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WorksheetsASNT SET-3
Total questions: 129
Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Brass is an alloy of copper and:
a)
A) Tin
b)
B) Zinc
c)
C) Aluminum
d)
D) Nickel
2.
Which of the following is correct statement?
a)
A) Grain size 4 is finer than grain size 8
b)
B) Coarse grain improves strength in harder material
c)
C) In machining, coarser grain gives better finish
d)
D) All above are correct statements
3.
A high restrained weld joint has high probability of having:
a)
A) Cracks
b)
B) Porosity
c)
C) Lack of fusion
d)
D) Lack of penetration
4.
In welding distortion can be controlled by:
a)
A) Using low heat input process
b)
B) Proper joint design
c)
C) Doing balanced welding
d)
D) All of above
5.
Identify the more severe flaw:
a)
A) Planar flaw at the surface
b)
B) Volumetric surface flaw
c)
C) Planar interior flaw
d)
D) Volumetric interior flaw
6.
Which of the following discontinuities are not associated with castings?
a)
A) Hot tears
b)
B) Lack of fusion
c)
C) Cold shut
d)
D) Micro shrinkage
7.
Continuous linear discontinuities along a drawn bar would probably be:
a)
A) Stringers
b)
B) Seams
c)
C) Laps
d)
D) Slivers
8.
Which method improves the signal-to-noise ratio in eddy current testing?
a)
A) Filtering or differentiation
b)
B) Phase discrimination
c)
C) Integration
d)
D) All of the above
9.
The deterioration of a metal by chemical or electrochemical reaction with its environment:
a)
A) Corrosion
b)
B) Erosion
c)
C) IGSCC
d)
D) None of the above
10.
Most steel pipes are produced by forming and:
a)
A) Drawing
b)
B) Welding
c)
C) Extrusion
d)
D) Casting
11.
The mill working process for flat products that improves hardness, strength, finish, and accuracy:
a)
A) Cold rolling
b)
B) Hot rolling
c)
C) Forging
d)
D) Extrusion
12.
Welds may develop cracks long after cooling; the principal cause is:
a)
A) Accelerated corrosion at high temperature
b)
B) Scattered porosity
c)
C) Improper selection
d)
D) Excessive residual stress
13.
After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to achieve uniform properties by:
a)
A) Tempering
b)
B) Martensitic aging
c)
C) Normalizing
d)
D) Spheroidizing
14.
Low carbon steel contains approximately:
a)
A) 0.6% to 2.5% carbon
b)
B) 0.06% to 0.25% carbon
c)
C) 0.5% to 1.06% carbon
d)
D) 5% to 16% carbon
15.
An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is:
a)
A) Coke
b)
B) Low carbon steel
c)
C) Low alloy steel
d)
D) Slag
16.
Addition of sulphur in steel:
a)
A) Improves notch toughness at sub-zero temperature
b)
B) Improves crack resistance
c)
C) Increases hot-cracking susceptibility
d)
D) All of the above
17.
Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in:
a)
A) An electric furnace
b)
B) An open-hearth furnace
c)
C) A Bessemer furnace
d)
D) A basic oxygen furnace
18.
Fatigue failure can often be prevented by NDT to:
a)
A) Verify cyclic loading
b)
B) Detect surface discontinuities
c)
C) Measure endurance limit
d)
D) Detect parts undergoing cyclic stresses
19.
Young’s modulus is a measure of a material’s:
a)
A) Tensile strength
b)
B) Compressive strength
c)
C) Resistance to stress
d)
D) Stiffness
20.
Most steel pipe is produced by forming and:
a)
A) Drawing
b)
B) Welding
c)
C) Extrusion
d)
D) Casting
21.
The mill working process performed principally on flat products and bars that improves hardness, strength, surface finish, and dimensional accuracy is:
a)
A) Cold rolling
b)
B) Hot rolling
c)
C) Forging
d)
D) Extrusion
22.
Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size variation and shrinkage, are similar to:
a)
A) Forgings
b)
B) Castings
c)
C) Extrusions
d)
D) Central fungal casting
23.
A casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes and hollow shafts is:
a)
A) Investment casting
b)
B) Blow casting
c)
C) Core casting
d)
D) Central casting
24.
What percentage of carbon is found in steel?
a)
A) Between 3 and 4%
b)
B) Between 2 and 3%
c)
C) Less than 0.2%
d)
D) Less than 2%
25.
Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in:
a)
A) An electric furnace
b)
B) An open-hearth furnace
c)
C) A Bessemer furnace
d)
D) A basic oxygen furnace
26.
In the preceding figure, which of the following ranges indicate the effect of work-hardening (to its maximum) caused by plastic flow of the metal?
a)
A) A – B
b)
B) B – C
c)
C) C – D
d)
D) D – E
27.
On the diagram below, point B is called the:
a)
A) Elastic range
b)
B) Elastic limit
c)
C) Yield point
d)
D) Modulus of elasticity
28.
Material properties as used in design are most frequently determined by:
a)
A) Theoretical analysis
b)
B) Material testing
c)
C) The national bureau of standards
d)
D) Fracture mechanics testing
29.
What does rolling of a material do to its ductility?
a)
A) Decreases it
b)
B) Increases it
c)
C) No change occurs
d)
D) First increases & then decreases
30.
Which casting uses vibrating water-cooled copper tubing?
a)
A) Investment casting
b)
B) Continuous casting
c)
C) Die casting
d)
D) Centrifugal casting
31.
Which of the following leak test is most sensitive?
a)
A) Halogen Diode
b)
B) Mass Spectrometer Leak Detection (MSLD)
c)
C) Ultrasonic
d)
D) Halide Torch
32.
How material shows hardening deformation at room temperature?
a)
A) By heat treatment
b)
B) By cold work
c)
C) Annealing
d)
D) Martempering
33.
The common cause for crater cracks in weld is due to:
a)
A) High current leaving crater
b)
B) Start and stop (Interruption during welding)
c)
C) Large root gap
d)
D) Low travel speed
34.
Cold work is done below:
a)
A) Austenitization
b)
B) Recrystallization
c)
C) Critical temperature
d)
D) Yield point
35.
In cold working the ductility ___ due to directional effect:
a)
A) Decreases in the direction parallel to the deformation direction
b)
B) Decreases in the direction perpendicular to the deformation direction
c)
C) Increases in the direction perpendicular to the deformation direction
d)
D) Increases in the direction parallel to the deformation direction
36.
The cost for extraction of metal from ore and convert as a product is very high, then the:
a)
A) Easy and low cost
b)
B) Harder and high cost
c)
C) Harder and low cost
d)
D) Easy and high cost
37.
Which of the following statement is true concerning deformation processes?
a)
A) Hot working usually follows a cold working
b)
B) Hot working must be followed by heat treatment
c)
C) Hot work materials must be cold worked before they can be used
d)
D) Cold working usually follows hot working
38.
Which of the items listed below is a typical discontinuity encountered in castings?
a)
A) Laminations
b)
B) Bursts
c)
C) Non-metallic inclusions
d)
D) Hot tear
39.
In investment casting:
a)
A) Tolerance of 1/64" is achieved
b)
B) No further machining required (Good surface finish)
c)
C) Large parts produced
d)
D) Low cost
40.
Highest quality of steel is produced by
a)
A) Blast furnace
b)
B) Bessemer steel
c)
C) Open-Hearth process
d)
D) Electric furnace
41.
The cutting tool which withstands hardness and strength at 1100°C is
a)
A) Cemented carbides
b)
B) High speed steels
c)
C) Stainless steels
d)
D) SO923
42.
400 and 300 Series SS tested for identification by which method
a)
A) Hardness test
b)
B) Compression test
c)
C) Magnetic
d)
D) Tensile test
43.
A shaft having diameter of 20+0.005 mm is to be inspected. Which instrument will be
a)
A) A Vernier caliper
b)
B) A micrometer
c)
C) A dial micrometer
d)
D) Any of above
44.
Which of the following best differentiates between a defect and a discontinuity?
a)
A) Discontinuities can propagate and become defects
b)
B) All discontinuities are defects
c)
C) All defects will lead to failure if undetected; discontinuities can be harmless
d)
D) Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only; defects are internal flaws
45.
In which of the following test methods are the metals gold, indium and dysprosium used as part of the process?
a)
A) Electromagnetic testing
b)
B) Acoustic emission testing
c)
C) Mass Spectrometer Leak Detection
d)
D) Neutron radiographic testing
46.
Which radioisotope can be used as a portable source in neutron radiography?
a)
A) Cs-137
b)
B) Linear accelerator
c)
C) Electrostatic generator
d)
D) Cf-252
47.
Conversion screens are used in neutron radiography:
a)
A) To convert neutron energy into ionizing radiation
b)
B) To increase the exposure time
c)
C) Both (a) & (b)
d)
D) Neither (a) nor (b)
48.
Kaiser effect is:
a)
A) Emission at loads smaller than previously applied
b)
B) Emission at loads greater than previously applied
c)
C) Emission at constant loads held
d)
D) A & C both
49.
In which situation is infrared the least appropriate means of measuring a surface temperature?
a)
A) Monitoring the change in temperature of a fender of a vehicle during a burn test
b)
B) Profiling cross-tread temperatures while a vehicle is in motion
c)
C) Observing the temperature distribution of midstream airflow after passing through a radiator
d)
D) Trending the temperature change of a gas line as it passes over the axle during a two-hour road test
50.
In acoustic emission testing purpose of couplant is?
a)
A) Transmit acoustic waves from metal to probe as they cannot travel through air
b)
B) To lubricate & minimize probe wear
c)
C) To amplify signal
d)
D) To increase impedance of probe
51.
Which of the following windows in which the thermographic cameras can best operate in?
a)
A) 3 to 5 µm window
b)
B) 8 to 14 µm windows
c)
C) 5 to 8 µm window
d)
D) A & B
52.
Which of the following is an advantage of the pressure change measurement test method?
a)
A) Requires no special tracer gas
b)
B) Can be used for measuring total leakage rate on either evacuated or pressurised systems
c)
C) Can be used to measure total leakage rate on any size system
d)
D) All of the above apply
53.
Volume change due to thermal expansion or contraction of a constant volume system during a pressure change measurement test?
a)
A) Does not affect the leakage rate calculations
b)
B) Is automatically accounted for by the corrections
c)
C) Is not normally significant
d)
D) Has a very significant error on the leakage rate results
54.
The total radiant power emitted by a black body can be obtained from:
a)
A) Planck’s law
b)
B) Stefan–Boltzmann law
c)
C) Wein’s law
d)
D) None of the above
55.
A tool that uses the wavelength of light as a unit to measure the surface contour is called:
a)
A) Surface comparator
b)
B) Metallurgical microscope
c)
C) Interference microscope
d)
D) Polarized microscope
56.
For visual inspection, the power of magnifying glass should normally be:
a)
A) 2 to 5
b)
B) 5 to 10
c)
C) 10 to 100
d)
D) Any of above
57.
When using a camera for visual inspection within an extremely high radiation area which is suitable?
a)
A) Vidicon tube
b)
B) Charged coupled device
c)
C) Metal oxide semiconductor
d)
D) Orthicon tube
58.
Which part of the retina contains no rods or cones?
a)
A) Fovea centralis
b)
B) Iris
c)
C) Blind spot
d)
D) Optic nerve
59.
Which of the following is a commonly used classification for penetrant?
a)
A) Post-emulsifiable penetrant
b)
B) Nonferrous penetrant
c)
C) Chemical etch penetrant
d)
D) Non-aqueous penetrant
60.
Which one of the following conditions will affect the rate and extent a liquid penetrant will enter cracks, fissures, and other discontinuities?
a)
A) The hardness of the specimen being tested
b)
B) The surface condition of the specimen being tested
c)
C) The color of the penetrant
d)
D) The conductivity of the specimen being tested
61.
Which PT process requires pre-rinse before application of emulsifier?
a)
A) Type I penetrant with solvent removable penetrant system
b)
B) Type II penetrant with solvent removable penetrant system
c)
C) Type I penetrant with lipophilic penetrant system
d)
D) Type I penetrant with hydrophilic penetrant system
62.
Fine surface defects such as fatigue cracks on smooth parts that have been in service are best detected with magnetic particle:
a)
A) Dry magnetic particles with direct current
b)
B) Wet magnetic particles with alternating current
c)
C) Dry magnetic particles with half wave rectified current
d)
D) Wet magnetic particles with half wave rectified current
63.
If an indication is formed when using the residual method as well as the continuous method, it is:
a)
A) Very deep and tight
b)
B) Very shallow and open to the surface
c)
C) A relevant indication
d)
D) A non-relevant indication
64.
Fresh lipophilic emulsifier is tested for:
a)
A) Color
b)
B) Density
c)
C) Viscosity
d)
D) Surface tension
65.
The retentivity of a material describes:
a)
A) The ease with which it can be magnetized
b)
B) The depth of the magnetic field in the part
c)
C) The length of time required to demagnetize it
d)
D) The ability to retain the magnetic field
66.
Which of the following magnetization techniques is not recommended for magnetic particle testing?
a)
A) Longitudinal magnetization
b)
B) Circular magnetization
c)
C) Vector magnetization
d)
D) Parallel magnetization
67.
Magnetic field strength of a yoke is determined by:
a)
A) Pie gauge
b)
B) Lifting weight
c)
C) BC strip
d)
D) Tesla/Gauss meter
68.
A part placed inside the coil has maximum magnetic field at:
a)
A) On the surface of the part
b)
B) At inner surface of the coil
c)
C) Inside the part
d)
D) Center of the coil
69.
The ratio of response/amplitude from signals of interest to the response/amplitude of signals that contain no useful information is:
a)
A) Poisson's ratio
b)
B) Signal-to-noise ratio
c)
C) The conductivity-to-permeability ratio
d)
D) The reactance-to-resistance ratio
70.
The eddy current probe is most simply a
a)
A) Coil of copper wire
b)
B) Semiconductor
c)
C) Capacitor
d)
D) Ceramic resistor
71.
Eddy current testing relies on the principle of:
a)
A) Magnetostriction
b)
B) Electromagnetic induction
c)
C) Piezoelectric energy conversion
d)
D) Magneto motive force
72.
Edge effect is:
a)
A) Distortion of magnetic field at the probe approaching edge giving false indications
b)
B) Can mask edge cracks
c)
C) Can be overcome by maintaining constant edge-to-coil distance
d)
D) All of the above
73.
What source-to-film distance is required to produce a geometric unsharpness of 0.1 mm when radiographing a specimen of 10 mm?
a)
A) 2.2 meters
b)
B) 220 mm
c)
C) 160 mm
d)
D) 1.6 meters
74.
Converting old units to SI units, 100 rads = 1 gray (Gy). How many mGy are there in 1 rad?
a)
A) 0.1
b)
B) 1
c)
C) 10
d)
D) 100
75.
The principle of solid-state image devices is based on:
a)
A) Photoelectric effect and free electrons created in silicon illuminated by photons
b)
B) Generation of electrical pulses representing light intensity
c)
C) Amount of charge in each packet remaining substantially the same
d)
D) Electron beam scanning a photoconductive target
76.
Which cells in the human body are most affected by ionizing radiation?
a)
A) White blood cells
b)
B) Red blood cells
c)
C) Plasma cells
d)
D) Lens of the eye
77.
The kilovoltage applied to an x-ray tube affects:
a)
A) The quality of the beam
b)
B) The intensity of the beam
c)
C) Both A and B above
d)
D) Neither A nor B above
78.
Should an isotope camera be found to be leaking radioactive material subsequent to a wipe test:
a)
A) The depleted uranium is to be replaced
b)
B) All exposures since the last wipe test are to be recalled
c)
C) The source is to be destroyed
d)
D) None of the above
79.
A qualitative term used to indicate the size of the smallest detail visible on a radiograph is:
a)
A) Radiographic sensitivity
b)
B) Radiographic definition
c)
C) Radiographic contrast
d)
D) Subject contrast
80.
For archival preservation, radiographs can be affected by:
a)
A) Over fixing
b)
B) Over development
c)
C) Under washing
d)
D) Over washing
81.
For detection of lamination in plates and sheets, the most effective NDT method is:
a)
A) Radiography
b)
B) Eddy current
c)
C) Angle beam ultrasonic
d)
D) Normal beam ultrasonic
82.
The following is a definition, a flaw which exceeds the minimum acceptability level:
a)
A) Discontinuity
b)
B) Indication
c)
C) Defect
d)
D) Crack
83.
It is possible for a discontinuity smaller than the transducer to produce indications of fluctuating amplitude as the search unit is moved laterally if testing is being performed in the:
a)
A) Fraunhofer zone
b)
B) Near field
c)
C) Snell field
d)
D) Shadow zone
84.
The term “fog level” refers to:
a)
A) The level of smoke in the atmosphere
b)
B) The density of an area of radiographic film accidentally exposed to light
c)
C) The density in an unexposed area of film after development
d)
D) None of the above
85.
The frequency of a transducer is primarily a function of:
a)
A) The excitation voltage
b)
B) The thickness of the crystal
c)
C) The pulse repetition frequency of the instrument
d)
D) The acoustic coupling factor between the crystal, the backing material and the wear face
86.
A 2 MHz, 10 mm diameter, 45° angle beam probe is used for testing a steel plate. A discontinuity indication is obtained at a beam path of 35 mm. The depth of the discontinuity is:
a)
A) 25 mm
b)
B) Not possible to be determined from the given data
c)
C) 35 mm
d)
D) 10 mm
87.
What is the decibel difference between 2 signals on the display with one at 85% full screen height and the other at 17% full screen height?
a)
A) 7 dB
b)
B) 14 dB
c)
C) 2 dB
d)
D) 15 dB
88.
The intensity of sound is:
a)
A) Maximum on the axis of the cone anywhere in the sound profile
b)
B) Maximum at the junction of near field and far field
c)
C) Maximum at the near field
d)
D) Maximum at the extreme cone of the profile
89.
An ultrasonic longitudinal wave travels in aluminium with a velocity of 635,000 cm/sec and has a frequency of one megacycle. The wavelength of this ultrasonic wave is:
a)
A) 6.35 feet
b)
B) 3.10 inches
c)
C) 6.35 millimeters
d)
D) 30,000 angstrom units
90.
Ultrasonic sound is usually described as sound:
a)
A) Which may or may not be heard by human ear
b)
B) Too high to be heard by human ear
c)
C) Too low to be heard by human ear
d)
D) Which can be heard in the audible range only
91.
Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital thickness measurement equipment be qualified and certified?
a)
A) Yes, because ASNT-SNT-TC-1A requires all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified
b)
B) No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation
c)
C) Only if required by industry codes, standards and specifications
d)
D) It depends solely on employer needs and customer requirements
92.
As per CP-189, the expired certificate is recertified when the details are:
a)
A) Expired
b)
B) Revoked
c)
C) Maintained
d)
D) Terminated
93.
An employee is going to work on yoke technique. The examination should not contain:
a)
A) The principles of magnetism
b)
B) Yoke design and operation parameters
c)
C) About other MPT techniques
d)
D) Different types of magnetic particles
94.
What is the minimum qualification required for being an NDT instructor under SNT-TC-1A 2020?
a)
A) More than 10 years’ experience as Level III
b)
B) 2 years’ school of science with 4 years’ experience as Level II
c)
C) He shall be designated by an NDT Level III individual
d)
D) He shall be a Level II as per SNT-TC-1A
95.
The written practice for qualification and certification for Level I and Level II was approved by an outside-agency NDT Level III for one company. The QA manager performed administration and grading. Who is responsible?
a)
A) QC Manager
b)
B) Outside agency
c)
C) The president of company
d)
D) NDT foreman
96.
A candidate for Level-II examination can be considered as passing the certification examinations for a method if he obtains (out of 100) in General, Specific and Practical respectively:
a)
A) 84, 75, 80
b)
B) 65, 90, 91
c)
C) 75, 78, 87
d)
D) 79, 75, 82
97.
The ASNT Level-III certification of a company-certified Level-III is expired. What should be the course of action followed by the employer?
a)
A) No action required; individual continues as company Level-III
b)
B) Recertification by employer after re-examination is required
c)
C) Re-examination by outside ASNT Level III person
d)
D) The individual has to recertify his ASNT Level-III certificate
98.
100. Where an individual has not performed the duties in the method certified for a continuous 12-month period, then the certificate shall be (CP-189)
a)
A) Suspended
b)
B) Revoked
c)
C) Reinstated
d)
D) Terminated
99.
If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III services, the:
a)
A) Written practice of the outside agency pertains
b)
B) Responsibility of certification must be retained by the employer
c)
C) Employer utilizing outside services must have a Level III in direct employment
d)
D) Outside agency may certify the employer’s personnel
100.
As per SNT-TC-1A (2020), for near vision acuity the applicant should be able to read a minimum of Jaeger No. 2 at minimum distance of inches.
a)
A) 12
b)
B) 24
c)
C) 36
d)
D) None of the above
101.
Who should be responsible to assess whether an individual should be qualified and certified who does perform NDT but monitors?
a)
A) ASNT
b)
B) The individual's employer
c)
C) The government regulatory agency
d)
D) The customer’s auditor
102.
What factors are to be considered to ensure that a candidate for certification in NDT has understanding of the principles and procedures involved?
a)
A) Training, experience, and education
b)
B) Training, experience, and prior certifications
c)
C) Education, experience, and percentage of time on the job
d)
D) Training, experience, and professional credentials
103.
May an employer deviate from the guidelines given in SNT-TC-1A to meet his specific need?
a)
A) Yes, employer shall modify the guidelines
b)
B) No, guidelines shall be strictly followed
c)
C) Yes, certain employers are permitted to deviate
d)
D) None of the above
104.
Company requires an NDT instructor. The person has no academic credentials. How many years of NDT experience as an NDT?
a)
A) 1 year
b)
B) 3 years
c)
C) 5 years
d)
D) 10 years
105.
As per ASNT SNT-TC-1A, questions in specific examination should contain as per:
a)
A) Codes and standards
b)
B) Employer’s written practice
c)
C) Employer’s NDT procedure
d)
D) ASNT supplementary questions
106.
108. Candidates failing an examination must wait for a minimum period before appearing for re-examination.
a)
A) 30 days
b)
B) One calendar month
c)
C) 100 days
d)
D) 6 months
107.
A candidate who has failed the practical examination may be reexamined after additional training and practice of a minimum of:
a)
A) 2 weeks
b)
B) 30 days
c)
C) 90 days
d)
D) 10 days
108.
The minimum frequency for administering vision examinations is:
a)
A) Every 3 months
b)
B) Every 6 months
c)
C) Every 12 months
d)
D) Every 24 months
109.
According to written instructions, an NDT Level I may be qualified to perform:
a)
A) Specific calibrations
b)
B) Specific nondestructive tests
c)
C) Specific evaluations
d)
D) All of the above, and write reports of test results
110.
Which of the following is NOT within the scope of activities of a Level II individual?
a)
A) Calibrate equipment
b)
B) Prepare written instructions
c)
C) Establish techniques
d)
D) Provide training
111.
In CP-189 (2020), the minimum number of checkpoints required in a Level I practical is:
a)
A) 5
b)
B) 10
c)
C) 15
d)
D) The employer certification procedure
112.
According to ASNT-SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is true for a Level III?
a)
A) Must have completed at least two years of science or engineering study
b)
B) It is desirable to be a registered professional engineer
c)
C) Responsible for establishing all acceptance criteria
d)
D) Shall evaluate test results in terms of codes, standards, and specifications
113.
As per ASNT-SNT-TC-1A, the outside agency means:
a)
A) A Level III individual
b)
B) An engineering organization
c)
C) Either A or B
d)
D) Anybody other than ASNT
114.
ASNT conducts certification examinations for:
a)
A) Level I only
b)
B) Level II only
c)
C) Level III only
d)
D) All three levels
115.
As per SNT-TC-1A (2020), for Level II practical examination, the minimum number of test samples recommended per method and per technique is:
a)
A) Per Method 1, Per Technique 2
b)
B) Per Method 1, Per Technique 1
c)
C) Per Method 2, Per Technique 2
d)
D) Per Method 2, Per Technique 1
116.
A certified NDT Level II operator resigns from Company A and joins Company B. Company B can certify him to Level II provided:
a)
A) The new company has managers free from moral turpitude
b)
B) The procedure for recertification is in the written practice
c)
C) The employee is willing to execute a service bond
d)
D) The employee has no police record
117.
As per SNT-TC-1A, the documentation and records must not contain:
a)
A) Level of certification in the applicable NDT method
b)
B) Statement of satisfactory completion of training
c)
C) Biodata
d)
D) Evidence of grades obtained in the exam
118.
Qualification is:
a)
A) Demonstrated skill, training, knowledge and experience required to perform a specific job
b)
B) A certificate of merit
c)
C) Academic achievement with good extracurricular activities
d)
D) None of the above
119.
What is the minimum level of certification in which the person does not need written instructions?
a)
A) Level I
b)
B) Level II
c)
C) Level III
d)
D) Trainee
120.
As per SNT-TC-1A, which of the following statements is true concerning recertification?
a)
A) Recertification for Level I and II shall be at least once in five years
b)
B) Recertification for Level III shall be at least once in five years
c)
C) NDT personnel may be re-examined at any time at the employer’s discretion
d)
D) All of the above are true
121.
The certifying agency is defined as:
a)
A) The Employer
b)
B) The Outside Agency
c)
C) The ASNT Level III
d)
D) Both the Employer and the ASNT Level III
122.
Establishing a written practice for control and administration of NDT personnel is:
a)
A) The sole responsibility of the employer
b)
B) Basically the responsibility of the NDT Level III
c)
C) As dictated by the customer
d)
D) In accordance with regulatory authority guidelines
123.
Should personnel that operate an optical fibroscope for visual examination be qualified and certified?
a)
A) Yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires all personnel performing NDT be qualified
b)
B) No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation
c)
C) Depends solely on employer needs and customer requirements
d)
D) Only if required by specific codes or standards
124.
To which of the following NDT methods is SNT-TC-1A currently applicable?
a)
A) Thermography
b)
B) Vibration Analysis
c)
C) Laser Testing
d)
D) All of the above
125.
The maximum percentage of false calls allowed is
a)
A) 20%
b)
B) 10%
c)
C) 2 only
d)
D) None
126.
A Level II leaves company on 12/02/2019 and joins new company on 21/09/2019. What applies?
a)
A) He can work as Level II in the new concern
b)
B) He has to write and pass the exam
c)
C) He should have worked 6 months as Level II in the old company
d)
D) He has to be re-certified as per the written practice of the old employer
127.
CP-105 gives:
a)
A) Guidelines for qualification of NDT personnel
b)
B) Recommended practices for qualification of NDT personnel
c)
C) Minimum requirements for qualification of NDT personnel
d)
D) Topical outlines for qualification of NDT personnel
128.
What new UT technique is specified in SNT-TC-1A 2020?
a)
A) Microwave Technology
b)
B) Full Matrix Capture
c)
C) Laser Methods
d)
D) Guided Wave Testing
129.
Which statement is true with respect to SNT-TC-1A?
a)
A) Specifies requirements for qualification & examination
b)
B) Provides guidelines for qualification & certification
c)
C) Specifies requirements for qualification & certification
d)
D) Provides standard for qualification & examination
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