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Year 1 Mid-term Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All of the following are reasons for cosmetologists to study hair removal EXCEPT:

a)

Learning hair removal techniques helps cosmetologists offer popular treatments and increase revenue.

b)

Adding hair removal services allows cosmetologists to provide more services in one visit, improving client satisfaction and income.

c)

Knowing hair removal contraindications lets cosmetologists treat more clients without physician approval and earn more money.

d)

Hair removal techniques change slowly, so cosmetologists can spend more time on income-generating services instead of training.

2.

Which lines in a hairstyle repeat and can be curved or straight?

a)

contrasting lines

b)

transitional lines

c)

parallel lines

d)

directional lines

3.

Which principle of hair design refers to the relationship of one thing to another?

a)

balance

b)

rhythm

c)

emphasis

d)

proportion

4.

How does a cosmetologist identify a square facial type?

a)

Facial contours are narrow at the forehead with a wide jaw and chin line.

b)

Facial contours have a narrow forehead, wide cheekbones, and a narrow chin.

c)

Facial contours are wide at the temples, narrow in the middle, and squared at the jaw.

d)

Facial contours have a wide forehead and narrow chin line.

5.
The five basic elements of three dimensional hair design are line, form, space, design texture, and
a)
pattern
b)
proportion
c)
color
d)
balance
6.

_____ lines are placed between horizontal and vertical lines and are used to emphasize or minimize facial features.

a)

Diagonal lines

b)

Parallel lines

c)

Transitional lines

d)

Curved lines

7.

To measure symmetry, the stylist divides the face into _____ parts.

a)

two equal

b)

three

c)

four equal

d)

five

8.

The regular pulsation or pattern of movement in a design is called _____.

a)

design

b)

pattern

c)

rhythm

d)

harmony

9.
The basic hair textures are fine, medium, and
a)
thick
b)
wavy
c)
curly
d)
coarse
10.

A client's facial shape is determined by the prominence of the

a)

head shape

b)

chin line

c)

profile

d)

facial bones

11.

The outline of the face, head, and figure seen from the side is called the _____.

a)

profile

b)

shape

c)

silhouette

d)

convex

12.

Which best describes natural hairstyling?

a)

styling using natural hair growth and curl patterns

b)

styling that does not use chemicals or change natural curl or coil pattern

c)

styling using only certified organic ingredients

d)

styling with no products, relying on natural oils

13.

A _______ has short and long teeth that give lift and fullness to hair.

a)

teasing comb

b)

tail comb

c)

feather comb

d)

edging comb

14.

The blowdryer attachment that helps keep textural definition is _______.

a)

a diffuser

b)

a concentrator nozzle

c)

a straightening pick

d)

a straightening comb

15.

Which is an advantage of using a blowdryer instead of a hooded dryer?

a)

A blowdryer uses an AC motor, while a hooded dryer uses a DC motor.

b)

A blowdryer can set endothermic perms, but a hooded dryer cannot.

c)

A blowdryer gives direct heat to dry hair, while a hooded dryer is like air drying.

d)

A blowdryer can add volume as it dries, but a hooded dryer cannot.

16.

How should a blowdry service be done to smooth the hair cuticle?

a)

Move the blowdryer back and forth

b)

Direct hot air from scalp to ends

c)

Partially towel dry the hair

d)

Lower airflow speed and temperature

17.

Combs for thermal curling should be made of _______.

a)

plastic

b)

nylon blends

c)

soft metal

d)

hard rubber

18.

For which thermal iron should you wear a heat-resistant glove?

a)

flat irons

b)

clamp free irons/wand

c)

marcel irons

d)

crimping irons

19.

The correct temperature for thermal curling is determined by the ______.

a)

texture of the hair

b)

length of the hair

c)

type of iron used

d)

size of the iron used

20.

Which technique helps smooth hair with a flat iron?

a)

Apply styling spray and let it dry before using the flat iron.

b)

Move the iron down the hair shaft with a comb in front.

c)

Smoothly move the iron from root to end, brush, then repeat to split into two sections.

d)

Clamp the hair, then align the end with the next section before clamping again.

21.

What process temporarily straightens very curly hair using a heated comb?

a)

hair texturizing

b)

hair relaxing

c)

hair pressing

d)

hair treatments

22.

A ______ removes 60 to 75 percent of curl from hair.

a)

soft press

b)

medium press

c)

hard press

d)

double press

23.

How should a stylist adjust their soft press thermal pressing procedure for different hair textures and densities?

a)

change the size of the hair subsections

b)

change the amount of moisture in the hair

c)

change hoe frequently the comb is cleaned

d)

change whether or not a pressing oil or cream is used

24.

Thermal pressing should never be done on___________

a)

bleached hair

b)

gray hair

c)

short hair

d)

tinted hair

25.

Backcombing, also known as _____, involves combing small sections of hair from the ends toward the scalp to create a cushion or base.

a)

teasing

b)

slicing

c)

backbrushing

d)

smoothing

26.
Forcing hair between the thumb and the back of the comb to create tension for a pincurl is called _____.
a)
bricklayer
b)
sectioning
c)
sculpting
d)
ribboning
27.

When executing an updo, check the shape from all angles to ensure it is _____.

a)

full and unique

b)

simple and flat

c)

well balanced and proportioned

d)

round and full

28.

Using a product with alpha hydroxy acids on skin treated with an exfoliating drug could cause __________.

a)

excessive bleeding

b)

skin blistering

c)

an irregular heartbeat

d)

a seizure

29.

For proper application, wax should be

a)

hot enough to melt vellus hair

b)

cool enough to apply without applicators

c)

thicker, like caramel sauce

d)

thinner, like pasta water

30.

Why is a patch test done before waxing?

a)

to check for adverse skin reactions

b)

to evaluate levels of pain tolerance

c)

to confirm if a product contains glycolic

d)

to measure the size of fabric strips

31.

Why should a cosmetologist review the client intake form?

a)

to document services and results

b)

to understand client expectations

c)

to verify the next appointment

d)

to identify contraindications for treatment

32.

The arch of the eyebrow follows the __________.

a)

occipital lobe

b)

optical lens

c)

olfactory nerve

d)

orbital bone

33.

When tweezing a client’s eyebrows, which step comes first?

a)

Remove the client’s eye makeup, if applicable.

b)

Brush the eyebrow to remove scaliness.

c)

Blot the area with antiseptic lotion.

d)

Put on new disposable gloves.

34.
To avoid contaminating wax, the applicator used during waxing,
a)
should be used for the entire procedure
b)
should be cleaned and disinfected, and used on another client
c)
should not be used more than one day
d)
should not be double dipped
35.

What are three methods of permanent hair reduction?

a)

electrolysis, laser hair removal, and waxing

b)

electrolysis, waxing, and shaving

c)

photoepilation, electrolysis, and laser hair removal

d)

waxing, shaving, and threading

36.

Which can help prevent bruising during waxing?

a)

testing the wax's temperature

b)

holding the skin taut

c)

applying a cool compress

d)

using mineral face powder

37.

A client wants a back wax and has taken Accutane. A cosmetologist can perform the service if the client __________.

a)

has taken an oral steroid to reduce allergic reaction

b)

is undergoing chemotherapy but has no side effects

c)

uses an exfoliating drug for dry skin on the back

d)

has not used isotretinoin for the last 9 months

38.

Which eyebrow hair removal method needs extra training beyond a cosmetology license?

a)

sugaring

b)

tweezing

c)

shaving

d)

waxing

39.

Which method should not be used for facial hair removal?

a)

sugaring

b)

depilatories

c)

shaving

d)

waxing

40.

Disposable gloves should be worn during waxing to __________.

a)

hold the skin taut

b)

grip fabric strips

c)

avoid contact with bloodborne pathogens

d)

prevent burns from hot wax

41.

What is the correct way to remove a soft wax strip?

a)

Lift the edge of the wax and pull it in the same direction as hair growth.

b)

Pull the wax downward and outward without lifting the edge.

c)

Lift the edge of the strip and pull it straight up.

d)

Pull the strip opposite to hair growth without lifting it up.

42.

Hair growth density on the scalp is determined by __________.

a)

hormonal influences

b)

depilation

c)

skin sensitivity

d)

photoepilation

43.

What is the difference between depilation and epilation?

a)

Depilation removes hair at the skin level, while epilation removes hair from below the skin.

b)

Epilation can be done at home, while depilation must be done at a salon.

c)

Epilation uses chemicals, while depilation uses natural ingredients.

d)

Depilation permanently removes hair, while epilation temporarily reduces hair growth.

44.

Hair removal should not be done on clients taking _____.

a)

alcohol

b)

niacin

c)

Retin-A

d)

vitamin D

45.

The best time to discuss your performance and progress as an employee is during the

a)

lunch hour

b)

staff meeting

c)

employee evaluation

46.
Pathogenic bacteria may produce
a)
oxytocin
b)
antitoxin
c)
disease
d)
beneficial effects
47.

Why should cosmetologists understand hair and scalp properties?

a)

Knowing hair follicle shape helps recommend ways to make hair grow faster.

b)

To know when another stylist should handle situations you don't want to address.

c)

Knowing hair growth cycles and types of hair loss helps recommend hair loss treatments.

d)

Identifying dry or oily scalp helps you prescribe medications to treat the problem.

48.

A 0' haircut, where all hair is one length, is also known as

a)

blunt cut

b)

layer cut

c)

shingled cut

d)

overdirected cut

49.

Haircuts that are uniform layered are most often cut with what degree elevation?

a)

45'

b)

90'

c)

180'

d)

0'

50.

The haircut cut with 180° elevation is called

a)

graduated cut

b)

uniform layered cut

c)

long layered cut

d)

blunt cut

51.
The technique used to check a haircut for precision of line and shape is:
a)
stationary checking
b)
origination lines
c)
cross checking
d)
overdirection
52.
In general, a razor should not be used on curly hair because it can cause damage and
a)
cause the hair to be frizzy
b)
cause the hair to straighten
c)
strengthen it
d)
change the make up of the hair
53.
The amount of pressure applied when combing or holding a subsection of hair during a haircut is called
a)
palming
b)
layering
c)
stationary
d)
tension
54.
When cutting the hair, a general rule of thumb is to stand directly in front of the area you are cutting and to keep your body weight
a)
elevated
b)
centered
c)
angled
d)
all on one leg
55.
When a cosmetologist combs hair away from its natural falling position before cutting in order to increase a hair design's length, the cosmetologist is using
a)
finger angles
b)
haircut sections
c)
elevation
d)
overdirection
56.
How often should a cosmetologist disinfect haircutting shears?
a)
after each client
b)
every day
c)
weekly
d)
whenever the disinfecting technician visits the salon
57.
Which haircutting tool is best suited for cutting a clean line around the ears?
a)
blending shears
b)
trimmers
c)
notching shears
d)
haircutting razor
58.
A haircut with a visual buildup of weight in which the hair ends appear to be stacked is an example of which of the four basic haircuts?
a)
long-layered haircut
b)
layered haircut
c)
graduated haircut
d)
blunt haircut
59.
After a haircut, what should you do with the drape used to cover the client?
a)
fold it and put it away for the next client
b)
put it in a covered container to be properly washed
c)
throw it in the trash
d)
place it in an open laundry basket
60.
When stylists part the haircut in the opposite way from how it was cut, at the same elevation, what are they checking for?
a)
evidence of the shrinking effect
b)
the interior guideline
c)
even distribution
d)
line and shape precision
61.
Surfaces on the head where the head changes, such as the parietal ridge, apex and occipital bone are referred to as
a)
surface layering
b)
reference points
c)
apex points
d)
technique points
62.
Reference points in a haircut are used to establish
a)
head forms
b)
techniques
c)
design lines
d)
tension
63.
Placing the comb flat against the nape of the head and finding where the comb leaves the head can be used to locate the
a)
parietal ridge
b)
occipital bone
c)
apex
d)
four corners
64.
Which sentence best describes the medulla?
a)
The medulla is the outermost layer.
b)
The medulla is a cone shaped elevation at the base of the hair bulb.
c)
The medulla is the hair's pith or inner core.
d)
The medulla is the fibrous protein layer of the hair.
65.
What are the major chemical elements that make up human hair?
a)
COHNS- Carbon, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, and Sulfur
b)
PWLM- Proteins, Water, Lipids, and traces of minerals
c)
AAPP- Amino acids and polypeptide chains
d)
HBSBSB- Hydrogen Bonds, Side Bonds, and Salt Bonds
66.
Which of the following can be a case of dry hair and dry scalp?
a)
overactive sebaceous glands
b)
inactive sebaceous glands
c)
absence of melanin
d)
poor hygiene
67.
Hair is approximately ________ percent protein?
a)
30
b)
50
c)
70
d)
90
68.
The ability of the hair to absorb moisture is hair
a)
porosity
b)
elasticity
c)
density
d)
saturation
69.
The scientific study of hair, its diseases, and its care is known as
a)
dermatology
b)
biology
c)
trichology
d)
cosmetology
70.
The substance secreted by the sebaceous glands is called
a)
sebum
b)
sulfur
c)
subcutaneous membrane
d)
sputum
71.
The technical term for gray hair is
a)
acquired
b)
albino
c)
ringed
d)
canities
72.
The infestation of the hair and scalp with head lice is known as
a)
Furuncle
b)
Tinea Capitis
c)
Pediculosis Capitis
d)
Alopecia Areata
73.
What type of hair ALWAYS has a medulla?
a)
male beard hair
b)
blonde hair
c)
terminal hair
d)
unpigmented hair
74.
Some of the ________________ that plague humans are the common cold, respiratory infections, gastrointestinal tract infections, measles, hepatitis, influenza, and HIV.
a)
bacteria
b)
viruses
c)
fungi
d)
parasites
75.
Colonies of microorganisms that adhere to environmental surfaces are called
a)
biofilms
b)
fungi
c)
biomasses
d)
layered contaminants
76.
What is a contagious skin disease caused by the itch mite?
a)
scabies
b)
blood poisoning
c)
lesions
d)
HIV/AIDS
77.
Completely destroying all microbial life including bacterial spores is known as
a)
Cleaning
b)
Laundering
c)
Sterilizing
d)
Sanitizing
78.
The process that eliminates most, but not necessarily all, microorganisms on nonliving surfaces is called
a)
fumigation
b)
disinfection
c)
sanitation
d)
sterilization
79.
The ability of a disinfecting solution to kill germs when used according to the label is known as
a)
efficacy
b)
disinfection
c)
sterilization
d)
decontamination
80.
5.25% sodium hypochlorite is also known as
a)
quaternary sodium
b)
enzymatic disinfectant
c)
household bleach
d)
phenolic disinfectant
81.
State rules require that all multiuse tools and implements be cleaned and disinfected before and after
a)
every shift
b)
each service
c)
purchase
d)
discarding
82.
Federal and State laws require that salons keep ______________________________ for all chemical products that are used in the salon.
a)
safety data sheets
b)
health safety procedures
c)
standard data documents
d)
hazardous materials sheets
83.
Pediculosis Capitus(head lice) are a ________________, that require a host to survive.
a)
bacteria
b)
parasite
c)
fungi
d)
biofilm
84.
Natural Immunity is both inherited and developed through healthy living.
a)
True
b)
False
85.
When handling a schedule conflict with a client, it is recommended to
a)
argue with the client
b)
never argue and be polite
c)
cancel the appointment
86.
During the consultation process, to reiterate everything discussed with the client means to
a)
repeat in rapid, intense terms
b)
repeat in measured, precise terms
c)
apply pressure to the client
87.
Counseling clients on salon maintenance, limitations, and home maintenance commitments needed to keep the best look is called
a)
preparation
b)
upkeep
c)
criticism
88.
The single most important part of any service that should always be completed before any service is undertaken is the
a)
client request form
b)
sales invoice
c)
client intake form
89.
A pocket or tubelike depression in the scalp or skin that contains the hair root is the
a)
hair follicle
b)
hair bulb
c)
hair shaft
d)
dermal papilla
90.
What is another name for photoepilation?
a)
banding
b)
intense pulsed light
c)
electrolysis
d)
psoriasis
91.
During the consultation for waxing services, cosmetologists should discuss proper aftercare and instruct the client to __________.
a)
apply aloe vera gel for the first 24 hours to soothe the affected area
b)
soak in a hot tub for 30 minutes to reduce any swelling or soreness
c)
sit in direct sunlight for 60 to 90 minutes to counteract any redness
d)
use an exfoliating scrub within the first 12 hours to prevent bruising
92.
Before waxing, trim any hair that is longer than __________ inch.
a)
half inch
b)
eighth of an inch
c)
third of an inch
d)
quarter of an inch
93.
Which post-service procedure should take place at the end of each day?
a)
Wash any used wooden applicators so that they can air-dry overnight.
b)
Make sure the heater is on so wax is melted for morning appointments.
c)
Clean and disinfect multiuse tools so they can be used for services the following day.
d)
Combine jars of partially used cream and clean any empty jars for reuse.
94.
Which type of alopecia is defined as hair loss in round shaped patches caused by the immune system attacking the hair follicle?
a)
androgenic alopecia
b)
postpartum alopecia
c)
alopecia universalis
d)
alopecia areata
95.
Which hair disorder causes terminal hair to grow on areas of a woman's body where it typically does not grow?
a)
hirsuties
b)
hypertrichosis
c)
canities
d)
medulla
96.
If someone has trichoptilosis, what would the treatment be?
a)
a haircut
b)
conditioning treatment
c)
silk press
d)
minoxidil
97.
What is the cause of pityriasis?
a)
bacterial infection
b)
fungal infection
c)
parasitic infection
d)
gene mutation
98.
Your license will unlock countless doors for employment; however, your career will be fueled with
a)
skills and gossip
b)
personal dedication and passion
c)
poor taste and dishonesty
99.
To stay on track with established goals, it is important to remember to
a)
ignore results
b)
lose sight
c)
re-examine often
100.
Professionals who have an easy time talking about themselves and listening to others have developed great
a)
communication skills
b)
attitudes
c)
sensitivity skills

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