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2025 Biology Midterm

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which pairing correctly matches each macromolecule with its monomer?

a)

Carbohydrates–amino acids; proteins–monosaccharides

b)

Carbohydrates–monosaccharides; proteins–amino acids

c)

Lipids–monosaccharides; nucleic acids–fatty acids

2.

A student models quick energy release during a sprint. Which macromolecule is most directly used?

a)

Carbohydrates for rapid energy in cells

b)

Proteins for long-term energy reserves

c)

Nucleic acids for structural cell support

3.

Which function is primarily carried out by lipids in organisms?

a)

Rapid energy and structural support

b)

Enzymatic catalysis and communication

c)

Long-term energy storage and insulation

4.

Select the element found in all macromolecules listed in the unit.

a)

Phosphorus present in all proteins

b)

Nitrogen present in carbohydrates only

c)

Carbon present in each macromolecule

5.

Which statement best distinguishes prokaryotic from eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotes have nucleus; eukaryotes lack organelles

b)

Prokaryotes lack nucleus and membrane bound organelles; eukaryotes have both

c)

Both have membrane-bound organelles and nuclei

6.

Which structure is common to all cells listed in the study guide?

a)

Centrioles found in every cell type

b)

Chloroplasts required for all cells

c)

Cell membrane present in every cell

7.

A sudden rise in body temperature triggers sweating that lowers temperature. What feedback type is this?

a)

Negative feedback stabilizes body temperature

b)

Positive feedback amplifies cooling rate

c)

Neutral feedback maintains current state

8.

During childbirth, uterine contractions intensify due to oxytocin release. Which loop explains this?

a)

Positive feedback amplifying contractions

b)

Negative feedback reducing uterine tension

c)

Homeostatic set point stabilization

9.

Which of the following best describes the difference between a negative feedback loop and a positive feedback loop in the human body?

a)

Negative feedback maintains homeostasis by reversing changes, while positive feedback amplifies changes to complete a specific process.

b)

Positive feedback maintains stability, while negative feedback causes rapid changes in body systems.

c)

Both negative and positive feedback loops always work to maintain homeostasis by reducing changes.

10.

Which scenario best illustrates homeostasis?

a)

Maintaining a stable internal environment

b)

Rapidly changing internal temperature

c)

Constantly increasing energy consumption

11.

Which list accurately states the seven characteristics of living things?

a)

Cells, reproduce, grow, energy use, respond, homeostasis, evolve

b)

Cells, photosynthesize, migrate, hibernate, excrete, molt, age

c)

Reproduce, move fast, think, sleep, dream, feed, rest

12.

A stem cell becoming a red blood cell primarily involves which cellular process?

a)

Genes turned on or off to differentiate

b)

Carbohydrate breakdown for quick energy

c)

Lipid storage and membrane insulation

13.

Which component is directly responsible for protein synthesis in all cells?

a)

Cell membrane producing nucleotides

b)

Nucleus storing fatty acids

c)

Ribosomes assembling amino acids

14.

Sensory neurons primarily perform which function?

a)

Receive signals from environment causing responses

b)

Control stem cell gene expression in blood

c)

Store genetic information within axons

15.

Which of the following correctly describes the difference between a motor neuron and a sensory neuron?

a)

Motor neurons carry signals from the sense organs to the brain, while sensory neurons carry signals from the brain to muscles.

b)

Motor neurons are only found in the brain, while sensory neurons are only found in the spinal cord.

c)

Sensory neurons carry information to the central nervous system, while motor neurons carry commands to muscles and glands.

16.

A researcher removes the nucleus from a cell. Which cell type could still be viable after removal?

a)

Prokaryotic cell

b)

Animal cell

c)

Eukaryotic cell that functions without organelles

17.

Which neuron type primarily carries information from sensory receptors toward the central nervous system to trigger a response?

a)

Motor neurons send commands from muscles to brain

b)

Sensory neurons carry signals from receptors to CNS

c)

Glial cells transmit impulses along myelin sheaths

18.

Which statement best describes the role of interneurons in larger animals?

a)

Interneurons connect sensory and motor neurons

b)

Interneurons secrete hormones into the bloodstream

c)

Interneurons directly contract skeletal muscles

19.

Damage specifically to interneurons would most likely cause which outcome?

a)

Receives a sensory signal but movement response cannot be sent

b)

No signals will be received from the environment

c)

Muscles receive stronger signals than normal

20.

Which neuron part primarily receives incoming signals from other cells?

a)

Cell body

b)

Axon

c)

Dendrites

21.

What is the primary function of dendrites in a neuron?

a)

To carry nerve impulses away from the cell body to other neurons or muscles

b)

To store genetic information for the neuron

c)

To receive signals from other neurons and transmit them toward the cell body

22.

Which function is associated with axon terminals at the end of a neuron?

a)

Maintains overall homeostatic balance

b)

Detects stimuli from environment

c)

Releases neurotransmitters to next cell

23.

Arrange the hierarchy for a nerve cell from its origin to the broadest system level.

a)

Stem cell → neuron → nervous tissue → brain → nervous system

b)

Neuron → stem cell → organ system → brain → nervous tissue

c)

Stem cell → nervous tissue → neuron → brain → nervous system

24.

Which list correctly orders the general hierarchy of life from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell, organ system, tissue, organ, organism

b)

Tissue, cell, organ system, organ, organism

c)

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

25.

What is the primary process that produces specialized cell types from unspecialized cells?

a)

Cell differentiation: controlled by gene expression

b)

Mitosis: controlled by external temperature shifts

c)

Photosynthesis: regulated by chlorophyll levels

26.

Cell differentiation is most directly regulated by —

a)

DNA

b)

Neurons

c)

Glands

27.

Why is cell specialization advantageous for complex organisms?

a)

Increases efficiency and enables complex functions

b)

Eliminates need for energy and ATP production

c)

Reduces diversity and simplifies organ systems

28.

A student claims motor neurons carry signals from muscles to the CNS. Select the best evaluation of this claim.

a)

Incorrect: motor neurons send signals from CNS to muscles

b)

Correct: motor neurons transmit sensory receptor inputs

c)

Partially correct: motor neurons relay within spinal cord

29.

Which sequence most accurately traces signal flow through a typical neuron?

a)

Dendrites → cell body → axon → axon terminals

b)

Dendrites → axon → cell body → axon terminals

c)

Axon terminals → dendrites → axon → cell body

d)

Cell body → axon terminals → dendrites → axon

30.

Which statement about gene expression in differentiation is most accurate?

a)

Turning genes on or off directs cell type

b)

Removing the nucleus determines muscle fate

31.

Which statement best describes the main purpose of cellular respiration in organisms?

a)

Captures light to make organic sugars

b)

Stores ATP as glucose molecules

c)

Converts glucose into ATP energy

32.

Which molecule is essential to obtain the MOST energy possible from a molecule of glucose?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Potassium

33.

Where does glycolysis occur within the cell?

a)

Cytoplasm of the cell

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Chloroplast stroma

34.

Which stage of cellular respiration is correctly matched with its location?

a)

Krebs Cycle — mitochondrial matrix

b)

Glycolysis — inner membrane

c)

Electron Transport — cytoplasm

35.

How do aerobic and anaerobic respiration differ most directly in energy output?

a)

Aerobic produces far more ATP

b)

Anaerobic produces most ATP

c)

Both produce the same ATP

36.

A sprinter will typically enter anaerobic respiration to produce ATP within 30 seconds. What is the name of that process? (hint: it produces soreness in muscles)

a)

aerobic fermentation

b)

Alcoholic fermentation

c)

Lactic acid fermentation

37.

Which product of photosynthesis is directly used as a reactant in cellular respiration?

a)

ATP energy

b)

Glucose molecules

c)

Carbon dioxide

38.

Which product of respiration is a key reactant for photosynthesis?

a)

Pyruvate compound

b)

Glucose sugar

c)

ATP molecules

d)

Carbon dioxide gas

39.

Which statement best explains the interdependence of photosynthesis and respiration?

a)

Both only occur in animal cells

b)

Both only happen with no oxygen

c)

Each supplies inputs for the other

40.

Which condition most likely triggers anaerobic respiration in muscle cells?

a)

Short bursts of intense activity

b)

Long periods of resting

c)

High oxygen availability

41.

Which statement best compares lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation?

a)

Lactic occurs in muscle; alcoholic in yeast

b)

Both require mitochondrial oxygen

c)

Both occur in chloroplasts

d)

Alcoholic occurs in muscle; lactic in yeast

42.

Which balanced equation represents photosynthesis?

a)

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

b)

CO2 + O2 → glucose + ATP

c)

6CO2 + 6H2O + light → C6H12O6 + 6O2

43.

Which cellular structure is the site of photosynthesis, specifically for light reactions?

a)

Inner mitochondrial membrane

b)

Mitochondrial matrix

c)

Chloroplast thylakoids

d)

Cytoplasm fluid

44.

Where does glycolysis take place within the cell?

a)

Mitochondria

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

45.

Which statement about aerobic respiration is accurate?

a)

Requires no oxygen and yields less ATP

b)

Uses oxygen to generate most ATP

c)

Only happens during fermentation

46.

Which sequence lists the major stages of cellular respiration in order?

a)

Electron Transport, Krebs, Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle, Glycolysis, Electron Transport

c)

Glycolysis, Krebs Cycle, Electron Transport

47.

What would most likely happen if a cell's mitochondria were not functioning properly?

a)

More ATP would be produced

b)

Less ATP would be produced

c)

More glucose would be produced

48.

Which of the following best describes the energy relationship between photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Photosynthesis releases energy by breaking down glucose, while cellular respiration stores energy in glucose molecules.

b)

Photosynthesis requires carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while cellular respiration requires oxygen and releases carbon dioxide,

49.

Which stage of interphase is when DNA is replicated before mitosis begins?

a)

G1 phase with general growth

b)

S phase with DNA synthesis

c)

G2 phase with checkpoint

d)

M phase with nuclear division

50.

During which mitosis phase do sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles?

a)

Telophase with nuclei forming

b)

Anaphase with separation

c)

Metaphase with alignment

d)

Prophase with spindle forming

51.

What is the main purpose of cytokinesis in the cell cycle?

a)

Duplicate chromosomes evenly

b)

Divide the cytoplasm fully

c)

Check DNA for errors

d)

Condense chromatin densely

52.

Which statement best describes semiconservative DNA replication?

a)

New DNA is composed of RNA pieces

b)

Old strands are degraded entirely

c)

Each new DNA has one old strand

d)

Two new strands pair together only

53.

Which enzyme primarily adds new nucleotides during DNA replication?

a)

Ligase

b)

Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase

54.

Which base pairs are correct in DNA according to base pairing rules?

a)

Adenine pairs with thymine

b)

Cytosine pairs with adenine

c)

Thymine pairs with cytosine

d)

Adenine pairs with guanine

55.

In transcription, which RNA base pairs with adenine in DNA?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Guanine

c)

Uracil

56.

Which process follows transcription in protein synthesis?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Translation

57.

What is the role of mRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

Brings amino acids to ribosome

b)

Carries genetic code to cytoplasm

c)

Forms ribosomal structure directly

d)

Cuts introns from DNA strands

58.

Which type of mutation involves removal of a base from DNA?

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Deletion removes a base

59.

Which sequence correctly traces information flow in protein synthesis?

a)

Protein to DNA to RNA

b)

Protein to RNA to DNA

c)

DNA to RNA to protein

d)

RNA to DNA to protein

60.

Which phase of mitosis features chromosomes aligning at the cell equator?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

61.

Before DNA polymerase adds nucleotides, what happens first in replication?

a)

DNA unwinds initially

b)

Spindle fibers assemble

c)

Ligase seals gaps

d)

tRNA brings codons

62.

What is the immediate product of transcription?

a)

DNA duplicated in S phase

b)

mRNA strand

63.

Which RNA type brings amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

a)

rRNA making ribosomes

b)

mRNA moving the code

c)

tRNA delivering amino acids

d)

snRNA editing messenger RNA

64.

What happens to chromosome number in somatic cells after mitosis?

a)

Variable depending on tissue

b)

Doubled then reduced

c)

Halved in daughter cells

d)

Unchanged from the parent

65.

Which event marks telophase of mitosis?

a)

New nuclei begin to form

b)

Sister chromatids separate

c)

Chromosomes line up in the middle

66.

What is the primary function of enzymes in reactions related to protein synthesis?

a)

Stop codon recognition only

b)

Lowers activation energy needed

c)

Attach amino acids to tRNA

67.

During translation, what signals the end of the polypeptide chain?

a)

Origin of replication forms

b)

Promoter region is read

c)

Stop codon is reached

68.

Which description best matches the G2 phase of interphase?

a)

Nuclear division happens

b)

DNA replication occurs

c)

Additional growth and DNA check

69.
When DNA is transcribed to RNA.... 
a)
A pairs with U
b)
C pairs with U
c)
A pairs with T
d)
C pairs with T
70.
When the RNA gets to the ribosomes, which molecule transfers to the mRNA to amino acids?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
Replicated RNA
71.
What will be the resulting mRNA from this DNA sequence:
GAT-TAC-AGA-TTA-CAT?
a)
CTA-ATG-TCT-AAT-GTA
b)
GAU-UAG-UGA-UUA-GUT
c)
CUA-AUG-UCU-AAU-GUA
72.
What cells in the body may undergo lactic acid fermentation during exercise? 
a)
Muscle cells
b)
Fat cells
c)
Liver cells
d)
Skin cells
73.
Which compounds are produced by the two main types of fermentation? 
a)
NAD+ or ATP
b)
alcohol or lactic acid
c)
glucose or carbon dioxide
d)
ADP or ATP
74.

What are the inputs of cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose and Oxygen

b)

Sun, water and carbon dioxide

c)

Glucose and Water

d)

Sunlight and Water

75.

What are the outputs of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide, water and ATP

b)

ATP and Glucose

c)

Oxygen and Glucose

d)

Sunlight, Glucose and Water

76.

Nuclear membrane disappears

Chromosomes can now be seen

Centrioles move to opposite sides

a)

Metaphase

b)

Interphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Prophase

77.

Chromosomes line up at the equator of the cell

Spindle fibers extend from the centrioles to the middle of the chromosomes

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Interphase

78.

Chromatids separate

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

79.

Nuclear membrane reforms around the new daughter cells.

Cytoplasm begins to "pinch" in.

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Interphase

80.

Two replicated cells split from each other and are able to move on their own.

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase

81.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
82.
What phase of mitosis is shown in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
83.
What stage is taking place?
a)
Interphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
84.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
8 chromosomes.
c)
4 chromosomes.