometry

d)

sp3d with seesaw

43.

Match each geometry to its typical bond angle set.

a)

Tetrahedral

1.

109.5°

b)

Trigonal planar

2.

120°

c)

Octahedral

3.

90° and 180°

d)

Square planar

4.

90° (planar)

e)

T-shaped

5.

90° and 120°

44.

Which statement best defines a molecule in chemistry?

a)

Collection of isotopes of one element

b)

Single atom with full valence shell

c)

Electrically neutral group of bound atoms

d)

Positively charged cluster of ions

45.

Which example represents a molecule composed of the same element?

a)

H2O liquid water

b)

N2 nitrogen gas

c)

NaCl table salt

d)

NH3 ammonia

46.

A molecular compound is best described as a chemical compound whose simplest units are what?

a)

Protons and electrons pairs

b)

Molecules bound by covalent bonds

c)

Atoms with metallic bonding

d)

Ions arranged in a lattice

47.

Which statement about covalent bonds in molecular compounds is correct?

a)

Shared electrons from overlapping orbitals

b)

Transferred electrons between ions

c)

Free electrons in metallic sea

d)

Separated electrons in ionic lattice

48.

According to the octet rule, stable molecules typically have how many electrons in the valence shell?

a)

Ten valence electrons

b)

Twelve valence electrons

c)

Six valence electrons

d)

Eight valence electrons

49.

Which set lists possible covalent bond types found in molecular compounds?

a)

Single, double, triple

b)

Ionic, metallic, hydrogen

c)

Sigma, pi, ionic

d)

Polar, nonpolar, metallic

50.

What structural feature characterizes ionic compounds?

a)

Layers of delocalized electrons

b)

Network of shared electron pairs

c)

Discrete neutral molecules in gas phase

d)

Lattice of alternating positive and negative ions

51.

Which statement about ionic compounds is true regarding electrical conduction?

a)

Conduct only at low temperatures

b)

Never conduct electricity

c)

Conduct well in solid state

d)

Conduct when dissolved in water

52.

Match each term to its description.

a)

Lattice energy

1.

Energy released forming ionic crystal from gaseous ions

b)

Coulomb's Law

2.

Force relation proportional to q1q1 over r squared

c)

Octet rule

3.

Tendency to achieve eight outer electrons

d)

Valence shell

4.

Outer electrons involved in bonding

53.

Which property is typical of ionic compounds when dry?

a)

Highly elastic

b)

Soft and ductile

c)

Hard and brittle

d)

Flexible and malleable

54.

Which chemical formula type shows the relative number of atoms of each element using symbols and subscripts?

a)

Molecular formula

b)

Chemical formula

c)

Formula unit

d)

Empirical formula

55.

Which example is a molecular formula?

a)

CaF2 ionic unit

b)

CH2O simplified ratio

c)

NaCl or KCl

d)

H2O or O3

56.

Which statement correctly describes a formula unit?

a)

Symbol for one atom of an element

b)

Actual numbers of atoms in a molecule

c)

Simplest collection of ions in an ionic compound

d)

Smallest whole-number ratio in a substance

57.

Empirical formulas show what information?

a)

Kinds of atoms and smallest whole-number ratios

b)

Exact count of atoms in a single molecule

c)

Arrangement of atoms in three dimensions

d)

Charge balance within an ionic lattice

58.

Which statements about energy and chemical bonds are correct? Select all that apply.

a)

Endothermic means energy released

b)

Energy is released during bond formation

c)

Bond energy is reported in kJ/mol

d)

Energy is required to break a bond

59.

How does bond length relate to potential energy in a chemical bond?

a)

Energy independent of nucleus distance

b)

Energy proportional to electron mass

c)

Energy inversely proportional to nucleus distance

d)

Energy directly proportional to nucleus distance

60.

Which statement best describes a structural formula?

a)

Shows all valence electrons for each atom

b)

Shows atom types, counts, and arrangement

c)

Shows average bond energy and polarity

d)

Shows only inner-shell electrons in atoms

61.

In Lewis Dot Notation, what do the dots around an element’s symbol represent?

a)

Core electrons in inner shells

b)

Valence electrons available for bonding

c)

Protons and neutrons in the nucleus

d)

Electrons involved only in ionic bonds

62.

Which pair correctly matches bond type with its typical representation in Lewis structures?

a)

Single bond

1.

X–Y or X–Y with one dash

b)

Double bond

2.

X=Y with two shared pairs

c)

Triple bond

3.

X≡Y with three shared pairs

63.

Which statements are true about double and triple bonds?

a)

Triple bonds are even stronger than double bonds

b)

Triple bonds are weaker because electrons are farther apart

c)

Double bonds are stronger than single bonds

d)

Double bonds tend to bend orientation due to electron repulsion

64.

What are lone pairs in Lewis Dot Notation?

a)

Shared pairs between two atoms

b)

Pairs that represent inner-shell electrons

c)

Unshared pairs located only on one atom

d)

Pairs that form ionic bonds between ions

65.

When beginning to write formulas for binary molecular compounds, what is the first step?

a)

Place the least electronegative atom in the center

b)

Assign formal charges to all atoms

c)

Count the total number of valence electrons

d)

Draw all possible resonance structures first

66.

Which guideline helps when drawing a skeleton structure for a molecule?

a)

Put the most electronegative atom in the center

b)

Avoid using single bonds in initial skeletons

c)

Place hydrogen atoms at the center always

d)

Center the least electronegative atom, others arranged around

67.

Which statement distinguishes structural formulas from Lewis Dot Notation?

a)

Lewis notation cannot show bond multiplicity

b)

Structural formulas display all valence electrons

c)

Lewis notation omits lone pairs on atoms

d)

Structural formulas show only bonded electrons

68.

Which statement best explains a resonance structure in molecules like ozone (O3)?

a)

Atoms shift positions to form different isomers

b)

Multiple valid Lewis structures show electron delocalization

c)

Only double bonds move while lone pairs remain

d)

Electrons stay fixed on single bonds only

69.

Which element commonly violates the octet rule by having only two electrons in its valence shell?

a)

Hydrogen with a maximum of two electrons

b)

Helium with eight valence electrons

c)

Lithium with expanded d orbitals

d)

Boron with exactly six electrons

70.

When writing a Lewis structure, what is the next step after placing single bonds between atoms?

a)

Assign resonance hybrids immediately

b)

Give peripheral atoms electrons to complete octets

c)

Move central atom to the highest electronegativity

d)

Add formal charges to each atom

71.

Which pair correctly matches an element with its typical octet-rule exception?

a)

Hydrogen

1.

Two electrons maximum

b)

Boron

2.

Six electrons typical

c)

Helium

3.

Full valence shell of two

d)

Molecules after 3s

4.

Expanded d orbitals allow >8

72.

Select all statements that correctly describe polyatomic ions.

a)

Total group charge written as a superscript on the formula

b)

Charge arises on the whole group due to electron clumping

c)

They cannot form ionic compounds with oppositely charged ions

d)

Groups of atoms bonded covalently with a net charge

73.

Which action can create double or triple bonds when an atom lacks an octet in a Lewis structure?

a)

Remove all single bonds and restart

b)

Move lone pairs into bonding positions

c)

Increase atomic numbers in the formula

d)

Add more central atoms to the molecule

74.

Which statement about expanded octets is accurate?

a)

Expanded octets require ionic bonding exclusively

b)

Only elements before the 3s orbital can expand octets

c)

Atoms with available d orbitals can exceed eight electrons

d)

Central atoms always lose remaining electrons to terminals

75.

What is the key difference between covalent bonds in polyatomic ions and simple molecules?

a)

Polyatomic ions have bonds without shared electrons

b)

Polyatomic ions have covalent bonds but the group carries a charge

c)

Simple molecules always have expanded octets

d)

Simple molecules cannot show resonance

76.

Which formula and charge correctly represent the ammonium ion?

a)

NH4− with −1 charge

b)

NH5+ with +1 charge

c)

NH3− with −1 charge

d)

NH4+ with +1 charge

77.

Which polyatomic ion has the formula SO4 and a −2 overall charge?

a)

Thiosulfate ion, −2 charge

b)

Sulfate ion, −3 charge

c)

Sulfite ion, −1 charge

d)

Sulfate ion, −2 charge

78.

Match each polyatomic ion name to its correct formula.

a)

Phosphate

1.

PO43PO4^3−

b)

Carbonate

2.

CO32CO3^2−

c)

Chlorate

3.

ClO3ClO3^{-}

d)

Cyanide

4.

CN^−

79.

Which set lists only common polyatomic ions?

a)

Methane, ethanol, propane

b)

Sodium, chloride, calcium

c)

Neon, iron, hydrogen

d)

Ammonium, nitrate, hydroxide

80.

Which statement best describes how polyatomic ions are shown in Lewis structures?

a)

Always drawn with exactly three bonds

b)

Drawn without brackets and no charge

c)

Drawn inside brackets with superscript charge

d)

Shown as single atoms with no bonds

81.

Which ion has the formula NO3−?

a)

Ammonium ion

b)

Nitride ion

c)

Nitrite ion

d)

Nitrate ion

82.

Select all ions that commonly carry a −1 charge.

a)

Hydroxide (OH−)

b)

Cyanide (CN−)

c)

Chlorate (ClO3−)

d)

Ammonium (NH4+)

83.

In the phosphate ion shown, what overall charge is indicated and how is it displayed?

a)

3− charge, outside brackets as superscript

b)

2− charge, inside brackets as subscript

c)

3+ charge, next to phosphorus atom

d)

Neutral, no charge shown anywhere

84.

Which formula-charge pair is correct for carbonate?

a)

CO3^3−, −3 charge

b)

CO4^2−, −2 charge

c)

CO2^−, −1 charge

d)

CO3^2−, −2 charge

85.

Which statement best describes a chemical bond at the atomic level?

a)

External pressure forcing atoms permanently together

b)

Mutual attraction between valence electrons and nuclei

c)

Repulsion between core electrons of neighboring atoms

d)

Random collisions that increase atomic separation

86.

What happens to potential energy when a stable bond forms between two atoms?

a)

Potential energy per atom increases in a bond

b)

Potential energy per atom stays exactly constant

c)

Potential energy per atom oscillates randomly

d)

Potential energy per atom decreases in a bond

87.

Which process requires energy input from the surroundings?

a)

Forming chemical bonds is endothermic

b)

Breaking chemical bonds releases heat

c)

Breaking chemical bonds is endothermic

d)

Forming chemical bonds is always cold

88.

Covalent bonding can produce network solids. Which property is typical of network solids like diamond or quartz?

a)

Ductile metals with shiny luster

b)

Low melting points and softness

c)

Conduct heat poorly and melt easily

d)

Very high melting points and hardness

89.

Which pair correctly distinguishes non-polar and polar molecules in terms of electron distribution?

a)

Both have unequal distribution; differ only in mass

b)

Both have equal distribution; differ only in size

c)

Non-polar unequal distribution; polar equal distribution

d)

Non-polar equal distribution; polar unequal distribution

90.

Electronegativity difference helps predict bond character. Which range most often leads to polar covalent bonds?

a)

Above 3.0 difference always

b)

Between 1.8 and 4.0 exclusively

c)

Approximately 0.3 to 1.7 difference

d)

Exactly zero difference only

91.

Which statement about CO2 and polarity is most accurate?

a)

Bonds are polar but molecule is non-polar linear

b)

Bonds are non-polar and molecule is bent

c)

Bonds are polar and molecule is strongly polar

d)

Bonds are ionic and molecule is tetrahedral

92.

Which statements about polar molecules are correct?

a)

Unequal electron distribution creates dipoles

b)

Asymmetry often leads to overall polarity

c)

Water is a key example of a polar molecule

d)

Negative end is denoted by delta plus

93.

Which statement best describes how an ionic bond forms?

a)

Electrons are swapped so opposite charges attract

b)

Electrons are shared equally between both atoms

c)

Protons are transferred to balance both nuclei

d)

Neutrons move creating temporary attractions

94.

Which property is most characteristic of ionic solids when dry?

a)

Highly malleable and easily shaped

b)

Good conductors of electricity

c)

Hard and brittle crystalline structure

d)

Soft and ductile like wires

95.

Ionic compounds conduct electricity well under which condition?

a)

As solid crystals at room temperature

b)

When dissolved in water as ions move

c)

When cooled to very low temperatures

d)

In powdered form due to friction

96.

According to Coulomb’s Law, what happens to the attractive force between ions when the distance between them increases?

a)

It remains constant for all separations

b)

It decreases with greater separation distance

c)

It increases in direct proportion to distance

d)

It fluctuates randomly with distance

97.

Which factor combination most strongly increases lattice energy magnitude for an ionic compound?

a)

Large ionic charges and large ion sizes

b)

Small ionic charges and large ion sizes

c)

Small ionic charges and small ion sizes

d)

Large ionic charges and small ion sizes

98.

Select ALL correct statements about metallic bonding.

a)

Metals conduct because electrons are highly mobile

b)

Metals are typically malleable and ductile

c)

Metallic bonds require full electron transfer

d)

Electrons are delocalized forming a sea of electrons

99.

Match each bonding type with its key feature.

a)

Ionic bond

1.

Electron swap forming charged ions

b)

Metallic bond

2.

Sea of delocalized electrons

c)

Both ionic and metallic

3.

Attraction due to electrostatic forces

100.

Metals often have few valence electrons. Which observed property is most directly explained by this and electron delocalization?

a)

High luster due to photon emission

b)

Ability to be hammered into thin sheets

c)

Poor electrical conductivity in solids

d)

Formation of brittle crystalline structures