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WorksheetsLecture 8 Pharm
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
A patient is admitted to a medical unit and prescribed IV ampicillin/sulbactam after a specimen was sent for culture and sensitivity (C&S) from the ED. The nurse knows the priority reason for notifying the prescriber of culture results as soon as they are available is that ampicillin/sulbactam
is a broad-spectrum antibiotics, and there may be an effective narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
is a narrow-spectrum antibiotics and may not be effective for the cultured organism.
is a very expensive antibiotics.
has many more adverse effects than most other antibiotics.
Which patient would most likely have an infection that is resistant to antibiotics therapy?
A child who has a weak immune system
An adult who developed a wound infection while in the hospital after surgery
An adult construction worker who drinks from a worksite water supply and develops giardiasis
An order adult who got an infected knife cut
Which infection would be classified as a superinfection?
Tuberculosis in a patient with chronic bronchitis
Monilial vaginal infection that develops during antibiotic therapy
COVID outbreak after injection with COVID vaccine
Peritonitis that develops after surgery for a ruptured appendix
Which are not valid reasons for prescribing combinations of antibiotics?
Severe adverse effects
Cases of infection with pneumonia
Results of C&S indicate multiple organisms sensitive to different drugs are present
Results of the C&S indicate multiple drugs are effective
Which is an acceptable reason for giving antibiotic prophylaxis?
Before cardiac surgery
Whenever the patient has a cold
Before examination of the eyes where dilating drops are instilled
When patient experiences pinkish or pinkish-red nasal discharge
Which assessment is of greatest priority for the nurse to complete before administering penicillin antibiotics?
Temperature
Allergy history
eGFR
Urine output
Parents ask why their son has been prescribed amoxicillin and clavulanate if amoxicillin has been ineffective in the past. The nurse’s response is based on the addition of clavulanate?
provides additional activity to disrupt the bacterial cell wall.
aids the penicillin in attaching to microbial penicillin-binding proteins.
affects a narrow spectrum of bacteria.
prevents penicillinase from activating the amoxicillin.
What does the nurse do when assisting with skin testing for penicillin allergy?
Be aware that the rest carries little risk of a local reaction.
Make respiratory support and epinephrine available.
Instruct the patient how to assess for a local reaction during the following week.
Be aware that the test involves injection of a small amount of penicillin under the skin.
The nurse would be concerned about the increased possibility of an allergic reaction when administering which antibiotic if the patient’s allergy record includes penicillin allergy?
Vancomycin
Azithromycin
Ampicillin/sulbactam
Tetracycline
Which is the drug of choice for MRSA?
Ampicillin
Vancomycin
Nafcillin
Tylenol
Which result would be of greatest priority to report to the prescriber of cefotaxime?
International normalized ratio (INR) 1.2
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 157 IU/L
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 48 mL/min
Which result would be of greatest priority to report to the prescriber of ceftriaxone?
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL and hematocrit 27%
Albumin 3.4 g/dL
INR 1
eGFR 88 mL/min
An alert and oriented patient with a history of penicillin allergy is prescribed cefixime. Which is the priority intervention for the nurse?
Assess the type of reaction that the patient had to the penicillin.
Notify the prescriber of the allergy and ask for a different antibiotic order.
Administer the cefixime and carefully assess for allergic reaction.
Administer the cefixime.
Cefazolin has been prescribed at discharge for a patient with pelvic inflammatory disease. Due to the possibility of a disulfiram-like reaction, during discharge teaching it is important for the nurse to teach the patient to avoid consuming what?
Antacids
Alcohol
Acetaminophen
Aspirin
Ceftriaxone 1 g intramuscular is ordered for a 130 lb woman. The drug is reconstituted to a solution of 250 mg/mL. How should the nurse administer it?
1 mL each in the right and left vastus lateralis and deltoid muscles
2mL each in the right and left deltoid muscle
2mL each in the right and left ventrogluteal muscles
4 mL in the right or left gluteus maximus muscle
A patient who was admitted with severe abdominal pain has been diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori- associated peptic ulcer. Tetracycline 500 mg, metronidazole 250 mg, and bismuth subsalicylate 524 mg have been prescribed 4 times a day. The nurse notes that the patient’s 24-hour fluid intake has been approximately 2500 mL and urine output has been 600-800 mL for each of the past 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Withhold the medication and continue nursing care.
Withhold the medication and notify the prescriber of the changes.
Administer the medications and continue nursing care.
Administer the medications and report the changes.
Tetracycline can cause esophageal ulceration. What can the nurse teach to minimize the risk of this adverse effect?Tetracycline can cause esophageal ulceration. What can the nurse teach to minimize the risk of this adverse effect?
Stay upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
Take with food.
Take in the morning.
Take at bedtime.
A patient is prescribed a tetracycline antibiotic. Which patient information is a reason for the medication to be withheld by the nurse and the prescriber consulted?
Patient is a 12 y/o child
Theophylline for asthma is also prescribed.
Patient has an allergy to penicillin.
Pregnancy status of patient is unknown.
The nurse providing education on which drug would well the patient they can take the drug with or without food, as absorption is not reduced by food?
Doxycycline
Demeclocycline
Tetracycline
Minocycline
Because of the risk of prolonged QT interval and torsades de pointes, the nurse would consult the prescriber before administering erythromycin to a patient who has experienced
Constipation
Unexplained fainting
Nausea
Frequent headaches
What is the priority nursing action before administering an aminoglycoside to a patient with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 50 ml/min?
Compare prescribed dose to recommended dose.
Assess liver function tests.
Assess peak levels of the drug.
Ask the patient if he or she has had a dizziness.
When aminoglycosides are prescribed IV as a once daily dose to adult patient, it is important to monitor trough levels
30 minutes after infusion
30 minutes before next dose
1 hour after infusion
1 hour before next dose.
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving gentamicin twice a day. Peak and trough levels were drawn after the fourth dose. Results were peak 4 mcg/mL and trough 0.6 mcg/mL. What should the nurse do?
continue nursing care
consult with prescriber
withhold medication
administer additional dose
Which of these laboratory tests would be a priority for the nurse to assess when a patient is receiving an aminoglycoside?
Blood Glucose
INR
Creatinine
RBC
A patient received a neuromuscular blocking agent during surgery. In the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU), the prescriber orders gentamicin 40 mg IV STAT. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
Clarify order.
Assess pt's VS
Administer drug ASAP.
Refuse to administer drug.
Which signs would most likely indicate the start of Stevens-Johnson syndrome when a patient is receiving sulfonamides?
Pruritic rash on shoulders
Papular rash on lower arms
Amber-colored, crusty rash on cheeks
Blisters in the mouth
Sulfonamides can cause the adverse effect of kernicterus. How does this present?
Neurologic defects in neonates caused by deposition of bilirubin in the brain
Inability of the bone marrow to produce blood cells
Unusual sensitivity to sunlight
Damage to the kidney tubules by crystals in the urine
A patient who takes glyburide for type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) is prescribed trimethoprim sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ) for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Because of the possibility of intensifying the effect of glyburide, the nurse should assess for
dehydration
paresthesias and abdominal cramps
bleeding and bruising
sweating and irritability
Which international normalized ratio (INR) result would be a reason to contact the provider in a patient with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin who has also been prescribed sulfonamide?
3
3.5
2
2.5
Because of the risk of hyperkalemia when prescribed trimethoprim, it is a priority for the nurse to teach the patient to report which symptom?
Weakness
Cramping
Pallor
Sore throat
The nurse is caring for a patient who has repeated episodes of UTIs (caused by E. coli) treated with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP/SMZ). What is the priority action to prevent recurrence of infection?
Assessing for sore throat and fever
Carefully wiping from front to back during perineal care
Encouraging fluid intake
Offering cranberry juice.
A female patient has been prescribed an antibiotic for 3 days. What is not an advantage of shorter course therapy?
Treatment of upper urinary tract involvement such as pyelonephritis
Less potential for antibiotic resistance
Fewer adverse effects
Greater likelihood of patients completing therapy as prescribed.
A prescriber’s orders for a new admission include urine culture and sensitivity and ciprofloxacin 400 mg intravenously (IV) every 12 hours. Which is the priority nursing intervention?
Obtain VS
Mix the antibiotic in correct IV solution
Obtain the urine culture specimen before administering the antibiotic
Calculate the drip rate for the IV infusion
A patient is receiving 50mg of nitrofurantoin at bedtime for prophylaxis of recurrent cystitis. This means that the patient
Has a UTI caused by a resistant microorganism
Is taking high doses of the drug because the pt cannot get rid of the infection.
Is taking low doses of the drug to prevent reinfection
Is taking low doses of the drug to prevent relapse
What is true about nitrofurantoin?
They have few adverse effects
Therapeutic levels are achieved only in urine
They are first-line agents for pyelonephritis
They are not absorbed from the GI tract.
A male patient who has been diagnosed with active TB has been prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide. The patient asks the nurse why he must take so many drugs. The basis of the nurse’s response should include that this multidrug therapy has which effect?
Elimination of actively dividing and dormant TB mycobacteria
Prevention of mycobacteria from developing resistance to a drug
Lead to superinfection
Decreased adverse effects
A male patient asks the nurse why he must continue to take medication after completion of the initial induction phase if his sputum is “clean”. Which would be an appropriate nursing response?
This therapy is in case the patient encounters the person who originally infected him.
Sputum cultures are not specific for mycobacterium.
Sputum cultures are not sensitive enough to ensure that the active bacteria are eliminated.
Dormant bacteria are still present inside cells and can become active later.
An HIV-infected patient who is receiving drug therapy, including delavirdine and saquinavir, is diagnosed with an active TB infection. Because of the drug interaction that decreases the effect of these drugs for HIV infection, this patient should not be prescribed which drug?
Isoniazid
Ethambutol
Rifampin
Pyrazinamide
A nurse is receiving isoniazid therapy for latent TB. It would be of greatest priority to contact the prescriber if the nurse experiences
Dry mouth
Persistent nausea
Chest pain
Frontal headache
It is of greatest priority to teach a patient who is prescribed ethambutol to
take the drug on an empty stomach with or without food.
contact the prescriber if experiencing any visual changes.
call the prescriber if experiencing nausea.
take the drug with food if it causes upset stomach.
The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous ciprofloxacin to a patient with septic arthritis after arthroscopic surgery. It would be a priority to review which diagnostic test result as soon as it is available?
X-ray
CT scan
Urinalysis
Culture and Sensitivity
All patients are risk for developing tendon rupture when prescribed a fluoroquinolone. Which patient has an increased risk?
Patients who are prescribed calcium supplements for osteopenia
Older adult patients
Patient who are prescribed iron for anemia
Patients who frequently take antacid for heartburn
A consulting urologist orders ciprofloxacin 250 mg twice a day for a 72-year-old woman with a UTI. The patient is also receiving ferrous sulfate 300mg for anemia and calcium carbonate 400 mg 4 times a day for osteopenia. Which action should the nurse implement?
Administer ciprofloxacin 2 hours after other medications.
Administer ciprofloxacin 1 hour before other medications.
Hold ferrous sulfate and calcium during ciprofloxacin therapy.
Consult with the prescriber for directions.
Which goal is most appropriate when a patient is prescribed metronidazole for Clostridium difficile?
Soft, formed stool
Clear lung sounds
Temperature within normal limits
No burning on urination
The nurse is preparing to administer daptomycin. When should the nurse withhold the medication and contact the prescriber?
If the patient is diagnosed with methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) of the skin.
If the patient’s INR is 1.8.
If peak and trough plasma levels have not been ordered.
If the patient reports sudden severe muscle pain.
At what point is the patient most likely to experience fever, chills, rigor, nausea, and headache when receiving amphotericin B?
3-6 hours after the infusion begins
1-3 hours after the infusion begins
20-30 minutes after the infusion begins
Immediately after the infusion begins
A patient experiences sudden onset shaking chills after receiving a dose of amphotericin B. Which drug, ordered as needed for this patient, should the nurse administer?
Dantrolene
Diphenhydramine
Acetaminophen
Lorazepam
The nurse is reviewing laboratory tests before preparing to administer a dose of amphotericin B. Before administering the drug, it is a priority to review which lab result?
ECG
ALT
Creatinine
WBC
The nurse is reviewing test results for a patient who is prescribed itraconazole. Which result would warrant immediate consultation with the prescriber?
Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
Echocardiogram: ejection fraction 60%
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 35 IU/L
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) 745 pg/mL
The nurse reviews the complete blood count (CBC) of a patient who is prescribed flucytosine and notes neutrophils 27%. This patient is especially at risk for which issue? (Typically, normal range of neutrophil is 50 to 70% of WBC)
Hypovolemia
Weakness
Impaired skin integrity
Infection
The nurse is preparing to administer intravenous acyclovir. It could be a priority for the nurse to provide nursing interventions for which assessment finding?
Dry, sticky oral mucous membranes
BP 150/85 mmHg
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Eight-hour urine output 1440 mL
The nurse would withhold ganciclovir and notify the prescriber if patient laboratory test results included
platelets 75,000/mm3
blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 20 mg/dL
human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) 2775 mIU/mL
neutrophils 2000/mm3
The nurse is discussing planned care with the certified nursing assistant (CNA), who is assigned to a patient receiving ganciclovir. Because of possible serious adverse effects, which precaution would the nurse include in instructions regarding care?
Use an electric razor to shave the patient.
Turn and reposition the patient every 2 hours.
Raise all four side rails.
Do not provide any food 1 hour before or 2 hours after drug administration.
It is important for the nurse to assess for suicidal ideation if a patient is prescribed which drug?
Interferon alfa
Tetracycline
Rifampin
Ganciclovir
Which assessment finding would be of greatest priority to report to the prescriber if identified in a patient who is receiving lamivudine for hepatitis B because it suggests possible lactic acidosis?
Fever
Deep, rapid breathing
Poor apetite
Diarrhea
The prescriber has informed a patient who has been prescribed a nucleoside/nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) of the risk of hepatic steatosis. The patient asks the nurse “What is hepatic steatosis?” The nurse should explain that this is a possible severe adverse effect involving
fatty degeneration of the liver.
increased secretions of glands.
stools that are foamy and float.
infection of the liver.
Which nursing assessment would be most significant if a patient was receiving didanosine?
Diarrhea
Flatulence
Vomiting
Nausea
An HIV-positive patient who has recently been prescribed efavirenz calls the prescriber’s office and reports experiencing drowsiness and dizziness. An appropriate recommendation by the telephone triage nurse is for the patient to do what?
Use safety precautions and take efavirenz with food.
Use safety precautions and take efavirenz at bedtime.
Discontinue taking efavirenz but continue the other drugs in the regimen.
Discontinue all drugs and make an appointment to be seen as soon as possible.
It would be of greatest priority to consult the prescriber of enfuvirtide if the patient experienced
Positive pregnancy test
Fever
Reactions at injection site
weakness and tingling in extremities.
A patient who is HIV-positive is receiving maraviroc, reports to the nurse that he has vomited and is experiencing severe abdominal pain. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
Withhold the maraviroc and contact the prescriber.
Withhold all prescribed drugs and contact the prescriber.
Withhold all food and fluids until the source of the abdominal pain is identified.
Obtain an order for diphenhydramine for the itching.
Why would doxycycline not be prescribed for a female patient for whom pregnancy status is unknown?
It causes nausea.
It can cause congenital anomalies.
It is nephrotoxic.
It is not effective 50% of the time.
A patient who is receiving intramuscular ceftriaxone 250 mg once, plus azithromycin 1g by mouth for disseminated gonococcal infection complains of a stiff neck. Which of these nursing actions should be performed first?
Consult the prescriber.
Document the findings.
Complete the nursing assessment.
Assess the history of arthritis.
A 35-year-old woman report a yellow-green vaginal discharge. She is diagnosed with trichomoniasis and prescribed metronidazole. It is important for the nurse to teach the patient the importance of not consuming
Cranberry juice
Cheese
Antacid
Alcohol
Why does long-acting clindamycin cream require only one vaginal dose to treat bacterial vaginosis?
The cream adheres to the vaginal mucosa for several days.
The medication immediately kills the infecting microbes.
Clindamycin has a half-life of several days.
Bacterial vaginosis is not a serious infection.
What is the major goal of therapy with acyclovir for genital herpes?
Prevention of superinfections during outbreaks
Eradication of the virus
Decreasing length of active episodes
Analgesia
Which is an example of sterilization?
Gowning before entering a room where a patient is in protective isolation
Personal respiratory equipment for TB
Contact precautions
Autoclaving surgical instruments
To ensure effectiveness of ethyl alcohol as an antiseptic, the nurse should do what?
Use a gel that prolongs evaporation of the alcohol
Use alcohol with a concentration greater than 75%
Use alcohol in combination with other antimicrobial agents.
Apply the alcohol directly to open wounds after medicating the patient for pain.
When the nurse is preparing to clean a wound, which preparation would be most appropriate and effective?
Iodine solution
Iodine tincture
Povidone-iodine
Glutaraldehyde
What is the surgical scrub that is fast-acting and antibacterial and remains active on the skin after rinsing?
Povidone-iodine
Hexachlorophene
Chlorhexidine
Benzalkonium chloride
The nursing professor is orienting student nurses to the intensive care unit. Hygiene instructions should include which directive?
All forms of jewelry are not allowed.
Alcohol sanitizer should be used when the hands are visibly dirty.
Trim natural nails to no more than one-half inch beyond the fingertip.
Do not wear artificial nails.
