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Chapter 1: Role of Financial Markets and Institutions - Part 1

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Equity securities have a ______ expected return than most long-term debt securities, and they exhibit a ______ degree of risk.

a)

higher; lower

b)

lower; higher

c)

higher; higher

d)

lower; lower

2.

Money market securities generally have ______. Capital market securities are typically expected to have a ______.

a)

less liquidity; higher annualized return

b)

more liquidity; lower annualized return

c)

less liquidity; lower annualized return

d)

more liquidity; higher annualized return

3.

If security prices fully reflect all available information, the markets for these securities are

a)

efficient

b)

primary

c)

overvalued

d)

undervalued

4.

If markets are ______, investors could use available information ignored by the market to earn abnormally high returns.

a)

inefficient

b)

perfect

c)

in equilibrium

d)

active

5.

If financial markets are efficient, this implies that investors can ignore the various investment instruments available.

a)

False

b)

True

6.

The Securities Act of 1933

a)

all of the above

b)

required complete disclosure of relevant financial information for securities traded in the secondary market

c)

declared misleading financial statements for public primary securities illegal

d)

declared trading strategies to manipulate the prices of public secondary securities illegal

e)

required complete disclosure of relevant financial information for publicly offered securities in the primary market

7.

The Securities Exchange Commission (SEC) was established by the

a)

Federal Reserve Act

b)

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

c)

none of the above

d)

McFadden Act

e)

Glass-Steagall Act

8.

Common stock is an example of a(n)

a)

debt security

b)

money market security

c)

equity security

d)

A and B

9.

If financial markets were ______, all information about any securities for sale in primary and secondary markets would be continuously and freely available to investors.

a)

perfect

b)

inefficient

c)

imperfect

d)

efficient

10.

The typical role of a securities firm in a public offering of securities is to

a)

provide all large investors with loans so that they can invest in the offering

b)

place the entire issue with a single large investor

c)

spread the issue across several investors until the entire issue is sold

d)

purchase the entire issue for its own investment

11.

Without the participation of financial intermediaries in financial market transactions,

a)

information costs would be higher but transaction costs would be unchanged

b)

transaction costs would be higher but information costs would be unchanged

c)

information and transaction costs would be lower

d)

information and transaction costs would be higher

12.

Which of the following is most likely to be described as a depository institution?

a)

finance companies

b)

securities firms

c)

credit unions

d)

pension funds

e)

insurance companies

13.

In aggregate, ______ are the most dominant depository institution.

a)

S&Ls

b)

commercial banks

c)

credit unions

d)

savings banks

14.

Which of the following is a nondepository financial institution?

a)

mutual funds

b)

savings and loan associations

c)

commercial banks

d)

savings banks

15.

Which of the following distinguishes credit unions from commercial banks and savings institutions?

a)

Credit unions are non-profit

b)

Credit unions accept deposits but do not make loans

c)

Savings institutions restrict their business to members who share a common bond

d)

Credit unions make loans but do not accept deposits

16.

When a securities firm acts as a broker, it

a)

purchases securities for its own account

b)

executes transactions between two parties

c)

makes a market in specific securities by adjusting its own inventory

d)

guarantees the issuer a specific price for newly issued securities

17.

When a securities firm acts as a(n) ______, it maintains a position in securities.

a)

none of the above

b)

broker

c)

dealer

d)

adviser

18.

______ obtain funds by issuing securities, then lend the funds to individuals and small businesses.

a)

Insurance companies

b)

Mutual funds

c)

Securities firms

d)

Finance companies

19.

Households with ______ are served by ______.

a)

savings; finance companies only

b)

savings; pension funds and finance companies

c)

deficient funds; finance companies only

d)

deficient funds; depository institutions and finance companies

20.

______ concentrate on mortgage loans.

a)

Finance companies

b)

Commercial banks

c)

Credit unions

d)

Savings institutions

21.

______ securities have a maturity of one year or less; ______ securities are generally more liquid.

a)

Capital market; capital market

b)

Money market; capital market

c)

Money market; money market

d)

Capital market; money market

22.

Which of the following is not a major investor in stocks?

a)

pension funds

b)

mutual funds

c)

insurance companies

d)

commercial banks

23.

Which of the following financial intermediaries commonly invests in stocks and bonds?

a)

pension funds

b)

insurance companies

24.

Securities are certificates that represent a claim on the issuer.

a)

False

b)

True

25.

Debt securities are certificates that represent debt (borrowed funds) by the issuer.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

A five-year security was purchased two years ago by an investor who plans to resell it. The security will be sold by the investor in the so-called

a)

secondary market

b)

surplus market

c)

deficit market

d)

primary market

27.

When security prices fully reflect all available information, the markets for these securities are said to be efficient.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

If markets are perfect, securities buyers and sellers do not have full access to information and cannot always break down securities to the precise size they desire.

a)

False

b)

True

29.

A broker executes securities transactions between two parties and charges a fee reflected in the bid-ask spread.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The euro increased business between European countries and created a more competitive environment in Europe.

a)

False

b)

True

31.

In recent years, financial institutions have consolidated to capitalize on economies of scale and on economies of scope.

a)

False

b)

True

32.

Securities are certificates that represent a claim on the provider of funds.

a)

False

b)

True

33.

Debt securities include commercial paper, Treasury bonds, and corporate bonds.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Common types of capital market securities include Treasury bills and commercial paper.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Common types of money market securities include negotiable certificates of deposit and Treasury bills.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Money market securities are commonly issued in order to finance the purchase of assets such as buildings, equipment, or machinery.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Commercial banks in aggregate have a lower value of assets than savings institutions.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Financial markets facilitating the flow of short-term funds with maturities of less than one year are known as

a)

none of the above

b)

money markets

c)

primary markets

d)

capital markets

e)

secondary markets

39.

Which of the following transactions would not be considered a secondary market transaction?

a)

An individual investor purchases some existing shares of stock in IBM through his broker.

b)

An institutional investor sells some Disney stock through its broker.

c)

A firm that was privately held engages in an offering of stock to the public.

d)

All of the above are secondary market transactions.

40.

If investors speculate in the underlying asset rather than derivative contracts on the underlying asset, they will probably achieve ________ returns, and they are exposed to relatively ________ risk.

a)

higher; higher

b)

higher; lower

c)

lower; higher

d)

lower; lower

41.

________ maintain a larger amount of assets in aggregate than the other types of depository institutions.

a)

Credit unions

b)

Commercial banks

c)

Life insurance companies

d)

Savings institutions

42.

A common use of funds for __________ is investment in stocks and businesses, while their main use of funds is providing loans to households and businesses.

a)

mutual funds

b)

finance companies

c)

commercial banks

d)

savings institutions

43.

Long-term debt securities tend to have a __________ expected return and _________ risk than money market securities.

a)

lower; lower

b)

lower; higher

c)

higher; lower

d)

higher; higher

44.

Common types of capital market securities include Treasury bills and commercial paper.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Common types of money market securities include negotiable certificates of deposit and Treasury bills.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Capital market securities are commonly issued in order to finance the purchase of assets such as buildings, equipment, or machinery.

a)

False

b)

True

47.

Commercial banks in aggregate have more assets than savings institutions.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Those participants who receive more money than they spend are referred to as

a)

surplus units

b)

borrowing units

c)

deficit units

d)

government units

49.

Equity securities

a)

have a maturity.

b)

pay interest on a periodic basis.

c)

represent ownership in the issuer.

d)

repay the principal amount at maturity.

50.

The term ________ involves decisions such as how much funding to obtain, and how to invest the proceeds to expand operations.

a)

None of the above

b)

financial markets and institutions

c)

investment management

d)

corporate finance

51.

There is a ________ relationship between the risk of a security and the expected return from investing in the security.

a)

none of the above

b)

positive

c)

negative

d)

indeterminable

52.

If a security is undervalued, some investors would capitalize on this by purchasing that security. As a result, the security’s price will ________, resulting in a ________ return for those investors.

a)

rise; lower

b)

rise; higher

c)

fall; higher

d)

fall; lower

53.

The credit crisis in the 2008-2009 period was caused by weak economies in Asia.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

Currently, ______ hold the largest amount of assets of all financial institutions.

a)

finance companies

b)

commercial banks

c)

securities firms

d)

credit unions

55.

The main reason that depository institutions experienced financial problems during the credit crisis was their investment in:

a)

mortgages

b)

money market securities

c)

stock

d)

Treasury bonds

56.

Markets that facilitate the flow of short-term funds (maturities less than one year) are known as capital markets, while those facilitating long-term funds are known as money markets.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

Treasury bonds have a maturity of one to three years.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Since markets are efficient, institutional and individual investors should ignore the various investment instruments available.

a)

False

b)

True

59.

Speculating with derivative contracts on an underlying asset typically results in both higher risk and higher returns than speculating in the underlying asset itself.

a)

False

b)

True

60.

When security prices fully reflect all available information, the markets for these securities are said to be perfect.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Securities that are not as safe and liquid as other securities are never considered for investment by anyone.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

By requiring full disclosure of information, securities laws prevent investors from making poor investment decisions.

a)

False

b)

True

63.

When a depository institution offers a loan, it is acting as a creditor.

a)

False

b)

True

64.

Savings institutions are the most dominant financial institution.

a)

False

b)

True

65.

Most mutual funds obtain funds by issuing securities, then lend the funds to individuals and small businesses.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

Institutional investors not only provide financial support to companies but exercise some degree of corporate control over them.

a)

False

b)

True

67.

Which of the following is not a reason why depository financial institutions are popular?

a)

They use information resources to act as a broker executing trades

b)

They offer deposit accounts meeting surplus units’ preferences

c)

They accept the risk on loans they provide

d)

They repackage deposits into loans for deficit units

e)

They have more expertise than surplus units in assessing credit

68.

Which of the following is not considered a money market security?

a)

retail CD

b)

commercial paper

c)

Treasury notes

d)

Treasury bills

e)

banker’s acceptance

69.

__________ are not considered capital market securities.

a)

Repurchase agreements

b)

Municipal bonds

c)

Mortgages

d)

Corporate bonds

e)

Equity securities

70.

__________ are long-term debt obligations issued by corporations and government agencies to support their operations.

a)

Derivative securities

b)

None of the above

c)

Common stock

d)

Bonds

71.

Equity securities should normally have a __________ expected return and __________ risk than money market securities.

a)

higher; higher

b)

lower; lower

c)

higher; lower

d)

lower; higher

72.

If investors speculate in derivative contracts rather than the underlying asset, they will probably achieve __________ returns, and they are exposed to relatively __________ risk.

a)

lower; lower

b)

lower; higher

c)

higher; lower

d)

higher; higher

73.

When particular securities are perceived to be __________ by the market, their prices decrease when they are sold by investors.

a)

undervalued

b)

efficient

c)

fairly priced

d)

overvalued

e)

none of the above

74.

Which of the following are not considered depository financial institutions?

a)

savings institutions

b)

commercial banks

c)

credit unions

d)

All of the above are depository institutions

e)

finance companies

75.

The main source of funds for __________ is proceeds from selling securities to households and businesses, while their main use of funds is providing loans to households and businesses.

a)

finance companies

b)

savings institutions

c)

pension funds

d)

commercial banks

e)

mutual funds

76.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Financial markets attract investor funds and channel them to corporations

b)

Money markets enable corporations to borrow short term to support operations

c)

Financial institutions serve solely as intermediaries and never serve as investors

d)

Investors seek to invest in firms that are undervalued and have potential

77.

Which of the following is not a typical money market security?

a)

Treasury bills

b)

Negotiable certificates of deposit

c)

Treasury bonds

d)

Commercial paper

78.

The demand for funds resulting from business investment in short-term assets is ______ related to the number of projects implemented, and is therefore ______ related to the interest rate.

a)

positively; positively

b)

inversely; inversely

c)

positively; inversely

d)

inversely; positively

79.

If economic conditions become less favorable

a)

expected cash flows on various projects will increase.

b)

there would be a decreased demand by business for loanable funds.

c)

more proposed projects will have expected returns greater than the hurdle rate.

d)

there would be additional acceptable business projects.

80.

As a result of more favorable economic conditions, there is a(n) ______ demand for loanable funds, causing an ______ shift in the demand curve.

a)

decreased; inward

b)

decreased; outward

c)

increased; outward

d)

increased; inward

81.

The federal government demand for loanable funds is ______. If the budget deficit was expected to increase, the federal government demand for loanable funds would ______.

a)

interest inelastic; increase

b)

interest inelastic; decrease

c)

interest elastic; increase

d)

interest elastic; decrease

82.

Other things being equal, foreign governments and corporations would demand ______ U.S. funds if their local interest rates were lower than U.S. rates. Therefore, for a given set of foreign interest rates, foreign demand for U.S. funds is ______ related to U.S. interest rates.

a)

less; positively

b)

more; inversely

c)

more; positively

d)

less; inversely

83.

For a given set of foreign interest rates, the quantity of U.S. loanable funds demanded by foreign governments or firms will be ______ U.S. interest rates.

a)

inversely related to

b)

positively related to

c)

none of the above

d)

unrelated to

84.

The quantity of loanable funds supplied is normally

a)

equally interest elastic as the demand for loanable funds.

b)

less interest elastic than the demand for loanable funds.

c)

highly interest elastic.

d)

more interest elastic than the demand for loanable funds.

85.

The ______ sector is the largest supplier of loanable funds.

a)

household

b)

government

c)

none of the above

d)

business

86.

The supply of loanable funds in the U.S. is partly determined by the monetary policy implemented by the Federal Reserve System.

a)

False

b)

True

87.

If a strong economy allows for a large ______ in households income, the supply curve will shift ______.

a)

increase; outward

b)

increase; inward

c)

none of the above

d)

decrease; outward

88.

The equilibrium interest rate

a)

equates the elasticity of the aggregate demand and supply for loanable funds.

b)

increases as the aggregate demand for loanable funds decreases.

c)

equates the aggregate demand for funds with the aggregate supply of loanable funds.

d)

decreases as the aggregate supply of loanable funds decreases.

89.

The equilibrium interest rate should

a)

rise when the aggregate supply of funds exceeds aggregate demand for funds.

b)

fall when the aggregate supply funds exceeds aggregate demand for funds.

c)

rise when aggregate demand for funds equals aggregate supply of funds.

d)

fall when the aggregate demand for funds exceeds aggregate supply of funds.

e)

B and C

90.

Which of the following is likely to cause a decrease in the equilibrium U.S. interest rate, other things being equal?

a)

a decrease in savings by U.S. households

b)

a decrease in savings by foreign savers

c)

an increase in inflation

d)

pessimistic economic projections that cause businesses to reduce expansion plans

91.

The Fisher effect states that the

a)

real rate of interest equals the nominal interest rate plus the expected inflation rate.

b)

nominal interest rate equals the expected inflation rate plus the real rate of interest.

c)

nominal interest rate equals the real rate of interest minus the expected inflation rate.

d)

expected inflation rate equals the nominal interest rate plus the real rate of interest.

92.

If the real interest rate was negative for a period of time, then

a)

inflation is expected to exceed the nominal interest rate in the future.

b)

actual inflation was greater than the nominal interest rate.

c)

inflation is expected to be less than the nominal interest rate in the future.

d)

actual inflation was less than the nominal interest rate.

93.

If inflation is expected to decrease, then

a)

borrowers will demand more funds at the existing equilibrium interest rate.

b)

the equilibrium interest rate will increase.

c)

savers will provide less funds at the existing equilibrium interest rate.

d)

the equilibrium interest rate will decrease.

94.

If inflation turns out to be lower than expected

a)

savers are adversely affected but borrowers benefit.

b)

savers and borrowers are equally affected.

c)

borrowers benefit while savers are not affected.

d)

savers benefit.

95.

If the economy weakens, there is ______ pressure on interest rates. If the Federal Reserve increases the money supply there is ______ pressure on interest rates (assume that inflationary expectations are unchanged).

a)

downward; downward

b)

upward; downward

c)

upward; upward

d)

downward; upward

96.

What is the basis of the relationship between the Fisher effect and the loanable funds theory?

a)

B and C

b)

the borrower’s desire to achieve a positive real rate of interest

c)

the saver’s desire to maintain the existing real rate of interest

d)

the saver’s desire to achieve a negative real rate of interest

97.

Assume that foreign investors who have invested in U.S. securities decide to decrease their holdings of U.S. securities and to instead increase their holdings of securities in their own countries. This should cause the supply of loanable funds in the United States to ______ and should place ______ pressure on U.S. interest rates.

a)

decrease; upward

b)

increase; upward

c)

decrease; downward

d)

increase; downward

98.

Assume that foreign investors who have invested in U.S. securities decide to increase their holdings of U.S. securities. This should cause the supply of loanable funds in the United States to ______ and should place ______ pressure on U.S. interest rates.

a)

decrease; upward

b)

decrease; downward

c)

increase; downward

d)

increase; upward

99.

If the federal government needs to borrow additional funds, this borrowing reflects a(n) ________ in the supply of loanable funds, and a(n) _______ in the demand for loanable funds.

a)

increase; no change

b)

no change; increase

c)

no change; decrease

d)

decrease; no change

100.

If the federal government reduces its budget deficit, this causes a(n) ____________________ in the supply of loanable funds, and a(n) ______________________ in the demand for loanable funds.

a)

increase; no change

b)

decrease; no change

c)

no change; increase

d)

no change; decrease

101.

Due to expectations of higher inflation in the future, we would typically expect the supply of loanable funds to ____________ and the demand for loanable funds to ____________.

a)

decrease; decrease

b)

increase; decrease

c)

decrease; increase

d)

increase; increase

102.

Due to expectations of lower inflation in the future, we would typically expect the supply of loanable funds to ____________ and the demand for loanable funds to _______________.

a)

increase; decrease

b)

increase; increase

c)

decrease; increase

d)

decrease; decrease

103.

If the real interest rate is expected by a particular person to become negative, then the purchasing power of his or her savings would be ____________, as the inflation rate is expected to be ____________ the existing nominal interest rate.

a)

decreasing; less than

b)

decreasing; greater than

c)

increasing; less than

d)

increasing; greater than

104.

If economic expansion is expected to increase, then demand for loanable funds should ______ and interest rates should ______.

a)

decrease; increase

b)

decrease; decrease

c)

increase; increase

d)

increase; decrease

105.

If economic expansion is expected to decrease, the demand for loanable funds should ______ and interest rates should ______.

a)

increase; increase

b)

decrease; decrease

c)

decrease; increase

d)

increase; decrease

106.

If the real interest rate was stable over time, this would suggest that there is ______ relationship between inflation and nominal interest rate movements.

a)

an inverse

b)

no

c)

an uncertain (cannot be determined from information above)

d)

a positive

107.

If inflation and nominal interest rates move more closely together over time than they did in earlier periods, this would ______ the volatility of the real interest rate movements over time.

a)

increase

b)

have no effect on

c)

decrease

d)

have an effect, which cannot be determined with above information, on

108.

Canada and the U.S. are major trading partners. If Canada experiences a major increase in economic growth, it could place ____ pressure on Canadian interest rates and _____ pressure on U.S. interest rates.

a)

upward; upward

b)

upward; downward

c)

downward; downward

d)

downward; upward

109.

If investors shift funds from stocks into bank deposits, this ______ the supply of loanable funds, and places ______ pressure on interest rates.

a)

decreases; upward

b)

decreases; downward

c)

increases; downward

d)

increases; upward

110.

When Japanese interest rates rise, and if exchange rate expectations remain unchanged, the most likely effect is that the supply of loanable funds provided by Japanese investors to the United States will ____________, and the U.S. interest rates will ____________.

a)

decrease; increase

b)

increase; decrease

c)

increase; increase

d)

decrease; decrease

111.

Which of the following will probably not result in an increase in the business demand for loanable funds?

a)

a recession in the economy

b)

a reduction in business loan rates

c)

none of the above choices

d)

an increase in positive NPV projects

112.

If aggregate demand for loanable funds rises without a corresponding increase in aggregate supply, there will be a __________ of loanable funds.

a)

decrease; shortage

b)

increase; shortage

c)

increase; surplus

d)

decrease; surplus

113.

A __________ federal government deficit increases the quantity of loanable funds demanded at any prevailing interest rate, causing an __________ shift in the demand schedule.

a)

higher; inward

b)

higher; outward

c)

lower; outward

d)

none of the above

114.

Which statement is not true regarding foreign interest rates?

a)

Large fund flows between countries heighten sensitivity

b)

Strong dollar expectations draw funds to the U.S.

c)

Higher foreign rates encourage domestic investors abroad

d)

All of the above are true about foreign rates

115.

Which is least likely to affect household demand for loanable funds?

a)

all are equally likely to affect demand

b)

a decrease in tax rates

c)

an increase in interest rates

d)

a reduction in positive NPV projects

116.

Which statement is incorrect?

a)

By influencing rates, the Fed affects borrowing/spending

b)

Fed policy affects loanable funds supply and rates

c)

All of the above statements are true

d)

Fed policy aims to control U.S. economic conditions

117.

At any point in time, households and businesses demand a greater quantity of loanable funds at lower interest rates.

a)

False

b)

True

118.

Business demand for funds from short‑term investments is inversely related to the number of projects and inversely to the interest rate.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Other things equal, a smaller quantity of U.S. funds would be demanded by foreign entities if their domestic rates were high relative to U.S. rates.

a)

False

b)

True

120.

If foreign interest rates fall, foreign firms and governments would likely reduce their demand for U.S. funds.

a)

False

b)

True

121.

Aggregate demand for loanable funds is positively related to interest rates at any point in time.

a)

True

b)

False

122.

In general, suppliers of loanable funds are willing to supply more funds if the interest rate is higher.

a)

False

b)

True

123.

If aggregate demand for loanable funds increases without a corresponding increase in aggregate supply, there will be a surplus of loanable funds.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

The relationship between interest rates and expected inflation is often referred to as the loanable funds theory.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

According to the Fisher effect, if the real interest rate is zero, the nominal rate must equal the expected inflation rate.

a)

False

b)

True

126.

To forecast interest rates using the Fisher effect, the real interest rate for an upcoming period can be forecasted by subtracting expected inflation from the nominal rate quoted for that period.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

According to the Fisher effect, when inflation is lower than anticipated, the real interest rate is relatively low.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Forecasters should consider future corporate expansion plans and the future state of the economy when forecasting business demand for loanable funds.

a)

False

b)

True

129.

The __________ suggests that the market interest rate is determined by factors that control the supply of and demand for loanable funds.

a)

none of the above

b)

Fisher effect

c)

loanable funds theory

d)

real interest rate

130.

Which factor would most likely increase business demand for loanable funds?

a)

A decrease in investment opportunities

b)

A rise in recession expectations

c)

A reduction in interest rates

d)

A fall in positive NPV projects

131.

Foreign demand for U.S. funds rises when foreign domestic rates are ______ relative to U.S. rates, leading to a ______ quantity demanded.

a)

lower; larger

b)

higher; smaller

c)

higher; larger

d)

lower; smaller

132.

Federal government demand for funds is often described as interest ______, meaning ______ to interest rates.

a)

elastic; sensitive

b)

inelastic; insensitive

c)

neutral; moderately sensitive

d)

volatile; highly sensitive

133.

If aggregate demand for loanable funds increases without a matching rise in aggregate supply, the market will face a ______ of loanable funds.

a)

glut

b)

equilibrium

c)

shortage

d)

surplus

134.

An expansion by businesses generally causes an ______ shift in the demand schedule and ______ in the supply schedule.

a)

inward; outward

b)

outward; inward

c)

outward; no obvious change

d)

inward; inward

135.

Which expression correctly represents the Fisher effect relationship among nominal rate, expected inflation, and real rate?

a)

i = E(INF) + i_R

b)

i_R = E(INF) + i

c)

E(INF) = i + i_R

d)

i = i_R − E(INF)

136.

The real interest rate can be forecast by subtracting the ______ from the ______ for a period.

a)

prime rate; nominal interest rate

b)

nominal interest rate; expected inflation rate

c)

prime rate; expected inflation rate

d)

expected inflation rate; nominal interest rate

137.

Under the Fisher effect, expectations of higher inflation lead savers to require a ______ nominal interest rate on savings.

a)

lower nominal interest rate

b)

higher nominal interest rate

c)

higher real interest rate

d)

lower real interest rate

138.

A larger federal deficit tends to increase the quantity of loanable funds demanded at any prevailing rate, causing an ______ shift in the demand schedule.

a)

higher; outward

b)

higher; inward

c)

none of the above

d)

lower; outward

139.

In general, securities with ______ characteristics will offer ______ yields.

a)

favorable; higher

b)

favorable; lower

c)

unfavorable; lower

d)

none of the above

140.

Default risk is likely to be highest for which of the following?

a)

insured bank deposits

b)

short-term Treasury securities

c)

AAA corporate securities

d)

long-term Treasury securities

141.

Within loanable funds theory, an outward shift in supply most likely results from which policy action?

a)

Expansionary monetary policy

b)

Increase in reserve requirements

c)

Contractionary monetary policy

d)

Higher discount rate by the central bank

142.

When business investment opportunities decline, the demand for loanable funds will most likely:

a)

become perfectly elastic

b)

remain unchanged

c)

shift outward

d)

shift inward

143.

If expected inflation rises while real rates stay constant, what happens to nominal interest rates by the Fisher relation?

a)

They become unrelated to inflation

b)

They stay exactly unchanged

c)

They increase by the inflation change

d)

They decrease by the inflation change

144.

Some financial institutions such as commercial banks are required by law to invest only in

a)

junk bonds

b)

investment-grade bonds

c)

corporate stock

d)

Treasury securities

145.

Credit ratings are most commonly used to indicate which financial institutions have available funds that they can lend to borrowers.

a)

False

b)

True

146.

If a security can easily be converted to cash without a loss in value, it

a)

is illiquid

b)

has high default risk

c)

has a high after-tax yield

d)

is liquid

147.

Securities that offer _______ liquidity will offer a _________ yield to be preferred.

a)

higher; higher

b)

lower; lower

c)

lower; higher

d)

B and C

148.

If all other characteristics are similar, ______ would have to offer ______.

a)

taxable securities; a higher after-tax yield than tax-exempt securities

b)

taxable securities; a higher before-tax yield than tax-exempt securities

c)

tax-exempt securities; a higher after-tax yield than taxable securities

d)

tax-exempt securities; a higher before-tax yield than taxable securities

149.

Assume an investor’s tax rate is 25 percent. The before-tax yield on a security is 12 percent. What is the after-tax yield?

a)

16.00 percent

b)

9.25 percent

c)

3.00 percent

d)

9.00 percent

150.

An investor’s tax rate is 30 percent. What must the before-tax yield on a security be to have an after-tax yield of 11 percent?

a)

7.7 percent

b)

15.71 percent

c)

none of the above

d)

130 percent

e)

11.00 percent