Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

80 qustions final review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following correctly matches the phylum with its key feature?

a)

Arthropoda – water vascular system

b)

Annelida – stinging cells

c)

Mollusca – mantle and foot

d)

Cnidaria – jointed appendages

2.

An animal that is radially symmetrical as an adult, uses a water vascular system, and is a deuterostome is most likely a:

a)

Sea star

b)

Earthworm

c)

Clam

d)

Spider

3.

Which is the correct order of animal complexity from simplest to most complex?

a)

Cnidarians → Sponges → Arthropods → Mammals

b)

Sponges → Cnidarians → Flatworms → Arthropods

c)

Sponges → Flatworms → Cnidarians → Arthropods

d)

Flatworms → Sponges → Mollusks → Echinoderms

4.

Which of the following is NOT correctly matched to its body cavity type?

a)

Flatworms – acoelomate

b)

Roundworms – pseudocoelomate

c)

Earthworms – coelomate

d)

Sponges – coelomate

5.

Which trait is unique to arthropods compared to other invertebrates?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Jointed appendages and chitin exoskeleton

c)

Radial symmetry

d)

Stinging cells

6.

Which of the following is true about cephalization?

a)

It is most associated with radial symmetry.

b)

It is found in animals without nervous tissue.

c)

It is the concentration of sense organs at the anterior end.

d)

It only occurs in deuterostomes.

7.

A worm with segmentation, a closed circulatory system, and a true coelom is most likely a:

a)

Nematode

b)

Flatworm

c)

Annelid

d)

Cnidarian

8.

Which statement about mollusks is accurate?

a)

All mollusks have an external shell.

b)

The mantle secretes the shell in many mollusks.

c)

All mollusks are filter feeders.

d)

Mollusks are acoelomates.

9.

Which characteristic is shared by all chordates?

a)

Exoskeleton

b)

Radial symmetry

c)

Notochord

d)

Water vascular system

10.

A developing animal whose blastopore becomes the anus is a:

a)

Protostome

b)

Deuterostome

c)

Acoelomate

d)

Pseudocoelomate

11.

Which pair is mismatched?

a)

Cnidarian – gastrovascular cavity

b)

Echinoderm – water vascular system

c)

Arthropod – molting

d)

Sponge – complete digestive tract

12.

Which group has no true tissues?

a)

Porifera

b)

Cnidaria

c)

Mollusca

d)

Annelida

13.

Which adaptation helped arthropods thrive on land?

a)

Water vascular system

b)

External fertilization only

c)

Jointed appendages and exoskeleton

d)

No respiratory organs

14.

Bilateral symmetry is associated with:

a)

Sessile lifestyle

b)

Filter feeding

c)

Directional movement and cephalization

d)

Radial development

15.

A parasitic flatworm that absorbs nutrients across its surface is likely a:

a)

Planarian

b)

Tapeworm

c)

Nematode

d)

Polychaete

16.

Protostomes differ from deuterostomes in that protostomes:

a)

Have no germ layers

b)

Are all acoelomates

c)

Form the mouth first from the blastopore

d)

Lack segmentation

17.

Which is an example of negative feedback?

a)

Labor contractions increasing

b)

Platelet plug formation

c)

Shivering when body temperature drops

d)

Oxytocin release intensifying

18.

Which tissue has tightly packed cells with minimal extracellular matrix?

a)

Connective

b)

Muscle

c)

Epithelial

d)

Nervous

19.

Which is NOT connective tissue?

a)

Bone

b)

Cartilage

c)

Blood

d)

Smooth muscle

20.

Cardiac muscle is similar to skeletal muscle because it:

a)

Is voluntary

b)

Is striated

c)

Lines hollow organs

d)

Lacks striations

21.

What is the correct order in a homeostatic feedback loop?

a)

Effector → Sensor → Integrator

b)

Sensor → Integrator → Effector

c)

Integrator → Effector → Sensor

d)

Effector → Integrator → Sensor

22.

The hypothalamus functions as:

a)

A blood pump

b)

A urine reservoir

c)

The main homeostatic control center

d)

A digestive enzyme producer

23.

Which statement describes skeletal muscle?

a)

Involuntary and in heart

b)

Lines digestive organs

c)

Voluntary and attached to bone

d)

Lacks striations

24.

An organ is:

a)

A group of similar cells

b)

A group of tissues working together

c)

A group of organ systems

d)

A single cell

25.

Blood returning from systemic circulation enters the:

a)

Left atrium

b)

Right atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left ventricle

26.

The pulmonary artery carries:

a)

O-rich blood to lungs

b)

O-poor blood to lungs

c)

O-rich blood to body

d)

O-poor blood to body

27.

Which vessel has the thickest walls?

a)

Veins

b)

Capillaries

c)

Arteries

d)

Venules

28.

Venous return decreases when:

a)

Muscle contractions increase

b)

Venous valves fail

c)

Blood volume increases

d)

Heart rate increases

29.

Gas exchange occurs in:

a)

Arteries

b)

Capillaries

c)

Veins

d)

Lymph vessels

30.

Low RBC count causes:

a)

Increased immunity

b)

Reduced oxygen transport

c)

Increased clotting

d)

Increased blood pressure

31.

Which blood component is correctly matched?

a)

Platelets — oxygen transport

b)

RBCs — immunity

c)

Plasma — transports dissolved substances

d)

WBCs — clotting

32.

A blockage in a coronary artery reduces blood flow to the:

a)

Lungs

b)

Brain

c)

Heart muscle

d)

Kidneys

33.

The SA node:

a)

Prevents backflow

b)

Sets the heart pace

c)

Clots blood

d)

Filters blood

34.

Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea?

a)

Larynx

b)

Epiglottis

c)

Uvula

d)

Pharynx

35.

Oxygen moves from alveoli into blood by:

a)

Active transport

b)

Osmosis

c)

Diffusion

d)

Bulk flow

36.

If the diaphragm cannot contract, what happens?

a)

Inhalation is impaired

b)

Exhalation is impaired

c)

Blood pressure drops

d)

Heart rate increases

37.

High CO2 causes breathing to:

a)

Slow

b)

Increase

c)

Stop

d)

Reverse

38.

Correct path of air:

a)

Trachea → larynx → bronchi → alveoli

b)

Bronchi → pharynx → bronchioles → alveoli

c)

Pharynx → larynx → trachea → bronchi → alveoli

d)

Nose → esophagus → lungs

39.

Emphysema decreases:

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Gas exchange surface area

c)

Enzyme production

d)

Urea formation

40.

Breathing rate increases during exercise because:

a)

O2 rises

b)

Temperature drops

c)

CO2 production rises

d)

Blood flow decreases

41.

Mucus and cilia in airways:

a)

Boost O2 absorption

b)

Trap and remove pathogens

c)

Create surfactant

d)

Control blood pH

42.

The nephron:

a)

Pumps blood

b)

Sends urine out of body

c)

Filters blood and forms urine

d)

Produces hormones

43.

Filtration occurs in the:

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Urethra

44.

What is normally reabsorbed?

a)

Urea

b)

Glucose and amino acids

c)

Toxins

d)

Proteins

45.

ADH causes:

a)

More urine

b)

More water reabsorption

c)

Less salt reabsorption

d)

More urea production

46.

If ADH decreases:

a)

Urine becomes concentrated

b)

Urine becomes dilute

c)

Urine stops forming

d)

Urine becomes acidic

47.

Loop of Henle creates:

a)

pH balance

b)

Salt gradient

c)

Urine storage

d)

Blood cells

48.

Urine flows from kidney to bladder via:

a)

Urethra

b)

Nephron

c)

Ureter

d)

Collecting duct

49.

Kidneys regulate:

a)

Blood pressure only

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Water and electrolyte balance

d)

Hormone secretion

50.

Stomach function:

a)

Major nutrient absorption

b)

Protein digestion

c)

Fat digestion

d)

Carbohydrate absorption

51.

Which enzyme matches its substrate?

a)

Amylase – fats

b)

Pepsin – proteins

c)

Lipase – starch

d)

Trypsin – DNA

52.

Bile function:

a)

Digest carbs

b)

Emulsify fats

c)

Digest proteins

d)

Produce RBCs

53.

Most digestion/absorption occurs in:

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

54.

Villi increase:

a)

Enzyme secretion

b)

Absorption surface area

c)

Bile production

d)

Stomach acid

55.

Liver role:

a)

Stores urine

b)

Makes bile, detoxifies

c)

Produces all enzymes

d)

Produces CO2

56.

Pancreas releases:

a)

Bile only

b)

Enzymes + bicarbonate

c)

Only bicarbonate

d)

Only enzymes

57.

Large intestine:

a)

Absorbs most nutrients

b)

Absorbs water

c)

Makes bile

d)

Digests proteins

58.

Innate immunity includes:

a)

Antibodies

b)

Memory cells

c)

Skin barrier

d)

Vaccination

59.

Plasma cells:

a)

Kill viruses

b)

Produce antibodies

c)

Produce histamine

d)

Filter blood

60.

Helper T cells:

a)

Kill infected cells

b)

Activate B and T cells

c)

Make antibodies

d)

Digest pathogens

61.

Cytotoxic T cells kill using:

a)

Antibodies

b)

Perforin

c)

Mucus

d)

Enzymes

62.

Vaccines work by:

a)

Killing pathogens

b)

Producing memory cells

c)

Removing toxins

d)

Increasing RBCs

63.

HIV destroys:

a)

B cells

b)

Helper T cells

c)

RBCs

d)

Platelets

64.

Inflammatory response includes:

a)

Lowered temperature

b)

Redness, swelling, heat, pain

c)

High blood sugar

d)

Increased urine output

65.

Autoimmune disease occurs when:

a)

Pathogens multiply

b)

Immune system attacks body cells

c)

Memory cells fail

d)

Antibodies decrease

66.

Endocrine glands:

a)

Use ducts

b)

Release hormones into blood

c)

Store urine

d)

Produce mucus

67.

ADH function:

a)

Raises blood sugar

b)

Increases water reabsorption

c)

Reduces metabolism

d)

Increases urine volume

68.

Low thyroid hormone causes:

a)

High metabolic rate

b)

Low metabolic rate

c)

Increased calcium

d)

Decreased water reabsorption

69.

The pituitary is the master gland because it:

a)

Controls breathing

b)

Directly controls all organs

c)

Regulates other endocrine glands

d)

Filters toxins

70.

Fight-or-flight is triggered by:

a)

Thyroid gland

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Pancreas

d)

Parathyroid

71.

Hormone released when blood glucose is HIGH:

a)

Insulin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Cortisol

d)

ADH

72.

Steroid hormones:

a)

Bind cell surface receptors

b)

Cannot enter cells

c)

Enter nucleus and affect gene expression

d)

Function like antibodies

73.

Type 1 diabetes is caused by:

a)

Insulin resistance

b)

Autoimmune destruction of beta cells

c)

High insulin production

d)

Excess glucagon

74.

Sperm are made in the:

a)

Epididymis

b)

Seminiferous tubules

c)

Vas deferens

d)

Urethra

75.

LH surge triggers:

a)

Menstruation

b)

Sperm production

c)

Ovulation

d)

Fertilization

76.

Fertilization occurs in the:

a)

Ovary

b)

Uterus

c)

Cervix

d)

Oviduct

77.

Implantation occurs in the:

a)

Cervix

b)

Endometrium

c)

Ovary

d)

Oviduct

78.

Progesterone:

a)

Causes ovulation

b)

Maintains uterine lining

c)

Raises blood sugar

d)

Produces milk

79.

hCG is produced by the:

a)

Ovary

b)

Embryo (trophoblast)

c)

Placenta only at birth

d)

Pituitary

80.

The scrotum:

a)

Warms the testes

b)

Keeps testes cool

c)

Produces testosterone

d)

Stores sperm

Similar Resources on Wayground

HIS PREFINAL EXAM

75 questions

HIS PREFINAL EXAM

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Voc. Challenge Cat. 4 Science

84 questions

Voc. Challenge Cat. 4 Science

quiz

Worksheet

•

5th Grade - University

Meteorology Unit 1Concepts Review

75 questions

Meteorology Unit 1Concepts Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

UTS Geologi Geotermal

85 questions

UTS Geologi Geotermal

quiz

Worksheet

•

12th Grade - Professi...

SPS113 - Relearn

84 questions

SPS113 - Relearn

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Exam 2 Part 1 Review-Micro

81 questions

Exam 2 Part 1 Review-Micro

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

Basics

75 questions

Basics

quiz

Worksheet

•

6th Grade - University

The Earth, Moon, and Sun

77 questions

The Earth, Moon, and Sun

quiz

Worksheet

•

8th Grade - University