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Healthcare and Safety Multiple Choice Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Standard precautions are designed to protect healthcare workers from:

a)

Only blood

b)

All body fluids except sweat

c)

Sweat and tears only

d)

Only airborne pathogens

2.

The correct order of donning PPE is:

a)

Gloves, Mask, Gown, Goggles

b)

Gown, Mask/Respirator, Goggles/Face Shield, Gloves

c)

Mask, Gloves, Gown, Goggles

d)

Goggles, Gloves, Mask, Gown

3.

The normal adult heart rate range is:

a)

30–50 bpm

b)

60–100 bpm

c)

110–140 bpm

d)

140–200 bpm

4.

What is the first link in the chain of infection?

a)

Susceptible host

b)

Portal of entry

c)

Infectious agent

d)

Mode of transmission

5.

Which organization regulates workplace safety?

a)

CDC

b)

OSHA

c)

FDA

d)

NIH

6.

Which type of fire extinguisher is used for electrical fires?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class K

7.

In phlebotomy, the most common vein used for venipuncture is:

a)

Basilic vein

b)

Femoral vein

c)

Median cubital vein

d)

Radial vein

8.

A pulse oximeter measures:

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Blood glucose

c)

Respiratory rate

d)

Oxygen saturation

9.

A healthcare worker’s uniform should be:

a)

Wrinkled to allow airflow

b)

Neatly pressed and clean

c)

Stylish and loose fitting

d)

Bright to distract patients

10.

The term “ethics” refers to:

a)

Laws passed by government

b)

Rules of proper conduct and moral judgment

c)

Insurance billing procedures

d)

Hospital policy only

11.

Hand hygiene should occur:

a)

Only after patient contact

b)

Only before patient contact

c)

Before and after patient contact

d)

Only if hands look dirty

12.

A DNR order stands for:

a)

Do Not Respond

b)

Do Not Resuscitate

c)

Do Not Remove

d)

Do Not Record

13.

Which PPE item is removed first when doffing?

a)

Gown

b)

Mask

c)

Gloves

d)

Shoes

14.

EMS stands for:

a)

Emergency Management Services

b)

Emergency Medical Services

c)

Environmental Medical Support

d)

Emergency Monitor System

15.

A thermometer that goes in the ear is called:

4 lines
16.

Transmission via contaminated food is:

a)

Vector-borne

b)

Airborne

c)

Vehicle-borne

d)

Contact transmission

17.

Which law protects patient privacy?

a)

HIPAA

b)

OSHA

c)

FDA

d)

EPA

18.

The best characteristic of a healthcare worker is:

a)

Arrogance

b)

Empathy

c)

Selfishness

d)

Impatience

19.

Capillary puncture is typically done on the:

a)

Forearm

b)

Heel in infants

c)

Neck

d)

Ankle

20.

The normal respiratory rate for an adult is:

a)

5–8 breaths/min

b)

12–20 breaths/min

c)

25–40 breaths/min

d)

40–60 breaths/min

21.

PPE is primarily used to:

a)

Improve appearance

b)

Protect patients and healthcare workers

c)

Prevent dehydration

d)

Help with identification

22.

A patient who cannot legally give consent is:

a)

A. A mentally competent adult

b)

B. A conscious 30-year-old

c)

C. A minor

23.

Airborne precautions require:

a)

Standard surgical mask only

b)

N95 respirator

c)

No respirator needed

d)

No hand hygiene

24.

When lifting, EMS workers should:

a)

Bend at the waist

b)

Keep back straight and lift with legs

c)

Twist when lifting heavy loads

d)

Lift alone whenever possible

25.

The universal color for biohazard bags is:

a)

Yellow

b)

Green

c)

Red

d)

Blue

26.

When identifying a patient, use:

a)

Room number only

b)

A family member’s word

c)

Two patient identifiers

d)

Their first name only

27.

The gauge of the needle refers to:

a)

Length

b)

Thickness/bore size

c)

Sharpness

d)

Sterility

28.

What is the normal body temperature in Fahrenheit?

a)

96.8°F

b)

98.6°F

c)

100.4°F

d)

102.0°F

29.

Vector transmission involves:

a)

Touch

b)

Air

c)

Insects

d)

Water

30.

“Scope of practice” means:

a)

What you want to do

b)

Legally permitted procedures per training

c)

Anything a doctor asks you to do

d)

All patient requests

31.

Face shields protect:

a)

Only the nose

b)

Eyes, nose, and mouth

c)

Hands only

d)

Ears only

32.

A phlebotomist must label tubes:

a)

Before collection

b)

After leaving the room

c)

After collection but in presence of patient

d)

At the lab

33.

Tachycardia means:

a)

Slow heart rate

b)

Rapid heart rate

c)

No pulse

d)

Irregular breathing

34.

The Portal of Exit may include:

a)

Cuts

b)

Nose/mouth

c)

Urinary tract

d)

All of the above

35.

The EMT who drives the ambulance is called the:

a)

Incident commander

b)

Engineer

c)

Operator/driver

d)

Medical director

36.

A healthcare worker should demonstrate:

a)

Poor hygiene

b)

Dependability

c)

Dishonesty

d)

Negativity

37.

Sharps go in:

(a)  

38.

The carotid pulse is located:

a)

Wrist

b)

Neck

c)

Foot

d)

Chest

39.

Negligence is:

a)

Intentional harm

b)

Failure to provide expected care

c)

Ethical behavior

d)

Consent form

40.

When removing a gown:

a)

Pull over head

b)

Untie and roll inside-out

c)

Shake it

d)

Reuse it if clean

41.

The best method to prevent infection is:

a)

Wearing gloves only

b)

Hand hygiene

c)

Antibiotics daily

d)

Avoiding patients

42.

Normal oxygen Saturation (SpO₂) is:

a)

50–70%

b)

75–85%

c)

95–100%

d)

0–10%

43.

What container holds evacuated blood tubes?

a)

Specimen rack

b)

Tourniquet

c)

Sharps box

d)

Test tray

44.

EMS providers must follow:

a)

Protocols/standing orders

b)

Personal preferences only

c)

Hospital rules only

45.

Good communication skills include:

a)

Speaking only

b)

Listening and eye contact

c)

Ignoring patient concerns

d)

Rushing conversations

46.

Gloves should be changed:

a)

After every patient

b)

Only if torn

c)

Once per shift

d)

Never

47.

The diastolic BP reading represents:

a)

Heart contracting

b)

Heart relaxing

c)

No blood flow

d)

Irregular heartbeat

48.

Isolation signage is placed:

a)

In janitor’s closet

b)

On patient’s chart only

c)

At room entrance

d)

In nurse’s station

49.

“Informed consent” means the patient:

a)

Was forced to agree

b)

Understands and agrees to the procedure

c)

Doesn’t need explanation

d)

Signed without details

50.

EMS scene safety includes:

a)

Rushing into danger

b)

Looking for hazards

c)

Ignoring bystanders

d)

Leaving equipment behind

51.

Gloves are required when handling:

a)

Clean paperwork

b)

Bed linens without contamination

c)

Body fluids

d)

Television remote

52.

Too wide a BP cuff can give:

a)

False high reading

b)

False low reading

c)

No reading

d)

Unchanged reading

53.

When transporting sharps, they should be:

a)

Loose in pocket

b)

In approved containers

c)

Wrapped in paper

d)

In lab coats

54.

Confidentiality means:

a)

Sharing with family freely

b)

Sharing only with authorized personnel

c)

Posting online

d)

Discussing at lunch

55.

A person trained to draw blood is a:

a)

Dermatologist

b)

Phlebotomist

c)

Radiologist

d)

Cardiologist

56.

PPE used for droplet precautions:

a)

N95 respirator only

b)

Surgical mask

c)

No mask needed

d)

Ear plugs

57.

A patient with bradycardia has a HR:

a)

Below 60

b)

60–100

c)

100–140

d)

Above 200

58.

58. EMS “BSI” stands for:

a)

Basic Safety Instruction

b)

Body Substance Isolation

c)

Blood Safety Index

d)

Basic Scene Investigation

59.

A professional appearance means:

4 lines
60.

Best needle angle for venipuncture:

a)

90°

b)

45°

c)

15–30°

d)

5°

61.

The chain of infection is broken by:

a)

Poor hygiene

b)

Ignoring PPE

c)

Handwashing

d)

Touching face

62.

Respiratory rate should be counted:

a)

After telling the patient

b)

Without the patient’s awareness

c)

While laughing

d)

Only during exercise

63.

Laws that define authorized procedures per occupation:

a)

Implied consent

b)

Scope of practice

c)

Tort law

d)

Good Samaritan law

64.

The correct place for a tourniquet:

a)

Above the wrist

b)

3–4 inches above venipuncture site

c)

Around neck

d)

Around thumb

65.

Gloves are removed:

a)

Wrist first

b)

Inside-out

c)

By snapping fingers

d)

Reused later

66.

Vital signs include:

a)

Weight only

b)

Temp, pulse, respiration, BP

c)

Clothing type

67.

EMS should call for additional resources:

a)

When needed for safety

b)

Never

c)

Only after patient transport

d)

Only when doctor orders

68.

Ethical dilemma means:

a)

Easy decision

b)

Conflict between two ethical principles

c)

Legal violation

d)

No choices

69.

The most important PPE item for standard precautions:

a)

Boot covers

b)

Gloves

c)

Face shield

d)

Ear plugs

70.

If a patient refuses care:

a)

Treat anyway

b)

Respect refusal if patient is competent

c)

Force transport

d)

Ignore patient

71.

Anaphylaxis affects:

a)

Kidney only

b)

Respiratory and cardiovascular systems

c)

Finger joints

d)

Hair growth

72.

Best handwashing length:

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

20 seconds

d)

1 second

73.

Phlebotomy tubes are inverted:

a)

To mix additives

b)

To remove bubbles

c)

For no reason

d)

To break clot

74.

Good Samaritan laws protect:

a)

Trained providers only

b)

Off-duty responders acting in good faith

c)

Negligent behavior

d)

Criminal activity

75.

Oral temperature should not be taken when:

a)

Patient can follow instructions

b)

Patient just smoked

c)

Patient is awake

d)

Patient is not coughing

76.

Mode of transmission from coughing:

a)

Airborne or droplet

b)

Vehicle

c)

Indirect object only

d)

Sterile technique

77.

Duty to act for EMS applies:

a)

On-duty providers

b)

Off-duty anywhere

c)

Only in hospital

d)

When asleep

78.

Characteristics of a team player:

a)

A. Cooperation

b)

B. Complaining

c)

C. Blaming

d)

D. Avoiding work

79.

Yellow tube top typically indicates:

a)

Blood culture collection

b)

Glucose testing

c)

Coagulation testing

d)

Chemistry panel

80.

Tympanic temperature is taken:

a)

Under tongue

b)

In rectum

c)

Ear canal

d)

Forehead

81.

Disinfection kills:

4 lines
82.

Battery in healthcare is:

a)

Threatening someone

b)

Touching without permission

c)

Ethical procedure

d)

Professional demeanor

83.

The first step in any scene is:

a)

Treat the patient

b)

Scene safety

c)

Transport

d)

Get vital signs

84.

Sympathy means:

a)

Feeling sorry

b)

Understanding and sharing feelings

c)

Giving advice

d)

Ignoring feelings

85.

The bevel of a needle should face:

a)

Down

b)

Up

c)

Sideways

d)

Any direction

86.

Chain of custody applies to:

a)

Regular blood work

b)

Legal specimens

c)

Hair styling

d)

Insurance forms

87.

The systolic BP represents:

a)

Heart relaxing

b)

Heart contracting

c)

No blood flow

d)

Oxygen supply

88.

Isolation gowns protect:

a)

Arms and clothing

b)

Only hands

c)

Only ears

89.

Which ethical principle promotes honesty?

a)

Autonomy

b)

Fidelity

c)

Veracity

d)

Nonmaleficence

90.

EMS radio reports must be:

a)

Confidential and concise

b)

Long and detailed

c)

Shouted loudly

d)

Ignored

91.

A sign of infection:

a)

Redness

b)

Heat

c)

Swelling

d)

All of the above

92.

Needle recapping:

a)

Is prohibited unless safety device used

b)

Always OK

c)

Done often

d)

Required each time

93.

Good posture prevents:

a)

Fatigue and injury

b)

Communication

c)

Workspace

d)

Ethics

94.

HIPAA protects:

a)

Employee time off

b)

Patient health information privacy

c)

Food safety

d)

Building codes

95.

Body mechanics involve:

a)

Proper use of muscles

b)

Random lifting

c)

Bending at waist

d)

Quick jerks

96.

Gloves should be worn when touching:

a)

Intact skin only

b)

Non-intact skin or fluids

c)

A clean table

d)

Hair

97.

A sterile field must be:

a)

Touched by everyone

b)

Dry and uncontaminated

c)

On the floor

d)

Adjustable

98.

EMS triage meaning:

a)

Transport everyone first

b)

Prioritize based on severity

c)

Alphabetize patients

d)

Treat minor injuries only

99.

Vital signs are documented:

a)

Only at start of shift

b)

Every time required by policy

c)

Rarely

d)

Only for elderly

100.

The best way to build trust with patients:

a)

Breaking confidentiality

b)

Clear communication and respect

c)

Rushing care

d)

Ignoring concerns