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Sample Questions (1–20) soil science

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a component of Soil

a)

Mineral particles

b)

Air

c)

Water

d)

Each choice is a of soil

2.

Which term refers to the void spaces in soil which can be filled by water or air?

a)

Permeability

b)

Soil texture

c)

Soil structure

d)

porosity

3.

Which of the following best describes leaching?

a)

Water brings nutrients from below plant roots so they are available to plants

b)

Nutrients come from groundwater and streams and appear in the soil for plant use

c)

Nutrients accumulate in water then are supplied to plants through the soil

d)

Water carries nutrients

4.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

Soil tests are most useful during the growing season to monitor plant nutrient uptake

b)

Plant tissue analysis is the best assessment of nutrient levels in soil

c)

Using a soil test and plant tissue analysis in combination will provide the best results for nutrient availability and the best corrective action

d)

Soil tests are most useful during the growing season to predict lime and fertilizer needs

5.

Which of the following is NOT a soil texture?

a)

Sand

b)

Clay

c)

Smooth

d)

silt

6.

Which type of nutrients is needed in large amounts by plants?

a)

Macronutrients

b)

Micronutrients

c)

Secondary nutrients

d)

Non-mineral nutrients

7.

Which of the following is another name for micronutrients

a)

Small nutrients

b)

Major nutrients

c)

Trace elements

d)

Non-mineral nutrients

8.

Soil consists of four major components. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

a)

Mineral material

b)

Organic matter

c)

Water

d)

Rock fragments

9.

The three size-classes of mineral soil particles (that determine texture) are:

a)

Sand, loam, clay

b)

Sand, silt, clay

c)

Gravel, sand, silt

d)

Clay, silt, loam

10.

Which size range corresponds to sand particles?

a)

0.002 – 0.05 mm

b)

0.05 – 2.0 mm

c)

< 0.002 mm

d)

2.0 – 5.0 mm

11.

What percentage (approximately) of a typical soil’s volume is mineral material?

a)

25%

b)

45%

c)

55%

d)

70%

12.

Which soil texture class is the only one that is chemically active and capable of adsorbing plant nutrients?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Loam

13.

Why is soil texture important for soil health?

a)

It affects the soil’s ability to resist erosion only

b)

It determines mineral composition exclusively

c)

It influences pore space available for water, air, and nutrients

d)

It decides the soil’s color

14.

Which of the following statements about soil texture is true?

a)

Soil texture can be easily changed by human addition of compost

b)

Soil texture is mainly determined by geology and climate

c)

Soil texture is unrelated to water holding capacity

d)

Soil texture determines organic matter content

15.

The term “pore space” or voids in soil refers to:

a)

The proportion of sand particles

b)

The air spaces left between soil particles or aggregates

c)

The total volume of mineral particles

d)

The amount of organic matter

16.

What is the significance of pore space (voids) in soils?

a)

It reduces soil fertility

b)

It provides sites for water, air, roots, and organisms

c)

It increases soil compaction

d)

It removes nutrients

17.

Which of the following best defines soil “health,” per the lesson plan’s key concepts?

a)

The ability of soil to produce high crop yields only

b)

The capacity of soil to function as a living ecosystem sustaining plants, animals, and humans

c)

The chemical fertility of soil alone

d)

The amount of sand in the soil

18.

Soil health encompasses which components?

a)

Physical only

b)

Chemical only

c)

Biological only

d)

Physical, chemical, and biological

19.

Which factor(s) can influence soil health (as per the lesson plan)?

a)

Parent material and climate only

b)

Human activities (like cropping and fertilization) only

c)

Both environmental conditions and human activities

d)

None — soil health is fixed

20.

In a soil with high clay content, you would expect:

a)

High permeability and rapid drainage

b)

Low chemical activity

c)

High nutrient-holding capacity due to adsorption

d)

Very coarse texture

21.

If a soil has about 45% mineral material, 5% organic matter, ~25% water and ~25% air by volume, this represents:

a)

A. A sandy soil

b)

B. A typical well-balanced soil

c)

C. Poor quality soil

d)

D. Only topsoil

22.

Which of following is a biological component of soil health (even if the textbook calls out physical/chemical/biological)?

a)

Clay particles

b)

Air-filled pore space

c)

Soil microorganisms (bacteria, fungi) and organic matter decomposition

d)

Water saturation

23.

The mineral particles in soil originated from:

a)

Decomposed plant matter

b)

Parent rock material weathered over time

c)

Animal waste

d)

Added fertilizers

24.

In the context of soil texture, “loam” refers to:

a)

Soil composed entirely of clay

b)

Soil high in organic matter only

c)

A balanced mixture of sand, silt, and clay

d)

Soil with no pore space

25.

Which of the following soil textures would generally have the fastest drainage and lowest water-holding capacity?

a)

Clay

b)

Loam

c)

Sand

d)

Silt loam

26.

What role does organic matter play in soil structure and health?

a)

It decreases pore space

b)

It acts like “glue,” helping mineral particles form aggregates and improving water and nutrient holding capacity

c)

It reduces the chemical activity of the soil

d)

It makes soil purely sandy

27.

Which of the following describes a shift in paradigm that soil health represents (compared to traditional “soil fertility”)?

a)

Viewing soil as a nonliving system focused only on chemical fertility

b)

Considering soil as a living ecosystem — physical, chemical, and biological components integrated

c)

Ignoring organic matter as insignificant

d)

Focusing only on mineral content

28.

Which of the following is not one of the four major soil components?

4 lines
29.

Soil organic matter is primarily derived from:

a)

Weathered rock

b)

Decomposed plant and animal residues

c)

Industrial fertilizers

d)

Groundwater

30.

Which soil particle is the smallest?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Gravel

31.

Which particle controls much of a soil's chemical reactivity?

a)

Sand

b)

Gravel

c)

Clay

d)

Silt

32.

The soil texture triangle is used to determine:

a)

Soil pH

b)

Soil color

c)

Soil mineral chemical composition

d)

Relative proportions of sand, silt, and clay

33.

Which texture generally has highest water-holding capacity?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Loam

d)

Clay

34.

Which soil texture drains the fastest?

a)

Silty clay

b)

Sand

c)

Loam

d)

Clay loam

35.

Soil structure refers to:

a)

The size of mineral grains

b)

How particles are arranged into aggregates

c)

The chemical composition of soil

d)

The pH level of soil

36.

Good soil aggregation increases:

a)

Compaction

b)

Evaporation

c)

Infiltration

d)

Acidity

37.

A “platy” soil structure most often restricts:

a)

Root penetration

b)

Color development

c)

pH buffering

d)

Organic matter decomposition

38.

Porosity refers to:

a)

Nutrients in the soil

b)

Air and water spaces between particles

c)

Plant residue on the surface

d)

Mineral particle hardness

39.

High porosity usually means:

a)

High density

b)

Low root growth

c)

More water can be stored

d)

Lower infiltration

40.

Permeability describes the soil’s ability to:

a)

Hold nutrients

b)

Resist temperature change

c)

Allow water to pass through

d)

Generate organic matter

41.

Compaction generally causes:

a)

Increased aeration

b)

Reduced porosity

c)

More microbial activity

d)

Lower bulk density

42.

A perched water table forms when:

a)

A. Water cannot infiltrate through a restrictive layer

b)

B. Soil is too dry

c)

C. Plants remove too much water

d)

D. Soils have high sand content

43.

Which factor most strongly influences infiltration?

a)

Soil color

b)

Soil structure

c)

Soil temperature

d)

Soil salinity

44.

Saturated soil means:

a)

All pores are filled with water

b)

Water is moving upward

c)

Water is evaporating

d)

No water remains

45.

Key property affecting both infiltration and runoff is:

a)

Soil pH

b)

Soil temperature

c)

Soil texture

d)

Soil color

46.

Water movement through large pores is mostly controlled by:

a)

Gravity

b)

Osmosis

c)

Capillarity

d)

Root pressure

47.

Capillary rise occurs when:

a)

Water moves downward only

b)

Fine pores draw water upward

c)

Water evaporates from roots

d)

Soil freezes

48.

Soil color is most commonly measured with the:

a)

Soil factor guide

b)

Munsell color chart

c)

Hydrometer chart

d)

Porosity index

49.

Dark-colored soil usually indicates high:

a)

Salt

b)

Sand

c)

Organic matter

d)

Clay

50.

Red or yellow soils usually indicate presence of:

a)

Iron oxides

b)

Aluminum

c)

Calcium carbonate

d)

Sodium

51.

Parent material affects:

a)

Only soil color

b)

Only soil nutrients

c)

Soil texture, chemistry, and mineralogy

d)

Only biological activity

52.

All are forms of physical weathering except:

a)

Freeze–thaw

b)

Root wedging

c)

Abrasion

d)

Acid dissolution

53.

Chemical weathering includes:

a)

Rusting of iron minerals

b)

Frost cracking

c)

Biological tunneling

d)

Mechanical breakup

54.

Loess is:

a)

River-deposited sand

b)

Wind-blown silt

c)

Volcanic ash

d)

Glacial till

55.

Glacial till is best described as:

a)

Uniform silt

b)

Poorly sorted material left by glaciers

c)

Organic-rich sediment

d)

Calcareous bedrock only

56.

Soils rich in calcium carbonate often show:

a)

High acidity

b)

White or light-colored accumulations

c)

Dark black color

d)

Strong red iron staining

57.

Parent material derived from volcanic ash typically has:

a)

Low nutrient content

b)

Excellent water-holding capacity

58.

The O horizon consists mainly of:

a)

Weathered bedrock

b)

Organic residues

c)

Clay deposits

d)

Leached minerals

59.

The A horizon is typically the:

a)

Subsoil

b)

Topsoil

c)

Parent material

d)

Hardpan

60.

Leaching most often occurs in the:

a)

O horizon

b)

A horizon

c)

E horizon

d)

C horizon

61.

The B horizon is known for:

a)

Organic matter accumulation

b)

Clay and iron accumulation

c)

No soil formation

d)

Bedrock exposure

62.

The C horizon represents:

a)

Fully weathered soil

b)

Parent material with little alteration

c)

Strongly leached soil

d)

Organic-rich material

63.

An E horizon is characterized by:

a)

Strong loss of clays and organic matter

b)

High accumulation of salts

c)

Parent rock

d)

Excessive root biomass

64.

Soil horizons collectively form the:

a)

Soil base

b)

Soil profile

c)

Soil surface

d)

Soil crust

65.

A “root-limiting layer” in a soil profile is most often caused by:

a)

Organic matter

b)

Compaction or dense clay

c)

Biological activity

d)

Earthworm channels

66.

The boundary between horizons is called:

a)

A transition zone

b)

A soil factor

c)

A pedon

d)

A contact

67.

A soil pedon represents:

a)

A color category

b)

The smallest unit considered a soil body

c)

Only the A horizon

d)

A model profile with no variation

68.

Soil health emphasizes soil as a:

a)

Chemical storage tank

b)

Mineral deposit

c)

Living ecosystem

d)

Nonliving medium

69.

The MOST abundant soil organisms are:

a)

Earthworms

b)

Bacteria

c)

Beetles

d)

Fungi

70.

Fungi are important because they:

a)

Compact soil

b)

Break down organic matter and form hyphal networks

c)

Reduce soil fertility

d)

Replace roots

71.

Mycorrhizal fungi help plants by:

a)

Removing nutrients

b)

Enhancing nutrient and water uptake

c)

Reducing root surface area

d)

Increasing soil compaction

72.

Earthworms improve soil by:

a)

Decreasing macropores

b)

Increasing aeration and aggregation

c)

Raising soil temperature

d)

Sealing surface pores

73.

A key feature of biological soil crusts is:

a)

Root networks

b)

Mosses, cyanobacteria, and lichens

c)

Gravel formation

d)

Acid buildup

74.

Soil respiration mainly measures:

a)

Oxygen production

b)

CO₂ released by microbes and roots

c)

Water evaporation

d)

Soil temperature

75.

High biological activity usually indicates:

a)

Poor soil health

b)

Active nutrient cycling

c)

No organic matter

d)

Complete saturation

76.

Soil organisms are adversely affected by:

a)

Residue cover

b)

High compaction

c)

Good aggregation

d)

Plant diversity

77.

Which practice most enhances soil microbial diversity?

a)

Monocropping

b)

Frequent tillage

c)

Minimal soil disturbance

d)

Removing residues

78.

Soil organic matter improves:

a)

Bulk density

b)

Water retention, structure, nutrient availability

c)

Soil color only

d)

Soil salinity

79.

Organic matter is composed largely of:

a)

Salts

b)

Plant residues at various decomposition stages

c)

Pesticides

d)

Clay

80.

Humus is:

a)

Raw plant material

b)

Fully decomposed organic matter

c)

Mineral residue

d)

Soil-dwelling insects

81.

Increasing organic matter generally:

a)

Increases compaction

b)

Decreases infiltration

c)

Improves aggregate stability

d)

Reduces nutrient cycling

82.

The majority of soil carbon is found in the:

a)

O and A horizons

b)

C horizon

c)

E horizon

d)

Bedrock

83.

Carbon sequestration in soil is enhanced by:

a)

Intensive tillage

b)

Grazing mismanagement

c)

Perennial vegetation

d)

Removing residues

84.

Which factor slows organic matter decomposition?

a)

Warm temperatures

b)

Aeration

c)

Moist conditions

d)

Cold temperatures

85.

Soil microbes use carbon primarily as:

a)

A. A nutrient sink

b)

B. An energy source

86.

SOM contributes to nutrient cycling by:

a)

Fixing nitrogen

b)

Slowly releasing nutrients as it decomposes

c)

Filtering nutrients out of the soil

d)

Eliminating minerals

87.

60. Residue cover contributes to soil carbon by:

a)

A. Blocking plant growth

b)

B. Preventing microbial activity

c)

C. Reducing erosion and feeding soil organisms

d)

D. Hardening the soil surface

88.

The three primary macronutrients are:

a)

Fe, Zn, Cu

b)

K, Ca, Mg

c)

N, P, K

d)

C, O, H

89.

Nitrogen is important for:

a)

Root hairs

b)

Chlorophyll and vegetative growth

c)

Wax formation

d)

Soil porosity

90.

Phosphorus mainly supports:

a)

Root development and energy transfer

b)

Disease resistance

c)

Water uptake

d)

Soil color

91.

Potassium improves:

a)

Leaf color only

b)

Water regulation and stress tolerance

c)

Soil structure

d)

Organic matter formation

92.

Soil pH affects nutrient:

(a)  

93.

A soil pH of 7 is considered:

a)

Acidic

b)

Neutral

c)

Alkaline

d)

Toxic

94.

Acidic soils often require:

a)

Sulfur

b)

Lime

c)

Iron

d)

Sand

95.

Nutrients are often lost by:

a)

Leaching and erosion

b)

Organic additions

c)

Microbial activity

d)

Root interception

96.

Cation exchange capacity (CEC) measures soil’s ability to:

a)

Hold water

b)

Hold positively charged nutrients

c)

Trap oxygen

d)

Decompose minerals

97.

High clay and organic matter generally mean:

a)

Low CEC

b)

High CEC

c)

No exchange sites

d)

Poor nutrient holding ability

98.

Soil erosion is defined as:

a)

Movement of soil by water or wind

b)

Decomposition of organic matter

c)

Chemical breakdown of minerals

d)

Loss of soil color

99.

Sheet erosion is:

a)

Removal of soil in small channels

b)

Even removal of thin layers

c)

Sudden collapse of slopes

d)

Erosion by freezing

100.

Rill erosion differs from gully erosion because rills:

a)

Are shallow and repairable

b)

Are deep channels

c)

Cannot be crossed by equipment

d)

Form only in clay soils

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