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BIO FINAL - Chapter 1 Key Concepts

Total questions: 96

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define: Natural selection.

a)

Natural selection is the process by which organisms better adapted to their environment tend to survive and produce more offspring.

b)

Natural selection is the process by which all organisms become identical over time.

c)

Natural selection is the process by which organisms choose their own traits.

d)

Natural selection is the process by which the environment adapts to organisms.

2.

Define: horizontal/vertical gene transfer.

a)

Horizontal gene transfer is the movement of genetic material between organisms other than by descent. Vertical gene transfer is the transmission of genetic material from parent to offspring.

b)

Horizontal gene transfer is the movement of genetic material from parent to offspring. Vertical gene transfer is the movement of genetic material between unrelated organisms.

c)

Horizontal gene transfer is the process of cell division. Vertical gene transfer is the process of mutation.

d)

Horizontal gene transfer is the movement of proteins between cells. Vertical gene transfer is the movement of lipids between cells.

3.

Define: Lineage.

a)

Lineage is a sequence of species each of which is considered to have evolved from its predecessor.

b)

Lineage is the process of photosynthesis in plants.

c)

Lineage refers to the migration of animals across continents.

d)

Lineage is the classification of organisms based on their habitat.

4.

Define: Vertical descent evolution.

a)

Vertical descent evolution refers to the transmission of genetic material from parent to offspring through generations.

b)

Vertical descent evolution is the process of acquiring traits from unrelated species through horizontal gene transfer.

c)

Vertical descent evolution describes the loss of genetic material over time within a single organism.

d)

Vertical descent evolution refers to the adaptation of organisms to extreme environmental conditions.

5.

Define: Genome.

a)

A genome is the complete set of genes or genetic material present in a cell or organism.

b)

A genome is a type of protein found in the cell membrane.

c)

A genome is the process of cell division in organisms.

d)

A genome is a type of carbohydrate stored in plant cells.

6.

Define: Proteome.

a)

A proteome is the entire set of proteins expressed by a genome, cell, tissue, or organism at a certain time.

b)

A proteome is the genetic material found in the nucleus of a cell.

c)

A proteome is the collection of all lipids present in a cell.

d)

A proteome is the set of carbohydrates synthesized by an organism.

7.

Define: Taxonomy.

a)

Taxonomy is the science of classification of organisms into groups based on similarities and differences.

b)

Taxonomy is the process of photosynthesis in plants.

c)

Taxonomy is the study of animal behavior in their natural habitat.

d)

Taxonomy is the measurement of atmospheric pressure.

8.

Define: Bacteria, Ekarya, Archaea.

a)

Bacteria, Ekarya, and Archaea are the three domains of life. Bacteria and Archaea are prokaryotes, while Ekarya includes all eukaryotic organisms.

b)

Bacteria, Ekarya, and Archaea are all types of viruses that infect plants and animals.

c)

Bacteria, Ekarya, and Archaea are three types of fungi found in aquatic environments.

d)

Bacteria, Ekarya, and Archaea are different stages in the life cycle of a single-celled organism.

9.

Define: Proteins.

a)

Proteins are large, complex molecules made up of amino acids that perform many functions in living organisms.

b)

Proteins are simple sugars that provide energy to cells.

c)

Proteins are fatty acids that store energy in the body.

d)

Proteins are minerals that help in bone formation.

10.

Define: Emergent properties and Artificial selection.

a)

Emergent properties are characteristics that arise from the interaction of simpler elements. Artificial selection is the intentional breeding of organisms to produce desired traits.

b)

Emergent properties are inherited traits passed from parent to offspring. Artificial selection is the process of natural evolution.

c)

Emergent properties are the result of random mutations. Artificial selection is the unintentional change in species over time.

d)

Emergent properties are the physical appearance of an organism. Artificial selection is the survival of the fittest.

11.

Define: Taxonomic system: Genera; species.

a)

A taxonomic system is a method of classifying organisms. Genera is the plural of genus, a group of related species. Species is the basic unit of classification.

b)

A taxonomic system is a way to organize plants only. Genera and species are the same level of classification.

c)

Genera refers to individual organisms, while species is a group of genera.

d)

A taxonomic system is used only for naming animals. Genera is the singular of species.

12.

Define: Ecology: Populations, ecosystems, communities.

a)

Ecology is the study of interactions among organisms and their environment. Populations are groups of the same species, ecosystems are communities and their environment, and communities are groups of different species living together.

b)

Ecology is the study of rocks and minerals. Populations are groups of different species, ecosystems are only plants, and communities are only animals.

c)

Ecology is the study of weather patterns. Populations are groups of plants, ecosystems are only water bodies, and communities are only bacteria.

d)

Ecology is the study of chemical reactions. Populations are groups of molecules, ecosystems are chemical mixtures, and communities are atoms.

13.

Define: Cell biology.

a)

Cell biology is the study of cell structure and function.

b)

Cell biology is the study of animal behavior.

c)

Cell biology is the study of chemical reactions in the atmosphere.

d)

Cell biology is the study of planetary movements.

14.

Define: Scientific method.

a)

The scientific method is a systematic process for conducting experiments and making observations to answer questions.

b)

The scientific method is a way to memorize scientific facts without experimentation.

c)

The scientific method is a set of beliefs accepted without evidence.

d)

The scientific method is a random guessing process used in science.

15.

Define: Scientific model.

a)

A scientific model is a representation of an object, system, or concept that helps explain and predict phenomena.

b)

A scientific model is a set of rules for conducting experiments.

c)

A scientific model is a type of laboratory equipment used for measurements.

d)

A scientific model is a list of scientific laws and theories.

16.

Define: Cystic Fibrosis - build up on the alveoli on your lungs and on your liver.

a)

Cystic Fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thick mucus to build up in the lungs and other organs, including the liver.

b)

Cystic Fibrosis is a viral infection that causes swelling in the alveoli and liver.

c)

Cystic Fibrosis is a bacterial disease that leads to fluid accumulation only in the liver.

d)

Cystic Fibrosis is a condition where the alveoli are destroyed due to smoking.

17.

Define: Atoms.

a)

Atoms are the basic units of matter, consisting of protons, neutrons, and electrons.

b)

Atoms are large molecules made only of electrons.

c)

Atoms are the smallest living organisms.

d)

Atoms are made only of energy.

18.

Define: Levels of living organisms.

a)

Levels of living organisms refer to the hierarchy from atoms to molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, and organisms.

b)

Levels of living organisms refer to the classification of plants and animals only.

c)

Levels of living organisms refer to the process of photosynthesis in plants.

d)

Levels of living organisms refer to the study of non-living things.

19.

Define: Tissues, cells, atoms, etc.

a)

Tissues are groups of similar cells that perform a specific function. Cells are the basic unit of life. Atoms are the basic unit of matter.

b)

Tissues are made of atoms, cells are made of tissues, and atoms are the basic unit of energy.

c)

Tissues are the smallest unit of matter, cells are groups of tissues, and atoms are the basic unit of life.

d)

Tissues are the basic unit of matter, cells are the basic unit of tissues, and atoms are groups of cells.

20.

Biological evolution is:

a)

the process by which species change over time through genetic variation and natural selection

b)

the sudden appearance of new species without any genetic changes

c)

the process of individual growth and development

d)

the study of fossils and ancient life forms

21.

Which of the above statements describes evolution?

a)

The fact that DNA must be transcribed into RNA, which is then translated into proteins.

b)

The ability of organisms to maintain a relatively constant internal environment

c)

The change in a population of organisms over time

d)

The ability of organisms to break down nutrients for energy

22.

When evolution involves a progression of changes in a series of ancestors called a lineage, it is referred to as ______ evolution.

a)

vertical

b)

horizontal

c)

convergent

d)

divergent

23.

The first living organisms on Earth were _______.

a)

animal cells

b)

primitive cells

c)

plant cells

d)

simple viruses

24.

New species evolve from pre-existing species in the mechanism known as vertical evolution by:

a)

the accumulation of genetic changes over generations

b)

the sudden appearance of entirely new genetic material

c)

the merging of two unrelated species

d)

the elimination of all genetic variation

25.

How do new species evolve from pre-existing species in the mechanism known as vertical evolution?

a)

via accumulation of mutations

b)

via horizontal gene transfer

c)

via environmental changes

d)

via natural selection

26.

All living things store their genetic information in the form of _________.

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Protein

d)

Lipid

27.

An increase in the frequency of beneficial mutations in a population over many generations is called _______.

a)

growth and development

b)

natural selection

c)

lineage ancestry

d)

an emergent property

28.

The two main mechanisms that lead to evolutionary change are ______ descent with modification/mutation and ______ gene transfer.

a)

vertical, horizontal

b)

horizontal, vertical

c)

lateral, parallel

d)

parallel, lateral

29.

Successive changes in a series of ancestors called a lineage are the basis of a mechanism of evolution called _______.

a)

lineage ancestry

b)

genetic drift

c)

natural selection

d)

mutation

30.

Which type of evolution involves new species evolving from pre-existing species by accumulation of changes in the genetic message?

a)

parallel evolution

b)

vertical evolution

c)

familial evolution

d)

horizontal evolution

31.

In vertical evolution, new species evolve from pre-existing species by accumulation of ________, which are changes in the genetic message.

a)

mutations

b)

proteins

c)

hormones

d)

carbohydrates

32.

Evolutionary change commonly occurs by what two mechanisms?

a)

vertical descent with mutation, horizontal gene transfer

b)

genetic drift, artificial selection

c)

natural selection, selective breeding

d)

mutation, mitosis

33.

When evolution involves a progression of changes in a series of ancestors called a lineage, it is referred to as ________.

a)

vertical evolution

b)

horizontal evolution

c)

convergent evolution

d)

parallel evolution

34.

Identify the ways that genetic material may be transferred in a vertical manner.

a)

From mother cells to daughter cells

b)

Via gametes

c)

Through viral infection

d)

By horizontal gene transfer

e)

By transformation

35.

What is the genome?

a)

The complete genetic composition of an organism

b)

A type of cell found in animals

c)

A chemical used in photosynthesis

d)

A protein that builds muscle

36.

Which of the following best describes the genome?

a)

The complete protein composition of an organism

b)

The complete genetic composition of an organism

c)

The process that enables organisms to maintain relatively stable internal conditions

37.

The role of most genes is to encode mRNAs that are used in the production of ________.

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

carbohydrates

d)

vitamins

38.

The functions of the genome include:

a)

Storing genetic information

b)

Producing energy directly

c)

Digesting food

d)

Regulating body temperature

39.

What carries the information to produce a proteome?

a)

The genome

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Extracellular environment

d)

The plasma membrane

40.

What is studied in the field of genomics?

a)

Cell structure

b)

DNA sequences

c)

Protein sequences

d)

Protein structure

41.

Which is the study of the entire set of proteins produced by an organism?

a)

Proteomics

b)

Genomics

c)

Transcriptomics

d)

Metabolomics

42.

What is Biotechnology?

a)

The use of living organisms or their products to modify human health and the human environment.

b)

A branch of engineering that deals with machines and engines.

c)

The study of celestial bodies and the universe.

d)

A method of constructing buildings using only natural materials.

43.

What is Genomics?

a)

The study of genomes, the complete set of genetic material within an organism.

b)

The study of animal behavior in their natural habitats.

c)

The process of cell division and reproduction.

d)

The study of chemical reactions in the atmosphere.

44.

What is Biochemistry?

a)

The study of chemical processes within and relating to living organisms.

b)

The study of celestial bodies and their movements.

c)

The study of ancient civilizations and their cultures.

d)

The study of physical laws governing non-living matter.

45.

What is Proteomics?

a)

The large-scale study of proteins, particularly their structures and functions.

b)

The study of genetic mutations in DNA.

c)

The analysis of carbohydrate metabolism.

d)

The examination of cell membrane lipids.

46.

In the taxonomic classification system, families are divided into ______, which are further divided into ______.

a)

genera; species

b)

orders; classes

c)

phyla; kingdoms

d)

tribes; orders

47.

The study of organisms in their natural habitat is called ______.

a)

Ecology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Genetics

d)

Pathology

48.

Matter is:

a)

anything that has mass and takes up space

b)

a type of energy

c)

only solids and liquids

d)

something that cannot be seen or touched

49.

Name the three subatomic particles found in an atom.

a)

Electrons, Protons, Neutrons

b)

Electrons, Protons, Photons

c)

Electrons, Neutrons, Positrons

d)

Protons, Neutrons, Ions

50.

An element is:

a)

A pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical means.

b)

A mixture of two or more substances.

c)

A compound made of different atoms.

d)

A solution of metals.

51.

Electron shells are:

a)

the regions around the nucleus where electrons are likely to be found

b)

the layers of protons in an atom

c)

the spaces between atoms in a molecule

d)

the core of the atom containing neutrons

52.

Energy is the capacity to do _______.

a)

work

b)

sleep

c)

eat

d)

read

53.

Valence electrons are:

a)

the electrons in the outermost shell of an atom

b)

the electrons in the innermost shell of an atom

c)

protons found in the nucleus of an atom

d)

neutrons found in the nucleus of an atom

54.

Partially filled energy shells are important because:

a)

They make atoms stable

b)

They make atoms reactive

c)

They have no effect

55.

Atomic mass is the sum of ______ and ______ in an atom.

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

protons and electrons

c)

neutrons and electrons

d)

electrons and positrons

56.

Isotopes are:

a)

Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons

b)

Atoms of different elements with the same number of neutrons

c)

Atoms of the same element with different numbers of protons

d)

Atoms of different elements with the same number of protons

57.

Which of the following are types of chemical bonds?

a)

Covalent

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Ionic

d)

All of the above

58.

The difference between polar and non-polar molecules is:

a)

Polar molecules have an uneven distribution of charge, while non-polar molecules have an even distribution.

b)

Polar molecules are always gases, while non-polar molecules are always solids.

c)

Polar molecules do not dissolve in water, while non-polar molecules do.

d)

Polar molecules have no electrical charge, while non-polar molecules are charged.

59.

The pH scale measures the _______ of a solution.

a)

acidity or alkalinity

b)

temperature

c)

density

d)

color

60.

The nucleus of an atom has a net _______ charge.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

61.

Electronegativity of Hydrogen is _______.

a)

2.20

b)

3.00

c)

1.00

d)

2.50

62.

Electronegativity of Carbon is _______.

a)

2.55

b)

3.44

c)

1.00

d)

4.00

63.

Electronegativity of Nitrogen is _______.

a)

3.04

b)

2.20

c)

3.44

d)

2.55

64.

Electronegativity of Oxygen is _______.

a)

3.44

b)

2.10

c)

4.00

d)

2.65

65.

Electronegativity of Sodium is _______.

a)

0.93

b)

1.52

c)

2.20

d)

3.00

66.

Electronegativity of Chloride is _______.

a)

3.16

b)

2.20

c)

2.55

d)

3.00

67.

Ionic bonds are formed when:

a)

Electrons are shared

b)

Electrons are transferred

c)

Electrons are lost

68.

Polar Bonds have a ELCM between ___ and ___ and the electrons are shared unequally. Fill in the blanks.

a)

0.4 and 1.8

b)

0.0 and 0.3

c)

1.9 and 3.0

d)

2.1 and 4.0

69.

Nonpolar Covalent bonds have a ELCM that is less than ___ and the electrons are shared equally. Fill in the blank.

a)

0.4

b)

1.7

c)

2.0

d)

0.9

70.

If the two elements have the same electronegativity, then they are sharing electrons equally. If they don’t then it is shared unequally.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Protein Monomers are ____. Fill in the blank.

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Fatty Acids

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Monosaccharides

72.

Dehydration reaction joins protein monomers together.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Peptide bonds are covalent bonds that are formed to link amino acids together. They form when amino group and carboxyl group react together.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Polypeptides are the protein polymers.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

What kind of chemical bonds and chemical interactions maintain protein folding and 3D shape?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Ionic bonds and other polar interactions

c)

Hydrophobic effects

d)

Vandemi

e)

Disulfide bridges

76.

Carbohydrates’ monomers are ____.

a)

monosaccharides

b)

amino acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

fatty acids

77.

Two monosaccharides bonded together are called ____.

a)

disaccharides

b)

polysaccharides

c)

monosaccharides

d)

oligosaccharides

78.

Dehydration reactions join monosaccharides together and they build bigger molecules from monomers.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The covalent bond Glycosidic bond linkage links monosaccharides together.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Polysaccharides are carbohydrate polymers.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

What do organic molecules contain?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Hydrogen

82.

Organic chemistry is defined as:

a)

The study of carbon-containing compounds

b)

The study of metals and their properties

c)

The study of acids and bases

d)

The study of non-carbon compounds

83.

How many covalent bonds does carbon form with other atoms?

a)

Four

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Five

84.

Isomers are:

a)

compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements

b)

compounds with different molecular formulas but same structure

c)

elements with the same atomic number

d)

molecules with identical physical and chemical properties

85.

Name the four major classes of organic molecules and macromolecules.

a)

Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, nucleic acids

b)

Proteins, minerals, vitamins, water

c)

Carbohydrates, enzymes, hormones, DNA

d)

Lipids, starch, cellulose, glucose

86.

The difference between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds is:

a)

Polar covalent bonds have unequal sharing of electrons, while nonpolar covalent bonds have equal sharing.

b)

Polar covalent bonds have equal sharing of electrons, while nonpolar covalent bonds have unequal sharing.

c)

Both polar and nonpolar covalent bonds have equal sharing of electrons.

d)

Nonpolar covalent bonds have unequal sharing of electrons, while polar covalent bonds have equal sharing.

87.

A functional group in organic chemistry is:

a)

a specific group of atoms within a molecule responsible for characteristic chemical reactions

b)

the entire molecule's structure

c)

a type of chemical bond

d)

a method of naming organic compounds

88.

Monomers and polymers are:

a)

Small molecules and large molecules made from them, respectively.

b)

Types of chemical reactions.

c)

Forms of energy in cells.

d)

Different types of cells.

89.

A macromolecule is:

a)

a large molecule composed of thousands of atoms

b)

a small molecule found in cells

c)

a type of ion

d)

a simple sugar

90.

Which structure do prokaryotic cells lack?

a)

A membrane enclosed nucleus

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Cytoplasm

91.

What are the two categories of prokaryotic cells?

a)

Bacteria and Archaea

b)

Plants and Animals

c)

Fungi and Protists

d)

Viruses and Prions

92.

What is the function of ribosomes in prokaryotic cells?

a)

Ribosomes are involved in polypeptide synthesis.

b)

Ribosomes are responsible for energy production.

c)

Ribosomes store genetic material.

d)

Ribosomes help in cell division.

93.

What provides motility to bacteria cells?

a)

Flagella

b)

Cilia

c)

Pili

d)

Capsule

94.

Do all bacteria cells use flagella to move?

a)

True

b)

False

95.

What is the structure of eukaryotic cells that contains genetic material?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Ribosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

96.

Organelles are:

a)

specialized structures within a cell that perform specific functions

b)

types of tissues found in multicellular organisms

c)

chemical compounds that provide energy to cells

d)

external features of an organism