wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

HAZMAT Response Overview and Initial Actions

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement best distinguishes Response Level I from Level II in HAZMAT incidents?

a)

Level II is handled only by outside agencies

b)

Level I has minimal danger and localized impact

c)

Level II never involves calling 911 under any condition

d)

Level I requires mutual aid and off‑shift support

2.

An organization should internally designate which roles before a HAZMAT event?

a)

Response Team

b)

HazMat Team Leader

c)

Finance Director

d)

Incident Commander

3.

What is the most appropriate first step when responding to a spill?

a)

Deploy booms and dikes first

b)

Stop the leak before any assessment

c)

Assess the risk and identify the problem

d)

Don PPE and approach immediately

4.

Which sequence reflects the typical spill response order?

a)

Stop, protect, assess, confine

b)

Confine, assess, protect, stop

c)

Protect, assess, stop, confine

d)

Assess, protect, confine, stop

5.

Which example fits Response Level I characteristics?

a)

Large tank rupture spreading offsite

b)

Multiple packages leaking with community impact

c)

Minor spill under fifty‑five gallons

d)

IDLH atmospheric release across plant

6.

For Level I incidents, which resource posture is appropriate?

a)

On‑shift ERT without mutual aid

b)

No internal team involvement at all

c)

Immediate community response only

d)

Full off‑shift recall and mutual aid

7.

What distinguishes a small spill from a large spill in this context?

a)

Large only from many tiny droplets

b)

Small always immediately dangerous to life

c)

Large only from toxic materials

d)

Small from small package or small leak

8.

Which condition indicates Response Level III is appropriate?

a)

Minimal risk to public health and environment

b)

Problem confined to a single workstation

c)

Minor vapor release in transfer operations

d)

Crisis incident requiring 911 and community response

9.

Which protective action is recommended before attempting to confine a spill?

a)

Get proper PPE for responders

b)

Stop the leak regardless of hazards

c)

Call off‑shift mutual aid first

d)

Build permanent dikes around facility

10.

Which tools are appropriate for confining a spill on site?

a)

Office fans for ventilation

b)

Temporary dikes and berms

c)

Pigs and absorbent booms

d)

Permanent concrete walls

11.

What is a potential consequence of delaying action during the first thirty minutes of a spill?

a)

Escalation from housekeeping issue to EPA disaster

b)

Guaranteed elimination of all hazards onsite

c)

Immediate closure of the entire community

d)

Automatic upgrade to Level II without assessment

12.

Which resource posture best matches Response Level II?

a)

Single operator with basic PPE and mop kits

b)

Federal incident command with disaster declaration

c)

Multi-organizational response with public safety agencies

d)

On-shift and off-duty ERT, mutual aid units

13.

Which example aligns with Response Level III characteristics?

a)

Process unit fire or explosion impacting beyond plant

b)

Large spill fire limited to floating roof tank seal

c)

Release over 100 gallons contained within plant fence

d)

Odor complaint resolved by routine ventilation crew

14.

For Response Level III, which resource activation is expected?

a)

Plant EOC activated with multi-organizational response

b)

Plant EOC on standby without external agencies

c)

Corporate EOC only, no plant or public units

d)

No EOC, handled by shift supervisor only

15.

Place the initial HazMat site control steps in correct order.

a)

Identify a HazMat Team Leader

b)

Assign a security officer for access control

c)

Establish an isolation perimeter

d)

Establish staging areas

16.

Which scenario justifies selecting PPE Level A during a HazMat incident?

a)

Unknown substance with possible vapor inhalation

b)

Known irritant with measured low concentration

c)

Nonhazardous spill confined to solid materials

d)

Airborne contaminant monitored as nonpersistent

17.

Which equipment combination best characterizes Level A protection?

a)

Sealed suit with hood, SCBA

b)

Coveralls with boots and safety glasses

c)

Tyvek suit, SCBA, double gloves

d)

Full-face air-purifying respirator only

18.

Level A suits are described as how, relative to ambient temperature during use?

a)

Approximately 20–30 degrees hotter

b)

No temperature difference expected

c)

Cooler due to active ventilation

d)

Slightly cooler by five degrees

19.

Which item is typically part of Level A ensemble?

a)

Half-mask air-purifying respirator

b)

Disposable paper coveralls only

c)

Fully encapsulating chemical protective suit

d)

Steel-toe boots without suit integration

20.

For Level B, what protection priority is emphasized?

a)

Highest respiratory protection, lesser skin/eye

b)

Equal skin, eye, and respiratory protection

c)

Minimal respiratory, maximal skin coverage

d)

No respiratory protection, eye-only

21.

Which respirator is appropriate for Level B operations?

a)

Powered air-purifying respirator only

b)

Half-mask air-purifying respirator

c)

SCBA or positive-pressure supplied air

d)

No respirator required for Level B

22.

Which clothing matches Level B PPE?

a)

Nonchemical cotton overalls only

b)

Simple street clothing with safety vest

c)

Fully encapsulating vapor-tight suit

d)

Chemical splash clothing with coveralls

23.

When is Level C appropriate during a response?

a)

Unknown hazards with potential vapor

b)

No hazard present at the site

c)

Airborne substance known and measured

d)

Dermal hazards require encapsulation

24.

Select the correct Level C respiratory equipment.

a)

Self-contained breathing apparatus only

b)

No respirator, face shield only

c)

Full-face or half-mask air-purifying respirator

d)

Supplied-air airline with escape SCBA

25.

Which clothing is consistent with Level C PPE?

a)

Chemical resistant coveralls and hood

b)

Fully encapsulating suit with SCBA

c)

Tyvek only without gloves

d)

Street clothes plus safety glasses

26.

Which items are noted as optional for Level A ensembles?

a)

Steel-toe, chemical resistant boots

b)

Underwear, cotton long-john type

c)

Two-way intrinsically safe radio

d)

Hard hat under suit

27.

Which statement best differentiates Level D from higher levels?

a)

Encapsulating suit with supplied air

b)

Air-purifying respirator plus hood

c)

Basic work clothing with minimal PPE

d)

Splash suit with SCBA protection

28.

Before choosing Level B on initial site entry, what must occur subsequently?

a)

Further identification by monitoring and sampling

b)

Immediate downgrade to Level D clothing

c)

Stop work until wind speed decreases

d)

Switch to half-mask respirator regardless

29.

Which PPE component is consistently associated with respiratory protection at Levels A and B?

a)

SCBA or supplied air with escape

b)

Air-purifying cartridge respirator

c)

No respirator, face shield only

d)

Paper mask for nuisance dust

30.

Which statement best defines the Hot Zone during a hazardous materials incident?

a)

Perimeter separating public from operations

b)

Area immediately surrounding the release

c)

Area with command post and control functions

d)

Area for decontamination support activities

31.

What condition is typically associated with the atmosphere in the Hot Zone?

a)

Usually IDLH environment

b)

Generally below IDLH threshold

c)

Ventilated and climate controlled

d)

Consistently safe for unprotected entry

32.

Which description correctly characterizes the Warm Zone?

a)

Public crowd-control perimeter

b)

Exclusion area with highest hazards

c)

Clean area for command operations

d)

Limited access area for decontamination

33.

Which description correctly characterizes the Cold Zone?

a)

Clean area housing command post

b)

Limited access area for decon

c)

Immediate area around the release

d)

Public staging perimeter line

34.

What is the isolation perimeter in hazard control operations?

a)

Inner cordon around the Warm Zone

b)

Boundary of the decon corridor

c)

Primary barrier within Hot Zone

d)

Crowd-control line around control zones

35.

Who is responsible for all entry operations within the Hot Zone?

a)

Resource Officer

b)

Entry Officer

c)

Medical Officer

d)

Decontamination Officer

36.

Which action is part of the Entry Officer’s responsibilities?

a)

Provides technical medical assistance

b)

Acquires needed supplies and equipment

c)

Establishes decon area before entry

d)

Implements offensive and defensive actions

37.

Which task falls under the Entry Officer’s role during emergencies?

a)

Monitors effectiveness of decon

b)

Documents all supplies expended

c)

Sets crowd-control perimeter line

d)

Directs rescue operations in Hot Zone

38.

Which coordination is expected of the Entry Officer?

a)

Coordinates only with Resource Officer

b)

Coordinates exclusively with law enforcement

c)

Coordinates solely with command post

d)

Coordinates with Decon, Information, Medical

39.

What is the purpose of the back-up team associated with entry operations?

a)

Administrative unit to log equipment

b)

Secondary team to manage supplies

c)

Safety team to extract entry team

d)

Public information team for media

40.

Which responsibility belongs to the Decontamination Officer?

a)

Determine level of decon to provide

b)

Ensure proper decon procedures

c)

Coordinate decon with Entry Officer

d)

Provide post-entry medical monitoring

e)

Acquire supplies and equipment

41.

Which action must be completed before any entry personnel enter the Hot Zone?

a)

Establish a Decon Area

b)

Brief the media liaison

c)

Set the isolation perimeter

d)

Activate backup medical team

42.

Which duties are part of Decontamination Officer oversight?

a)

Control personnel in Decon Area

b)

Direct public crowd control

c)

Monitor effectiveness of operations

d)

Coordinate transfer of deconned patients

e)

Lead command post in Cold Zone

43.

Where is the Medical Officer typically located during operations?

a)

Public staging perimeter

b)

Warm Zone decon corridor

c)

Cold Zone command post

d)

Entry Team dressing area

44.

Which functions are performed by the Medical Officer?

a)

Pre- and post-entry monitoring

b)

Emergency treatment for injured

c)

Procurement of supplies

d)

Technical assistance on incident care

e)

Establishing decon corridors

45.

Which responsibilities are assigned to the Resource Officer?

a)

Direct rescue within Hot Zone

b)

Acquire needed supplies and equipment

c)

Provide emergency medical treatment

d)

Determine level of decon to provide

e)

Document supplies and equipment expended

46.

Which definition distinguishes a small spill from a large spill during HazMat response?

a)

Small package or small leak

b)

Decon corridor contamination

c)

Multiple containers involved

d)

Any release inside Hot Zone

47.

A chlorine leak is contained but still off-gassing slowly; nearby residents are mostly in sturdy homes and evacuation routes are limited. What protective option is most appropriate initially?

a)

Partial evacuation of unaffected areas only

b)

No action until cloud fully dissipates

c)

Shelter-in-place with sealing and monitoring

d)

Immediate full evacuation of all zones

48.

Which factors most directly influence the decision to evacuate versus shelter-in-place during a HazMat incident?

a)

Degree of health hazard

b)

Weather effects on plume movement

c)

Responder training hours

d)

Population location and density

49.

A tanker releases a high-toxicity vapor moving rapidly with shifting winds. Buildings are lightweight and time is short. Which action best reduces exposure risk?

a)

Resume normal activity with caution

b)

Immediate evacuation along upwind routes

c)

Shelter-in-place in the nearest structure

d)

Delay while conducting more sampling

50.

Hands-on practice is emphasized in HazMat response primarily because it enables responders to do what?

a)

Memorize more chemical names quickly

b)

Execute PPE, decon, and cleanup correctly

c)

Avoid the need for formal procedures

d)

Rely solely on computer plume models

51.

Which element is NOT a core component of HazMat response operations highlighted in the material?

a)

Cleanup procedures

b)

Emergency taxation policies

c)

Decontamination processes

d)

Personal protective equipment use

52.

When evaluating the threatened population, which considerations matter for protective option selection?

a)

Number of people affected

b)

Time available to move or seal

c)

Preferred communication platform

d)

Building types and availability

53.

Containment status of the material affects protective choices because it impacts which aspect most directly?

a)

Rate of gas or vapor movement

b)

Responder payroll schedules

c)

Historical incident statistics

d)

Public relations messaging

54.

In what year was the HAZWOPER standard enacted?

a)

1982

b)

1986

c)

1990

d)

1996

55.

Which are key elements required by HAZWOPER? Select all that apply.

a)

Training of employees

b)

Organization and written programs

c)

Medical surveillance

d)

Vendor certification of equipment

56.

First responders at the awareness level are expected to do which action during a hazardous release?

a)

Recognize and initiate appropriate notifications

b)

Take offensive measures to stop the release

c)

Perform specialized decontamination procedures

d)

Direct technicians in specific technical areas

57.

How many hours of training are typically required for first responders at the operations level?

a)

8 hours

b)

24 hours

c)

4 hours

d)

16 hours

58.

Which statement best characterizes the operations-level responder’s posture during an incident?

a)

Defensive posture to protect without stopping release

b)

Medical posture to conduct health screenings

c)

Offensive posture to stop the release

d)

Administrative posture to document the incident

59.

HazMat Technicians who actually stop the release typically require how many hours of initial training?

a)

8 hours

b)

40 hours

c)

16 hours

d)

24 hours

60.

HazMat Specialists who support technicians in specific areas typically require how many hours of training?

a)

24 hours

b)

8 hours

c)

40 hours

d)

32 hours

61.

Hazardous Waste Operations Workers at cleanup sites generally need how many hours of training?

a)

32 hours

b)

16 hours

c)

40 hours

d)

24 hours

62.

Incident commanders under HAZWOPER must have which combination of competencies?

a)

Technician-level only without leadership training

b)

Same as operations-level plus area-specific competence

c)

Awareness-level only with field experience

d)

Specialist-level only without refresher requirements

63.

What is the minimum annual refresher training required under HAZWOPER?

a)

6 hours annually

b)

4 hours annually

c)

8 hours annually

d)

12 hours annually

64.

Which policy is consistent with HAZWOPER regarding participation without training?

a)

Participation allowed during low-risk incidents

b)

Participation prohibited without required training

c)

Participation allowed with supervisor approval

d)

Participation allowed if wearing PPE only

65.

Which components should be included in HAZWOPER written programs? Select all that apply.

a)

Employee training outlines

b)

Organizational roles and responsibilities

c)

Medical surveillance procedures

d)

Property insurance requirements

66.

Which statement best distinguishes permanent, semi-permanent, and remote EOCs?

a)

Permanent rely solely on mobile trailers for deployment

b)

Remote are purpose-built structures for seasonal use

c)

Semi-permanent rotate staff without changing equipment

d)

Permanent are fixed facilities with enduring infrastructure

67.

What is the primary reason for controlled access to an EOC room?

a)

Allow visitors to observe incident response

b)

Ensure comfort for staff during long shifts

c)

Reduce noise from radios and televisions

d)

Protect sensitive information and operations continuity

68.

Which item is an essential communication capability for an EOC?

a)

Multiple unlisted phone lines and radio system

b)

Public address system in hallways

c)

Single public hotline and loudspeakers

d)

Personal cell phones for all responders

69.

Which mapping resources support situational awareness inside an EOC?

a)

Tourist guides and parking maps

b)

Aerial photos from past events only

c)

Neighborhood restaurant delivery maps

d)

Community maps and a facility map

70.

Which reference materials should be accessible in an EOC?

a)

Emergency plans for the site

b)

Technical manuals such as shutdown procedures

c)

Safety Data Sheets (SDSs)

d)

Media press kits for publicity

71.

Cable television in an EOC most directly supports which function?

a)

Entertainment for on-duty personnel

b)

Broadcasting internal briefings to the public

c)

Timely access to news and weather updates

d)

Replacing radio communications during storms

72.

Which phone directories should be compiled for EOC operations?

a)

Company personnel contacts

b)

Mutual aid partners such as fire and police

c)

Local Emergency Management Agency numbers

d)

Vendor marketing departments

73.

Which entities commonly provide governmental support contacts for an EOC?

a)

Local school boards overseeing classrooms

b)

State departments such as DEP

c)

Environmental and safety regulators like EPA and OSHA

d)

Tourism bureaus coordinating visitors

74.

Which locations can be quickly converted into a functional remote EOC?

a)

Outdoor amphitheaters without utilities

b)

Private training rooms or school classrooms

c)

Hotel lobbies open to the public

d)

Warehouse loading docks during business hours

75.

In the Nichol Mines incident, what capability demonstrated effective EOC establishment within hours?

a)

Utilizing an Incident Command System to organize response

b)

Deploying a permanent facility with full infrastructure

c)

Broadcasting live updates via public television

d)

Closing all phone lines to prevent outside calls

76.

Which items are called out in the EOC setup summary checklist?

a)

Controlled entry and computers with web access

b)

Recreational amenities and public tours

c)

Emergency communications and news/weather access

d)

Blueprints and community maps

77.

Which factor should be prioritized when determining emergency response needs for a facility?

a)

Employee satisfaction survey results

b)

Vendor contract renewal timelines

c)

Capability of public services and building hazards

d)

Historical incident media coverage trends

78.

A facility with limited in-house expertise is deciding on resources. Which approach aligns with available options?

a)

Temporary contractors for twice-yearly drills

b)

Outside resources only such as police and ambulance

c)

Consultants for annual audits only

d)

Regional mutual aid without formal agreements

79.

Which in-house emergency resource focuses on early-stage fires before they grow?

a)

Incipient-stage fire brigade

b)

Confined space rescue team

c)

Interior structure fire brigade

d)

Hazardous materials responders

80.

Which team specializes in responding to hazardous materials spills within a facility?

a)

Hazardous materials spill responders

b)

Confined space rescue team

c)

Interior structure fire brigade

d)

First aid responders team

81.

OSHA presents two fundamental options for handling industrial fires. Which pairing reflects them accurately?

a)

Evacuate or shelter-in-place

b)

Evacuate using outside resources or train all employees to respond

c)

Train supervisors or outsource suppression

d)

Call 911 or activate mutual aid only

82.

Which consideration may discourage forming in-house teams despite their benefits?

a)

No training programs exist

b)

OSHA bans industrial teams

c)

Lack of community interest

d)

Initial costs are high to establish

83.

Which statement best differentiates interior structure fire brigades from incipient-stage brigades?

a)

Incipient brigades specialize in hazardous materials decontamination

b)

Interior brigades fight advanced structural fires inside buildings

c)

Incipient brigades conduct quarterly advanced live-fire trainings

d)

Interior brigades only provide first aid and evacuation support

84.

Which training cadence is correctly matched to the fire brigade type?

a)

Interior structure brigade requires quarterly training

b)

Incipient-stage brigade requires quarterly training

c)

Interior structure brigade requires annual training only

d)

Fire brigade members require monthly training minimum

85.

Which items belong in a written emergency program required for fire brigades and response teams?

a)

Policy statement documenting intent

b)

Organizational chart showing roles

c)

Specify number of team members

d)

Training requirements for team members

e)

Supplier invoices and tax records

86.

Which element is NOT typically part of the written program for emergency teams?

a)

Training requirements and team size

b)

Policy statement and org chart

c)

Teams functions and responsibilities

d)

Quarterly financial profit targets

87.

For emergency medical considerations, which option aligns with typical facility planning?

a)

Relying solely on police response

b)

Prohibiting ambulance use entirely

c)

Eliminating medical supplies storage

d)

On-site first aid responders availability

88.

How should a facility classify a serious incident requiring employee action and possible external assistance?

a)

Response Level II

b)

Response Level III

c)

Response Level I

d)

Response Level 0

89.

Which response level indicates a crisis incident primarily managed by community responders through 911?

a)

Level II serious incident

b)

Level I incident

c)

Level III crisis incident

d)

Level IV catastrophic incident

90.

What is the main purpose of an OSHA Emergency Action Plan for a facility?

a)

Comply with OSHA EAP requirements and prepare an effective plan

b)

Eliminate the need for training and drills

c)

Increase marketing visibility for safety programs

d)

Reduce insurance premiums without action

91.

Which practices strengthen an Emergency Action Plan beyond mere compliance?

a)

Conducting training and drills regularly

b)

Preparing procedures that exceed minimums

c)

Ignoring 1910.34 coverage and definitions

d)

Aligning with OSHA Subpart E provisions

92.

Which combination best describes utilization of public services in emergency planning?

a)

Human resources, finance, marketing, and sales

b)

Fire, HazMat, Ambulance, and Police capabilities

c)

Community volunteers without formal training

d)

Vendors, auditors, trainers, and insurers

93.

Which statement correctly describes handling of Response Level I incidents?

a)

Handled in-house by employees

b)

Always requires 911 and evacuation

c)

Managed by police exclusively

d)

Requires mutual aid and federal support

94.

When assessing emergency response needs, which resource model is also recognized besides outside services?

a)

In-house employees only or a combination model

b)

Untrained volunteers only model

c)

Insurance-led response model

d)

Remote telehealth-only model

95.

Which OSHA standard specifically governs Emergency Action Plans (EAP)?

a)

1910.36 Design of exit routes

b)

1910.165 Alarm systems

c)

1910.38 Emergency action plans

d)

1910.120 HAZWOPER response

96.

An employer’s Emergency Action Plan must meet which availability requirement?

a)

Shared with local media

b)

Kept in HR files only

c)

Available to employees

d)

Accessible to visitors

97.

When can an employer with a very small workforce communicate the plan verbally instead of in writing?

a)

If there are ten or fewer employees

b)

Only during evacuation drills

c)

When the alarm is inoperable

d)

If contractors are present on site

98.

Which OSHA standard sets the requirements an alarm system must comply with?

a)

1910.38 EAP

b)

1910.165 Alarm systems

c)

1910.36 Exit routes

d)

1910.39 Fire prevention

99.

Which characteristic is required of an EAP alarm signal?

a)

Lower than ambient sound

b)

Distinctive and recognizable

c)

Digitally encrypted tones

d)

Requires automatic detection

100.

Which pairing best describes redundancy requirements for EAP alarm systems?

a)

Analog and digital

b)

Primary and backup

c)

Local and remote

d)

Audible and visual only

101.

Which regulation primarily covers Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response relevant to EAP integration?

a)

1910.1050 MDA

b)

1910.35 NFPA compliance

c)

1910.272 Grain handling

d)

1910.120 HAZWOPER

102.

Which items are core elements that an EAP must include?

a)

Accounting for personnel

b)

Emergency reporting methods

c)

Evacuation procedures and routes

d)

Equipment maintenance schedules

e)

Visitor parking assignments

103.

Which actions are part of the reporting procedures during an emergency?

a)

Post incident on social media

b)

Call 911

c)

Activate the fire alarm

d)

Notify a supervisor

e)

Wait for instructions before reporting

104.

In an evacuation, what is the correct initial action for employees?

a)

Wait for supervisor

b)

Finish current task

c)

Leave immediately

d)

Collect personal items

105.

After evacuating, where should employees proceed and remain?

a)

Nearest parking lot

b)

Designated assembly area

c)

Employee cafeteria area

d)

Security office lobby

106.

Which statement best reflects the practical limitation of evacuation diagrams?

a)

They eliminate the need for drills

b)

Most people won’t consult them during emergencies

c)

Diagrams are required by federal law everywhere

d)

They replace all training needs

107.

Which categories must be accounted for during personnel accounting?

a)

Contractors

b)

Visitors

c)

Vendors offsite

d)

Shareholders

e)

Employees

108.

Which EAP role is explicitly called out among plan elements?

a)

Union representative

b)

Facilities janitorial lead

c)

Chief financial officer

d)

Person responsible for the EAP

109.

Which shutdown consideration is most critical when halting operations during an emergency?

a)

Continue processes that cannot be allowed to safely continue

b)

Stop anything that cannot be instantly stopped

c)

Ignore processes that can safely run unattended

d)

Evaluate the impact of utilities being turned off

110.

Which duty best describes evacuation assistants during an incident?

a)

Deactivate alarm company service plans

b)

Conduct building structural inspections

c)

Coordinate vendor contract renewals

d)

Search designated areas for remaining occupants

111.

Which special task focuses on immediate medical needs during an evacuation?

a)

First aid and medical assistance team

b)

Traffic flow observation team

c)

Public relations spokesperson team

d)

Utility shutoff coordination team

112.

Who should receive EAP training when the plan is developed or updated?

a)

Only evacuation assistants and floor wardens

b)

External vendors with no site access

c)

New employees joining the organization

d)

All employees with plan responsibilities

113.

When should EAP training be conducted besides initial onboarding?

a)

Only after an actual emergency happens

b)

Whenever responsibilities change for personnel

c)

Every five years regardless of changes

d)

Only during quarterly financial reviews

114.

Which statement about EAP drills is most accurate?

a)

Not required but essential to effectiveness

b)

Required by all jurisdictions universally

c)

Optional and generally discouraged for safety

d)

Useful only for new employee orientation

115.

What is the primary purpose of conducting drills periodically?

a)

To replace formal training for all employees

b)

To test and practice the plan in realistic ways

c)

To meet marketing and public relations goals

d)

To evaluate financial efficiency of vendors

116.

Which emphasis leads to better drill outcomes?

a)

Secrecy rather than transparency

b)

Silence rather than clear communication

c)

Speed rather than careful evaluation

d)

Effectiveness rather than sheer speed

117.

Which activities should be part of a well-managed drill process?

a)

Plan the drill ahead of time

b)

Revise the plan based solely on rumors

c)

Critique the drill after completion

d)

Use observers to capture findings

118.

How frequently should drills be held at minimum?

a)

Only after major construction projects

b)

Only once every five years

c)

Every month without exceptions

d)

At least annually for all sites

119.

Which coordination step is appropriate before running a drill?

a)

Notify the alarm company and Fire Department

b)

Disable all alarms to avoid confusion

c)

Avoid informing any external agencies

d)

Announce drills only to senior executives

120.

Which qualities define an effective Emergency Action Plan?

a)

Complex and exhaustive to impress auditors

b)

Includes clear liaison with responders

c)

Brief and accurate in content

d)

Useful and simple in application

121.

Which preparation helps protect people outside during an emergency?

a)

Develop communication with inbound people

b)

Coordinate with incoming responders

c)

Prioritize office décor and aesthetics

d)

Plan for weather and traffic conditions