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Psychology EOY Exam Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Describe the first stage in memory processing.

a)

Retrieval, where stored information is accessed

b)

Encoding, where information is transformed into a usable form

c)

Consolidation, where memories become stable during sleep

d)

Storage, where information is retained over time

2.

What did Hermann Ebbinghaus’ research tell us about memory and forgetting?

a)

Forgetting occurs rapidly at first and then levels off

b)

Forgetting happens at a constant, linear rate

c)

People remember lists better when items are unrelated

d)

Memory improves steadily without practice

3.

What is procedural memory? Choose the best example.

a)

Recognizing a face in a crowd

b)

Knowing how to ride a bicycle

c)

Recalling the plot of a novel

d)

Remembering the date of a friend’s birthday

4.

How can a deeper level of processing (for example, learning a word’s meaning versus learning just a list of words) help you remember things better?

a)

It increases the capacity of short-term memory only

b)

It creates stronger, more elaborate semantic connections

c)

It reduces interference by blocking new information

d)

It shortens the time needed for retrieval cues

5.

What is episodic memory? Choose the best example.

a)

Recognizing a familiar melody

b)

Recalling your first day of high school

c)

Knowing the definition of a vocabulary word

d)

Remembering how to type on a keyboard

6.

What is the difference between retrograde and anterograde amnesia?

a)

Retrograde occurs only during sleep; anterograde occurs only when awake

b)

Retrograde is the loss of memories formed before an injury; anterograde is difficulty forming new memories after an injury

c)

Retrograde affects procedural memory only; anterograde affects semantic memory only

d)

Retrograde is the loss of new memories; anterograde is the loss of old memories

7.

What did Mary Ainsworth’s Strange Situation research attempt to test?

a)

Children’s language acquisition

b)

Attachment styles between infants and caregivers

c)

Stages of moral reasoning

d)

Memory span in toddlers

8.

What is object permanence?

a)

Recognizing objects by their names

b)

Understanding that objects continue to exist when out of sight

c)

Remembering an object’s location only with cues

d)

Sorting objects by size and shape

9.

What are some criticisms of Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

a)

It measures behavior instead of reasoning

b)

It focuses too much on cultural diversity and not enough on universals

c)

It shows bias by focusing only on the development of men

d)

It overestimates the role of parents and underestimates peers

10.

What did Harry Harlow study?

a)

Language development in chimpanzees

b)

Operant conditioning in pigeons

c)

contact comfort

d)

Moral reasoning in adolescents

11.

What is contact comfort?

a)

The tendency to imitate a caregiver’s expressions

b)

The soothing tactile sensation that promotes attachment

c)

Preference for familiar sounds during sleep

d)

The need for consistent feeding schedules

12.

What is the rooting reflex in a baby?

a)

Grasping tightly when the palm is touched

b)

Turning the head toward a touch on the cheek and opening the mouth

c)

Kicking the legs when laid on the back

d)

Startling and flinging the arms outward

13.

What parenting style has been associated with children who are well-adjusted and socially competent?

a)

Permissive

b)

Authoritative

c)

Uninvolved

d)

Authoritarian

14.

Describe Piaget’s concrete operational stage of development.

a)

Children think intuitively and are egocentric without logical operations

b)

Children use multidimensional thinking and simple logic

c)

Children rely solely on reflexes and lack object permanence

d)

Children begin abstract reasoning and hypothetical thinking

15.

What is Piaget’s concept of conservation.

a)

Ability to use symbols to represent objects

b)

Understanding that quantity remains the same despite changes in shape or appearance

c)

Recognizing that objects continue to exist when unseen

d)

Mastery of deductive reasoning with abstract ideas

16.

What is shaping in psychology?

a)

Punishing incorrect responses to eliminate behavior

b)

Gradually reinforcing successive approximations toward a desired behavior

c)

Teaching by repeating the same stimulus without reinforcement

d)

Pairing a neutral stimulus with an unconditioned stimulus

17.

In classical conditioning, what is an unconditioned stimulus (UCS)?

a)

A learned response to a previously neutral stimulus

b)

A naturally occurring stimulus that elicits a reflexive response

c)

A learned trigger that elicits a response after conditioning

d)

A signal that predicts reinforcement in operant conditioning

18.

In classical conditioning, what is a conditioned stimulus (CS)?

a)

A reflexive response present at birth

b)

A previously neutral stimulus that elicits a response after being paired with a UCS

c)

A voluntary behavior followed by reinforcement

d)

A stimulus that naturally and automatically triggers a response

19.

In classical conditioning, what is an unconditioned response (UCR)?

a)

A voluntary behavior strengthened by reward

b)

An automatic, reflexive response to an unconditioned stimulus

c)

A learned response to a conditioned stimulus

d)

A decrease in response after repeated exposure

20.

In classical conditioning, what is a conditioned response?

a)

A response that fades without reinforcement

b)

A learned response elicited by the conditioned stimulus

c)

A reflexive response to an unconditioned stimulus

d)

A behavior shaped by successive approximations

21.

What does it mean when we say a conditioned stimulus has been extinguished?

a)

The CS triggers a different, unrelated reflex

b)

The CS now elicits a stronger response than before

c)

The CS no longer elicits the conditioned response after repeated presentation without the UCS

d)

The CS has become an unconditioned stimulus

22.

What must happen to the CR, CS, and UCS for extinction to occur?

a)

Remove the CS and present only the UCS repeatedly

b)

Present the CS repeatedly without the UCS so the CR diminishes

c)

Reward the CR intermittently while presenting the CS

d)

Pair the CS and UCS more frequently to strengthen the CR

23.

What happened in Ivan Pavlov’s experiments with dogs, and what did he call the process?

a)

Dogs barked at strangers after punishment; he called it operant conditioning

b)

Dogs learned to press levers for food; Pavlov called it shaping

c)

Dogs salivated to a bell after pairing it with food; he called it classical conditioning

d)

Dogs stopped salivating to food after many trials; he called it extinction burst

24.

Who is John B. Watson and what type of psychology did he develop?

a)

A psychoanalyst who focused on unconscious conflicts

b)

A behaviorist who promoted the idea of operant conditioning

c)

A humanistic psychologist who emphasized self-actualization

d)

A cognitive psychologist who studied memory models

25.

What is a learning predisposition?

a)

A learned reluctance to respond to overused stimuli

b)

A preference for reinforcement over punishment

c)

A natural or innate ability to learn something

d)

A tendency to forget new information faster than old information

26.

What is stimulus generalization?

a)

Responding only to the original conditioned stimulus and not to similar stimuli

b)

Responding similarly to stimuli that resemble the conditioned stimulus

c)

Learning that a behavior will not be reinforced

d)

Pairing the conditioned stimulus with a new unconditioned stimulus

27.

With what theory of learning are modeling and imitation associated?

a)

Operant conditioning

b)

Observational (social) learning

c)

Cognitive dissonance theory

d)

Classical conditioning

28.

Getting a reward after doing something is a form of what kind of conditioning?

a)

Latent learning

b)

Operant conditioning

c)

Habituation

d)

Classical conditioning

29.

What type of reinforcement schedule is most resistant to extinction?

a)

Variable interval

b)

Fixed interval

c)

Variable ratio

d)

Fixed ratio

30.

What is habituation in psychology?

a)

A learned fear response to a neutral cue

b)

A decrease in response after repeated exposure to a stimulus

c)

An increase in response to a repeated stimulus

d)

A sudden recovery of a conditioned response after rest

31.

What is the availability heuristic?

a)

Classifying objects by how well they match a prototype

b)

Judging likelihood based on how easily examples come to mind

c)

Using a step-by-step procedure that guarantees a solution

d)

Relying on the first piece of information encountered

32.

What is "metacognition?"

a)

Thinking about one’s own thinking processes

b)

The ability to solve problems without language

c)

A test of general intelligence

d)

Memory for personal life events

33.

What are algorithms? How are they different from heuristics?

a)

Algorithms are guesses based on intuition; heuristics are formal rules that always work

b)

Algorithms are step-by-step procedures that guarantee a solution; heuristics are quick strategies that do not guarantee one

c)

Algorithms are used only in math; heuristics are used only in language

d)

Algorithms are mental shortcuts; heuristics are slow and exhaustive searches

34.

What is "external locus of control?"

a)

Confidence in one’s ability to control events through effort

b)

Relying on external memory aids for recall

c)

The belief that outcomes are determined by outside forces such as luck or fate

d)

Attributing others’ behavior to internal traits

35.

What is the difference between convergent and divergent thinking?

a)

Convergent explores multiple possibilities; divergent demands one correct answer

b)

Convergent narrows to a single best answer; divergent generates many possible ideas

c)

Convergent occurs only in groups; divergent occurs only alone

d)

Convergent is creative and flexible; divergent is rule-bound and rigid

36.

What is "learned helplessness?"

a)

A sudden insight that solves a problem

b)

A passive resignation that develops after repeated uncontrollable events

c)

A tendency to imitate models who are rewarded

d)

An improvement in performance after practice

e)

A motivation to avoid failure rather than seek success

37.

According to Alfred Bandura, what is self-efficacy?

a)

The discrepancy between real and ideal self

b)

Belief in one’s capability to organize and execute actions to reach goals

c)

The tendency to attribute success to internal causes

d)

A person’s overall self-worth and esteem

38.

What are the id, ego, and superego?

a)

Learning styles that predict academic achievement

b)

Stages of psychosocial development across the lifespan

c)

Personality structures: id (primitive drives), ego (reality-oriented mediator), superego (internalized morals)

d)

Types of defense mechanisms used to cope with anxiety

39.

What is projection?

a)

Redirecting anger toward a safer target

b)

Attributing one’s own unacceptable impulses or feelings to others

c)

Justifying actions with socially acceptable reasons

d)

Retreating to an earlier stage of development under stress

40.

What is the purpose of a Rorschach test?

a)

To assess intelligence through pattern analysis

b)

To reveal personality based on responses to vague stimuli

c)

To diagnose neurological disorders using images

d)

To measure brain activity during problem solving

41.

What is the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory used to provide information about?

a)

Vocational interests and career preferences

b)

Brain structure and neural connectivity

c)

clinical psychological disorders

d)

Current levels of academic aptitude and achievement

42.

Rational Emotive Therapists believe that abnormal functioning is caused by:

a)

Conditioned responses learned through reinforcement

b)

Societal expectations that limit free will

c)

Irrational beliefs and self-defeating thoughts

d)

Unconscious conflicts formed in early childhood

43.

What is the goal of Rational Emotive Therapy?

a)

To reinforce desired behaviors through rewards

b)

To replace irrational beliefs with rational ones to reduce emotional distress

c)

To train relaxation for physiological calm

d)

To promote free association without guidance

44.

What do behavior therapists emphasize in their treatment of clients?

a)

Changing faulty cognitions through dialogue

b)

Exploring past relationships and dreams

c)

replacing bad behaviors with better ones

d)

Promoting self-actualization and empathy

45.

What type of behavior therapy can be used to reduce the effects of phobias?

a)

Aversion therapy using unpleasant stimuli for punishment

b)

Systematic desensitization involving gradual exposure and relaxation

c)

Electroconvulsive therapy to reset mood circuits

d)

Client-centered therapy emphasizing reflection

46.

The conflict between self-concept and reality is a belief of what type of psychologist?

a)

Psychoanalytic psychologist

b)

Humanistic psychologist

c)

Cultural psychologist

d)

Behaviorist psychologist

47.

What do cognitive psychologists believe is the root cause of depression?

a)

Excessive dopamine activity in reward centers

b)

Negative thought patterns and cognitive distortions

c)

A viral infection that alters mood

d)

Repressed anger from early childhood

48.

What are common traits of people with narcissistic personality disorder?

a)

Instability of mood with cycles of mania and depression

b)

Grandiosity, need for admiration, and lack of empathy

c)

Compulsions to perform rituals and fear of contamination

d)

Perfectionism and excessive orderliness

49.

What are some criticisms of Freud’s work?

a)

Many concepts are difficult to test scientifically and are based on limited, biased samples

b)

He focused primarily on cultural and social learning factors

c)

Methods emphasize objective measurement with strong reliability

d)

His theories accurately predict behavior across large controlled experiments

50.

Paranoia is:

a)

An intense fear of specific objects or situations

b)

A persistent, irrational suspicion or belief that others intend to harm you

c)

A sudden loss of memory for personal information

d)

A mood state marked by elevated energy and euphoria

51.

Hallucinations are a characteristic of what type of disorders?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Anxiety disorders

c)

Personality disorders

d)

Dissociative disorders

52.

Helping patients to change the way they interpret events is a method used by what type of therapists?

a)

Cognitive therapists

b)

Psychoanalytic therapists

c)

Behavior therapists

d)

Biological therapists

53.

What disorders have been treated with electroconvulsive therapy (Hint: choose all but ONE.)

a)

phobias

b)

schizophrenia

c)

multiple personality disorder

d)

major depression

e)

Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

54.

Humanistic psychologists believe in the importance of:

a)

Personal growth, subjective experience, and self-actualization

b)

Interpreting unconscious conflicts through dream analysis

c)

Reinforcing adaptive behaviors through rewards

d)

Correcting chemical imbalances with medication

55.

What is introspection?

a)

The examination of one’s own thoughts and feelings

b)

The measurement of reaction times to stimuli

c)

The observation of others’ behavior in natural settings

d)

The analysis of brain structure using imaging

56.

Delusions and hallucinations are symptoms of what types of disorders?

a)

Psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia

b)

Anxiety disorders such as phobias

c)

Personality disorders such as OCD

d)

Neurodevelopmental learning disorders

57.

What is one of the most successful treatments for schizophrenia? (HINT: pick TWO)

a)

Antipsychotic medication that reduces positive symptoms

b)

Benzodiazepines for long-term daily use

c)

Psychoanalysis without medication

d)

Electroconvulsive therapy as first-line care

58.

What do cognitive psychologists do to help their clients?

a)

Identify and restructure maladaptive thoughts and beliefs

b)

Interpret dreams to uncover unconscious wishes

c)

Focus solely on observable behavior changes

d)

Encourage free association without guidance

59.

Phobic and panic disorders are what type of disorder?

a)

Anxiety disorders

b)

Mood disorders

c)

Psychotic disorders

d)

Somatic disorders

60.

What are the two core areas of concern with autism spectrum disorder? (pick TWO)

a)

Social communication difficulties and

b)

restricted/ repetitive behaviors

c)

Mood swings and sleep disturbances

d)

Hallucinations and delusions

61.

People who are in repeated trouble and have no remorse or sense of guilt may suffer from:

a)

Antisocial personality disorder

b)

Borderline personality disorder

c)

Avoidant personality disorder

d)

Narcissistic personality disorder

62.

What are some physiological effects of stress, especially in Type A people?

a)

Elevated heart rate and blood pressure with increased cortisol

b)

Improved immune function and reduced inflammation

c)

Chronic drowsiness and slowed reflexes

d)

Reduced alertness and decreased adrenaline release

63.

What is an “approach approach” conflict?

a)

A choice between two attractive options

b)

A decision between two equally undesirable options

c)

Being drawn to and repelled by the same goal

d)

Avoiding action due to fear of punishment

64.

Who criticized Kohlberg's Theory of Moral Development?

a)

Carol Gilligan

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

Sigmund Freud

d)

Mr. Grant

65.

What is "learned helplessness?"

a)

A sudden insight that solves a problem

b)

A passive resignation that develops after repeated uncontrollable events

c)

An improvement in performance after practice

d)

A motivation to avoid failure rather than seek success