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Intro to Imagaing Review Part 1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A coughing patient touches the x-ray table and waiting room chairs. This increases infection risk due to—

a)

Only airborne spread

b)

Direct and indirect contact transmission

c)

Viral reproduction

d)

No actual risk

2.

A microorganism that invades tissue and causes illness is called a—

a)

Host

b)

Carrier

c)

Pathogen

d)

Commensal organism

3.

A wound infected with bacteria worsens overnight. This is possible because bacteria—

a)

Require a host cell to multiply

b)

Can reproduce on their own

c)

Only grow in cold temperatures

d)

Cannot survive without oxygen

4.

A patient with influenza infects two family members. This occurred because viruses—

a)

Reproduce by dividing in half

b)

Require a living cell to multiply

c)

Are destroyed by all antibiotics

d)

Do not spread person-to-person

5.

A technologist finds mold growing on a moist ceiling tile. This demonstrates that fungi—

a)

Need sunny environments

b)

Grow best in warm, moist conditions

c)

Require a host cell

d)

Only grow on skin

6.

A room previously used by a patient with C. diff must be deep-cleaned because the organism forms—

a)

Viruses

b)

Endospores

c)

Fungi

d)

Protozoa

7.

A patient gets sick after drinking contaminated well water. This infection is most likely from—

a)

Protozoa

b)

Fungi

c)

Viruses

d)

Arthropods

8.

A technologist coughs into their hand and then adjusts a patient’s gown. This action represents the—

a)

Portal of exit

b)

Mode of transmission

c)

Reservoir

d)

Susceptible host

9.

An immunocompromised cancer patient is at high risk for infection because they are a—

a)

Reservoir

b)

Portal of entry

c)

Susceptible host

d)

Mode of transmission

10.

A patient develops pneumonia after one week in the hospital. This is classified as—

a)

Community-acquired

b)

A genetic disease

c)

Healthcare-associated

d)

Incidental

11.

A patient refuses a male technologist for cultural reasons. This situation reflects—

a)

Bias

b)

Human diversity

c)

HIPAA

d)

False imprisonment

12.

A technologist assumes that older patients cannot understand instructions. This is—

a)

Cultural competence

b)

Bias

c)

Ethical behavior

d)

Legal compliance

13.

A deaf patient arrives for x-ray. The BEST communication method is—

a)

Speaking louder

b)

Yelling instructions

c)

Using gestures or written communication

d)

Asking a random visitor to translate

14.

A patient who becomes confused and tries to leave the room is physically blocked by the technologist. This is—

a)

Autonomy

b)

Slander

c)

False imprisonment

d)

Negligence

15.

A technologist discusses a patient’s HIV status with a coworker in a full elevator. This violates—

a)

OSHA

b)

HIPAA

c)

ADA

d)

Good Samaritan protections

16.

A false harmful rumor is spread verbally about a patient. This is—

a)

Libel

b)

Battery

c)

Slander

d)

Abuse

17.

A written false statement about a patient is—

a)

Libel

b)

Slander

c)

Negligence

d)

False imprisonment

18.

A technologist performs an x-ray without checking pregnancy status. This may be—

a)

Battery

b)

Negligence

c)

Slander

d)

Autonomy

19.

A technologist stops at a car accident and performs CPR. Legal protection is provided by—

a)

ADA

b)

Good Samaritan Law

c)

HIPAA

d)

ARRT

20.

A patient signs a consent form after the procedure is fully explained. This is—

a)

Implied consent

b)

Informed consent

c)

Forced consent

d)

HIPAA consent

21.

A patient lies down and holds still for an exam without verbal communication. This is—

a)

Implied consent

b)

Written consent

c)

Informed consent

d)

Advance directive

22.

A document stating a patient does NOT want CPR is—

a)

Living will

b)

DNR

c)

Durable Power of Attorney

d)

HIPAA release

23.

A person named legally to make medical decisions is the—

a)

HIPAA officer

b)

Durable Power of Attorney for Healthcare

c)

Radiologist

d)

Medical director

24.

The main purpose of ARRT Rules of Ethics is to—

a)

Train radiologists

b)

Protect patients and ensure professional conduct

c)

Replace hospital policy

d)

Provide billing codes

25.

Posting patient x-rays on social media violates—

a)

Good Samaritan Law

b)

HIPAA

c)

OSHA

d)

ADA

26.

Autonomy means patients have the right to—

a)

Refuse or choose their care

b)

Access staff records

c)

Change their x-ray results

d)

Demand illegal procedures

27.

The technologist accidentally leaves a workstation logged into PACS. This is a violation of—

a)

OSHA

b)

HIPAA

c)

ADA

d)

ARRT

28.

The minimum lead for an apron is—

a)

0.10 mm

b)

0.25 mm

c)

0.50 mm

d)

1.0 mm

29.

Primary barriers require at least—

a)

0.25 mm Pb

b)

0.5 mm Pb

c)

1/16 inch Pb (~2 mm)

d)

No shielding

30.

Indirect DR first converts x-rays into—

a)

Electricity

b)

Visible light

c)

Heat

d)

Data code

31.

The CR latent image is stored in the—

a)

Backing layer

b)

Phosphor layer

c)

Conductive layer

d)

Lead layer

32.

The CR laser that scans the plate is—

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Purple

d)

UV

33.

CR plates are erased using—

a)

Red laser

b)

Heat

c)

Bright white light

d)

Electricity

34.

DR detectors are often called “cassetteless” because—

a)

They are disposable

b)

They do not require separate readers

c)

They store no data

d)

They use film

35.

The device storing charge in indirect DR is the—

a)

CCD

b)

TFT array

c)

Rotor

d)

Anode

36.

Direct DR uses which material?

a)

Amorphous selenium

b)

Sodium chloride

c)

Silver halide

d)

Tungsten

37.

PACS is used to—

a)

Schedule exams

b)

Store and view images

c)

Order food trays

d)

Enter billing codes

38.

RIS provides—

a)

Image reconstruction

b)

Workflow, reports, worklists

c)

Patient history for entire hospital

d)

Billing only

39.

HIS contains—

a)

Radiology reports only

b)

Hospital-wide medical information

c)

Only imaging schedules

d)

Insurance codes

40.

A normal adult respiratory rate is—

a)

6–10

b)

10–15

c)

12–20

d)

20–30

41.

A pulse of 52 bpm is—

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Normal

42.

A blood pressure of 150/95 indicates—

a)

Normal

b)

Hypotension

c)

Hypertension

d)

Shock

43.

Oxygen saturation of 95–100% indicates—

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Normal oxygenation

c)

Respiratory failure

d)

Shock

44.

A PA chest is taken because it—

a)

Lowers heart magnification

b)

Is faster

c)

Uses more radiation

d)

Reduces scatter

45.

A joint is typically imaged with—

a)

Single AP

b)

AP, lateral, oblique

c)

PA only

d)

Axial only

46.

Electrons that strike the anode come from the—

a)

Rotor

b)

Filament

c)

Stator

d)

Collimator

47.

The anode target is located on the—

a)

Cathode

b)

Focusing cup

c)

Anode

d)

Collimator

48.

AP projection means the beam travels—

a)

Back to front

b)

Front to back

c)

Side to side

d)

From top to bottom

49.

Prone position means the patient is—

a)

Face up

b)

Face down

c)

Seated

d)

Standing

50.

Trendelenburg position places—

a)

Feet higher than head

b)

Head higher than feet

c)

On the left side

d)

Prone with arms up