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APES Unit 3 test review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 3hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A metropolitan region of 100,000 people has 2000 births, 500 deaths, 200 emigrants, and 100 immigrants over a 1-year period. Its population growth rate is

a)

1.2 percent.

b)

1.4 percent

c)

1.6 percent.

d)

1.8 percent.

e)

2.0 percent.

2.

Which of the following pairs of indicators best reflects the availability of health care in a country?

a)

Crude death rate and growth rate

b)

Crude death rate and crude birth rate

c)

Growth rate and life expectancy

d)

Infant mortality rate and life expectancy

e)

Infant mortality rate and crude death rate

3.

Which of the following statements about total fertility rate is correct

a)

TFR is equal to the crude birth rate minus the crude death rate.

b)

TFR is the average number of children each woman must have to replace the current population.

c)

TFR is generally higher in developed countries than in developing countries

d)

TFR is equal to the growth rate of a country

e)

TFR is the average number of children each woman will give birth to during her childbearing years.

4.

Even if a country reduces its birth rate and maintains replacement-level fertility, its population will still continue to grow for several decades because of

a)

lower death rates

b)

increased income.

c)

population momentum

d)

better health care.

e)

increased life expectancy.

5.

At current growth rates, which country will probably be the most populous in the world after 2050?

a)

China

b)

Brazil

c)

India

d)

Indonesia

e)

United States

6.

Which of the following countries best exemplifies phase 4 of a demographic transition?

a)

Argentina

b)

China

c)

India

d)

Mexico

e)

Japan

7.

Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in

a)

7 years

b)

10 years

c)

17 years

d)

15 years

e)

not enough information to tell

8.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

9.

A particular country has a Total Fertility Rate equal to replacement level fertility and emigration equal to immigration. Which of the following must be true?

a)

The population will begin shrinking within ten years, based on the Rule of 70.

b)

The population must be stable.

c)

The population will begin growing as soon as TFR = 2.1.

d)

Infant mortality must also be less than Crude Death Rate.

e)

There is not enough information to tell.

10.

What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Limiting Factors

c)

Immigration

d)

Exponential Growth

11.
What does the graph represent?
a)
Emigration
b)
Exponential growth
c)
Immigration
d)
Logistic Growth
12.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
13.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

14.

A population is...

a)

All members of one species in one area

b)

All members of all species that live in one area

c)

All of the living and nonliving things in an area

d)

None of these

15.
Which factor is a density-dependent limiting factor on the population of a species?
a)
seasonal variation
b)
natural disasters
c)
unusual weather
d)
predation
16.

What is happening at the 'A' on the graph?

a)

the population overshoots above the carrying capacity

b)

the population stops growing

c)

growth begins to slow down due to limited resources

d)

growth is speeding up due to an abundance of resources

17.
To measure population density, you must divide the number of individuals living in a defined space by the
a)
area of the space
b)
birth and death rates
c)
carrying capacity
d)
height of the space
18.
Nesting birds often space themselves evenly from other nests. This pattern is called
a)
clumped dispersion.
b)
uniform dispersion.
c)
random dispersion
d)
scatter dispersion
19.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
20.
__________ growth shows growth of a population under environmental constraints (carrying capacity-K) that sets a maximum population size 
a)
logistic
b)
exponential
c)
niche
d)
uniform
21.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
22.
J-Shaped curves
a)
show a decline after an increase
b)
display populations that have reached carrying capacity
c)
represent exponential growth
d)
does not depend on the numbe rof resources
23.

Two male Giraffes are fighting over the last green leaf of a tree that is dying.

a)

Intraspecific Competition

b)

Mutualsim

c)

Predation

d)

Commensalism

e)

Interspecific Competition

24.
Represents the biotic potential of the species
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
25.
Which is true about a population's carrying capacity?
a)
it is denoted as "C"
b)
it is usually used when studying ecosystems
c)
it depends on a limiting resource
d)
it is controlled by density-independent factors
26.
Which population is typically regulated by density-independent factors?
a)
algae
b)
predators
c)
Paramecium bacteria
d)
birds
27.
Which does NOT have a significant effect on the number of offspring produced by a population?
a)
population distribution
b)
sex ratio
c)
age structure
d)
population size
28.
population growth using the exponential growth model
a)
increases at a constant rate
b)
applies to most populations only after a long time
c)
has an increasing intrinsic growth rate
d)
represents ideal conditions that rarely occur in natural populations
29.
An r-selected species characteristically has
a)
a type I survivorship curve
b)
few offspring
c)
a population near carrying capacity
d)
a fast population growth rate
30.
Which is true of a population overshoot?
a)
it occurs when reproduction quickly responds to changes in food supply
b)
it is followed by a die-off
c)
it is most likely to be experienced by K-selected species 
d)
it rarely occurs in species with type III survivorship curves
31.

Identify two main contributors for the dramatic increase in the world population over the last century.

a)

increased access to birth control

b)

development of modern medicine

c)

increased immigration

d)

introduction of the Industrial Revolution

32.

According to the graph, what can have the greatest impact on reducing global TFR?

a)

increasing access to healthcare

b)

increasing access to immigration

c)

women empowerment

33.

What is a group of organisms of one species that lives in the same area at the same time.

a)

community

b)

group

c)

population

d)

habitat

34.

What is the maximum number of individuals of one species that the environment can support?

a)

overload capacity

b)

top capacity

c)

population

d)

carrying capacity

35.
What is the carrying capacity of the following graph?
a)
1000
b)
8000
c)
800
d)
600
36.

When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?

a)

Continues to grow

b)

The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity

c)

The population will go extinct due to lack of resources

37.

Which one is an effect of rural exodus?

a)

Overcrowded cities

b)

People eat better in rural areas

c)

There are more jobs in rural areas

38.

What is the dispersion pattern of herding animals, birds that flock together, and fish that form schools?

a)

clumped

b)

random

c)

uniform

d)

unpredictable

39.

Which factor would be considered density independent?

a)

an intestinal parasite

b)

a fatal virus

c)

a severe drought

d)

severe overcrowding

40.

Which factor would be considered density dependent?

a)

competition

b)

drought

c)

water quality

d)

pH of the soil

41.

What is the horizontal line on the graph called?

a)

exponential growth

b)

geometric growth

c)

carrying capacity

d)

straight-line growth

42.

If angel fish produce hundreds of young several times a year, which statement below is true?

a)

Angelfish have a k-strategy reproductive pattern

b)

Angelfish have an r-strategy reproductive pattern

c)

Angelfish probably have a low mortality rate

d)

Angelfish provide a lot of care for their young

43.

The size, density, and birth and death rates of human population are studied during

a)

age structure graphs

b)

demography

c)

exponential growth

d)

k strategist reproduction

44.

Type III survivorship is characterized by

a)

extremely high juvenile mortality

b)

mortality that is not age dependent

c)

most mortality occurring among the elderly

d)

most juveniles surviving to a critical age

45.

What term refers to the number of males and females in various reproductive age groups?

a)

age structure

b)

carrying capacity

c)

reproductive dispersal

d)

birth rates

46.
The highest natural increase rates are found in countries in which stage of the demographic transition model (DTM)?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
47.
The lowest crude birth rates (CBRs) are found in countries in which stage of the DTM?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
48.
The highest CDRs are found in countries in which stage of the DTM?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
49.
The population pyramid of Naples, Florida, is "upside down," because the city has a large percentage of:
a)
infants.
b)
females.
c)
elderly people.
d)
young people.
50.
Which section would see exponential population growth?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
51.
The intrinsic growth rate of a population:
a)
directly affects environmental resistance.
b)
causes changes in birth rates without affecting death rates
c)
causes changes in death rates without affecting birth rates.
d)
is the maximum rate at which a population may increase.
52.
Use Figure 7-1.  Population A would most likely be in which stage of demographic transition?
a)
Pre-Industrial
b)
Transitional
c)
Industrial
d)
Post-Industrial
53.
A country with an age distribution like that shown in the figure above, is most likely a country that
a)
Is expecting rapid growth
b)
Is experiencing slow or no population growth
c)
Is experiencing a high death rate
d)
Is a less-developed country
54.
The graph on the right best represents which country?
a)
USA
b)
Mexico
c)
Nigeria
d)
India
55.
Use Figure 10-1.  Urban populations increased approximately ____% from 1950 to 2000.
a)
3
b)
8
c)
40
d)
68
56.
The most critical factor in controlling human population growth is
a)
controlling reproductive lifespan.
b)
decreasing the age of first birth.
c)
decreasing the average number of births per woman.
d)
decreasing infant death.
57.
Which of the following characteristics are typical of r-selected species?
I. They produce many offspring in a short period of time.
II. They have very low survivorship early in life.
III. They take a long time to reach reproductive maturity.
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
III only
d)
I and II
58.
Use Figure 7-1.  Population A is most likely:
a)
rapidly growing
b)
rapidly declining
c)
stable or close to stable
d)
going to decline in a few decades
59.
According to the theory of demographic transition, countries move through growth phases in which order?
a)
stable growth, rapid growth, slow growth, declining growth
b)
rapid growth, slow growth, stable growth, declining growth
c)
slow growth, declining growth, rapid growth, stable growth
d)
slow growth, rapid growth, stable growth, declining growth
60.
Refer to the diagram of the survivorship curve.
Which curve best describes an organism that invests a lot of energy in parenting?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
this is not a survivorship curve
61.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
62.
A certain plant needs moisture, carbon dioxide, oxygen, light, and minerals to survive. This scenario shows that this particular living organism depends on .
a)
Biotic and Abiotc Factors
b)
Biotic Factors 
c)
Abiotic Factors 
d)
None of the Above
63.
An example of a population is
a)
all trees in a forest
b)
all maple trees in a forest
c)
all plants in a forest
d)
all animals in a forest
64.
World population growth will eventually stop when
a)
the population reaches 9 billion
b)
most countries have replacement level fertility rates
c)
most countries have higher death rates
d)
the worldwide infant mortality rate increases
65.
Which of the following is NOT a strategy that could slow population growth?
a)
public advertising 
b)
economic incentives
c)
 legal punishments
d)
limiting education for women
66.
If the death rate of a population is greater than the birthrate, the population decreases.
a)
True
b)
False
67.
Exponential growth is slow and gradual.
a)
True
b)
False
68.
A group of different species that live together and interact in an environment are called a/an ________.
a)
community
b)
habitat
c)
population
d)
ecosystem
69.
If a population grows larger than the carrying capacity of the environment, the
a)
death rate may rise
b)
birth rate may rise
c)
death rate must fall
d)
birth rate must fall
70.

What would promote a high Total Fertility Rate (TFR)?

a)

Elimination of tax benefits for families with more than two children

b)

Free public housing to families with more than two children

c)

Government advocacy of abstinence to discourage teen pregnancy

71.

What is an invasive species?

a)

An organism that is new to an environment that has positive effects on the environment.

b)

An organism that is native to an environment that has negative effects on the environment.

c)

An organism that is new to an environment that has negative effects on the environment.

d)

An organism that is native to an environment that has positive effects on the environment.

72.

Introduced species can become pests because they;

a)

Produce only a few young after a long period of gestation.

b)

Inhabit only niches that have recently become available after the local extinction of another species.

c)

Can live in many niches, easily adapting to many variables and eating a wide variety of food.

d)

Have a low genetic variability, enabling them to live in a wide variety of habitats.

e)

Increase biodiversity because they attract more species to the areas in which they settle.

73.

Which of the following are ways that an invasive species may enter an aquatic ecosystem?

I. Releasing the ballast water of ships.

II. Dumping household aquariums into lakes.

III. Escaping a coastal aquaculture farm.

a)

I only.

b)

II only.

c)

III only.

d)

I and II only.

e)

I,II, and III.

74.

Presently, the biggest threat to biodiversity is;

a)

Asteriod strikes, such as what happened 65 million years ago and resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs.

b)

Human population growth, because as population increases, so does the number of plants and animals it consumes, resulting in a decrease of those organisms.

c)

Habitat destruction, such as cutting down portions of tropical rain forest, which destroys the niches occupied by tropical organisms.

d)

The proliferation of zoos and botanical gardens, causing causing people to care less about preserving species in the wild because they are being cared for those in sanctuaries.

e)

Climate change, because it will result in many species moving northward or to higher elevations, seeking out suitable new habitats.

75.

Which of the following is least likely a cause of a species becoming endangered?

a)

Introduction of invasive species

b)

Selective breeding in zoos

c)

Overhunting

d)

Habitat destruction

e)

Pollution

76.

The depleation of the world's marine fish stocks due to overfishing is an example of;

a)

The sustainable use of resources.

b)

The competitive exclusion principle.

c)

The failure of international treaties.

d)

The eminent domain principle.

e)

The tragedy of the commons.

77.

Are all non-native plants classified as invasive?

a)

yes

b)

no

78.

The difference between most non- native plants and non-native invasive plants is that invasive plants

a)

are always in your business and driving past your house.

b)

have been brought to an ecosystem by humans

c)

cause environmental, economic or human harm.

d)

grow in between the rows in your garden

79.

Which sentence is correct?

a)

Invasive plants often have no pests or predators in their new ecosystem.

b)

Invasive plants have many pests and predators in their new ecosystem.

80.

In addition to competing for food/nutrients, space, and water, what other impact can invasive species have on native species?

a)

Cost billions to the economy

b)

Preventing recreation

c)

Cause infrastructure damage

d)

Introducing exotic diseases and parasites

81.

Illegal hunting for profit is called

a)

sport hunting.

b)

poaching.

c)

commercial hunting.

d)

subsistence hunting.

82.

Fragmented habitat can be reconnected most directly by

a)

wildlife corridors

b)

captive breeding programs

c)

debt for nature swaps

d)

prescribed burns

83.
An endangered species is
a)
One whose numbers are so small that it is at risk of extinction
b)
One whose not been spotted after many years.
c)
One whose numbers are abundant.
84.

Choose the option that expresses the definition the best.

"Logging, mining, building of roads, and urban development."

a)

Habitat destruction,degradation, and fragmentation.

b)

Invasive (nonnative species).

c)

Population and resource use growth.

d)

Greenhouse effect.

e)

Overexplotation.

85.

Areas that have been set aside for the protection of threatened or endangered species and their habitats are known as;

a)

National parks.

b)

National zoos

c)

National wildlife refuges.

d)

National recreation areas.

e)

National forest reserves.

86.

Which of the following is not linked to Endangered species?

a)

K-Strategist

b)

Specialized niche

c)

rare

d)

commercially valuable

e)

R-Strategist

87.

The "6th mass extinction" is Anthropogenic which means.

a)

cause by man

b)

cause by aliens

c)

caused by a meteor storm

d)

caused by a volcano

88.
What does conserving resources mean?
a)
Use as much of the resources as you can
b)
Only use the resources at school
c)
Protecting the resource so it does not run out
89.
Scientists think people have directly caused the extinction of some species through ______________.
a)
habitat destruction
b)
poaching
c)
pollution
d)
All of these
90.
what is the leading cause of deforestation?
a)
Diseases 
b)
Housing market
c)
Agriculture and Farming
d)
Paper mill
91.

Which is a possible consequence of the destruction of a marsh?

a)

decreased flooding

b)

decreased filtering of water

c)

increased types of plant life

d)

increased habitat for organisms

92.

Which could increase the amount of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere?

a)

planting trees in areas that have been deforested

b)

reducing the use of gasoline-powered vehicles

c)

burning coal to produce electricity

d)

creating wind farms in desert areas

93.

Which is the most common contamination source for freshwater resources?

a)

runoff

b)

digging wells

c)

melting of glaciers

d)

lightning

94.

How could the removal of trees and other vegetation impact an environment?

a)

by increasing oxygen production

b)

by increasing soil formation

c)

by increasing transpiration

d)

by increasing erosion

95.

Which can lead to the depletion of the ozone layer of Earth?

a)

coal-fired power plants

b)

vehicle exhaust

c)

burning compost

d)

aerosols

96.

Which pair of biogeochemical cycles are most associated with inorganic fertilizer and sewage waste?

a)

Carbon and Nitrogen cycles

b)

Carbon and Sulfur cycles

c)

Phosphorus and Nitrogen cycles

d)

Sulfur and Nitrogen cycles

e)

Sulfur and Water cycles

97.

A forest has a GPP of 3.8 kilograms C/m^2/year and the rate of cellular respiration is 2.4 kilograms C/m^2/year. What is the NPP?

a)

6.2 kg C/m^2/year

b)

1.4 kg C/m^2/year

c)

1.0 kg C/m^2/year

d)

9.12 kg C/m^2/year

e)

1.58 kg C/m^2/year

98.

Most energy on Earth comes from

a)

volcanoes

b)

the sun

c)

trees

d)

water

e)

fire

99.

A positive feedback loop

a)

is when feedback into a system increases a rate of response

b)

is when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response

c)

may be seen in some examples of population growth

d)

both a and c

100.

Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem

a)

Herbivores --> producers --> carnivores --> scavengers

b)

Producers --> herbivores--> carnivores --> scavengers

c)

Producers --> carnivores --> herbivores--> carnivores

d)

Scavengers--> carnivores --> herbivores--> producers

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