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Florida Real Estate License Law Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The Florida Real Estate Commission (FREC) is primarily responsible for:

a)

Enforcing local zoning ordinances

b)

Administering and enforcing Florida real estate license law

c)

Setting mortgage interest rates

d)

Recording deeds and mortgages

2.

How many members of FREC must be licensed real estate brokers who have held an active license for at least 5 years?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

3.

A Florida sales associate’s license must be renewed:

a)

Every year

b)

Every 18 months

c)

Every 2 years

d)

Every 3 years

4.

Which of the following is required for initial licensure as a Florida sales associate?

a)

U.S. citizenship

b)

High school diploma or equivalent

c)

Florida residency

d)

Two years’ experience as an unlicensed assistant

5.

If a licensee does not renew their license by the expiration date, the license:

a)

Automatically becomes void

b)

Becomes involuntary inactive

c)

Becomes suspended for one year

d)

Converts to a broker license

6.

Which agency enforces the real estate license law under Chapter 475, F.S.?

a)

HUD

b)

DBPR

c)

CFPB

d)

EPA

7.

A licensee is found guilty of a minor violation and receives a notice of non-compliance. How long do they have to correct the issue?

a)

7 days

b)

10 days

c)

15 days

d)

30 days

8.

Which of the following activities requires a Florida real estate license?

a)

Paying a referral fee to a neighbor

b)

Selling one’s own property

c)

Managing an apartment complex for salary only

d)

Listing another person’s property for a fee

9.

The “Caveat Emptor” doctrine historically meant:

a)

The seller must disclose all defects

b)

Buyer beware

c)

Agent owes loyalty to both parties

d)

Lender must disclose loan terms

10.

The maximum administrative fine FREC may impose per violation of license law is:

a)

$1,000

b)

$2,500

c)

$5,000

d)

$10,000

11.

If a licensee’s check for license renewal is returned for insufficient funds, FREC may:

a)

Revoke the license automatically

b)

Suspend the license until funds are paid

c)

Impose criminal penalties only

d)

Do nothing

12.

A broker’s license is suspended. What happens to the broker’s sales associates?

a)

They may continue to practice as usual

b)

Their licenses become involuntary inactive

c)

Their licenses are revoked

d)

They automatically become brokers

13.

A licensee who moves must notify the DBPR of their new mailing address within:

a)

10 days

b)

15 days

c)

30 days

d)

60 days

14.

A sales associate may hold an active license under:

a)

Only one broker at a time

b)

Two brokers at a time

c)

A broker and an owner-developer simultaneously

d)

Any number of brokers

15.

FREC’s authority to create rules and regulations that interpret the law is known as:

a)

Quasi-legislative power

b)

Quasi-judicial power

c)

Executive power

d)

Criminal power

16.

FREC’s authority to impose disciplinary actions is an example of:

a)

Quasi-legislative power

b)

Quasi-judicial power

c)

Executive power

d)

Ministerial power

17.

Which of the following is **not** grounds for license suspension or revocation?

a)

Commingling escrow funds

b)

Misrepresentation in advertising

c)

Having a personal bankruptcy

d)

Failure to account for and deliver funds

18.

The Real Estate Recovery Fund is intended to:

a)

Compensate licensees for advertising expenses

b)

Reimburse consumers harmed by a licensee’s actions

c)

Guarantee loan payments

d)

Pay FREC members’ salaries

19.

To be reimbursed from the Real Estate Recovery Fund, the claimant must generally:

a)

Be a licensed broker

b)

Have obtained a civil judgment against the licensee

c)

Live in Florida

d)

Have received prior approval from FREC

20.

Which statement is TRUE regarding unlicensed assistants in Florida?

a)

They may explain contract terms to buyers

b)

They may show properties independently

c)

They may write ads under supervision

d)

They may accept commissions directly from customers

21.

A real estate sales associate owes all of the following duties to a customer in a no-brokerage relationship except:

a)

Deal honestly and fairly

b)

Use skill, care, and diligence

c)

Account for all funds

d)

Present all offers

22.

In a single agency relationship, the broker owes the principal:

a)

Limited confidentiality

b)

Loyalty and full confidentiality

c)

No confidentiality

d)

Obedience only

23.

Designated sales associates in Florida are permitted only:

a)

For residential transactions

b)

For commercial transactions

c)

When both parties waive representation

d)

When the broker has more than one office

24.

Which brokerage relationship notice is not required for residential transactions of 4 or fewer units?

a)

Single agent notice

b)

No brokerage relationship notice

c)

Transition to transaction broker notice

d)

Transaction broker notice (it’s presumed)

25.

A transaction broker in Florida owes all of these duties except:

a)

Limited confidentiality

b)

Presenting all offers

c)

Obedience and full loyalty

d)

Accounting for all funds

26.

When must a brokerage relationship disclosure (for single agency or no brokerage) be provided?

a)

At closing

b)

Before or at the time of entering into a listing agreement

c)

Only if the buyer requests it

d)

Only for nonresidential transactions

27.

A broker receives an earnest money deposit and places it into the operating account to pay bills. This is:

a)

Conversion

b)

Commingling

c)

Legal if less than $1,000

d)

Legal with permission of FREC

28.

How long does a broker have to deposit escrow funds into the escrow account?

a)

Immediately

b)

By the end of the next business day

c)

By the end of the third business day

d)

Within one week

29.

A broker has a good-faith doubt about who is entitled to an earnest money deposit. The broker must notify FREC within:

a)

5 business days

b)

10 business days

c)

15 business days

d)

30 business days

30.

A “good-faith doubt” exists when:

a)

The broker misplaces funds

b)

The parties are in disagreement over escrow disbursement

c)

The buyer’s check bounces

d)

The seller withdraws the listing

31.

A rental information list is sold to a tenant for a fee. If the information is incorrect, the tenant may demand a refund of:

a)

25% within 60 days

b)

50% within 30 days

c)

75% within 30 days

d)

100% within 30 days

32.

A sales associate receives a bonus directly from a grateful buyer. This is:

a)

Legal if disclosed to the broker

b)

Legal if under $1,000

c)

A violation of FREC rules

d)

Legal with written permission from the buyer

33.

A broker opens a branch office in another city. To legally operate from this office, the broker must:

a)

Notify FREC and register the branch office

b)

Obtain a separate broker license

c)

Use a different brokerage name

d)

Hire a second broker

34.

An office sign for a brokerage must include:

a)

The broker’s legal name and trade name only

b)

The broker’s trade name and phone number

c)

The broker’s trade name, legal name, and “licensed real estate broker” or “Lic. Real Estate Broker”

d)

Only the company logo

35.

A sales associate forms a professional corporation for tax reasons. For license registration, the associate must:

a)

Use the corporation’s name on the license

b)

Use their legal personal name on the license

c)

Use any name approved by FREC

d)

Use the broker’s name

36.

A broker’s escrow account may be held:

a)

Only in a Florida bank or savings association

b)

Only with the clerk of court

c)

Only in an attorney’s trust account

d)

In a Florida bank, savings association, or credit union

37.

A broker uses an attorney’s trust account to hold escrow funds. The broker must:

a)

Never reconcile the account

b)

Ensure the attorney is a FREC member

c)

Maintain records of all deposits and withdrawals

d)

Place operating funds in the same account

38.

A broker may legally keep how much of personal funds in a sales escrow account to cover bank fees?

a)

$0

b)

Up to $1,000

c)

Up to $500

d)

Up to $2,000

39.

A broker with a property management escrow account may keep personal funds up to:

a)

$1,000

b)

$2,000

c)

$3,000

d)

$5,000

40.

If a broker fails to reconcile an escrow account monthly and a shortage occurs, the broker may face:

a)

No consequence

b)

License suspension or revocation

c)

Only a written warning

d)

Civil penalties but no discipline

41.

The bundle of rights in real property includes:

a)

Possession, disposition, exclusion, and mortgage

b)

Possession, control, enjoyment, exclusion, and disposition

c)

Use, inheritance, foreclosure, and abandonment

d)

Lien, mortgage, deed, and title

42.

Which estate includes ownership for an indefinite period and is inheritable?

a)

Tenancy at will

b)

Life estate

c)

Fee simple estate

d)

Tenancy at sufferance

43.

Two unmarried persons purchase property together with right of survivorship. They hold title as:

a)

Tenants in common

b)

Tenants by the entireties

c)

Joint tenants

d)

Life tenants

44.

Which type of ownership is available only to married couples in Florida?

a)

Tenancy in common

b)

Tenants by the entireties

c)

Joint tenants

d)

Life tenants

45.

Homestead property in Florida offers:

a)

Protection from all creditors

b)

Some protection from forced sale by certain creditors

c)

No creditor protection

d)

Federal tax exemption

46.

A husband and wife own homestead property. The husband dies intestate (without a will) and is survived by a minor child. The wife receives:

a)

Full fee simple ownership

b)

A life estate, with the remainder to the child

c)

One-half interest; child gets one-half

d)

No interest

47.

Which of the following is a government limitation on property rights?

a)

Mortgage

b)

Easement

c)

Lien

d)

Police power

48.

The right of the government to take private property for public use is:

a)

Escheat

b)

Eminent domain

c)

Police power

d)

Zoning

49.

When a person dies without a will and no heirs can be found, the property transfers to the state by:

a)

Eminent domain

b)

Escheat

c)

Adverse possession

d)

Dedication

50.

A deed must be signed by the grantor and:

a)

Recorded to be valid

b)

Delivered and accepted

c)

Notarized

d)

Witnessed by two people

51.

Which type of deed offers the greatest protection to the grantee?

a)

Quitclaim deed

b)

Special warranty deed

c)

General warranty deed

d)

Bargain and sale deed

52.

A quitclaim deed is often used to:

a)

Provide full warranties

b)

Quiet a cloud on title

c)

Transfer government property

d)

Guarantee clear title

53.

An encumbrance is:

a)

A benefit to the property

b)

An interest or claim by another that may reduce value

c)

A deed restriction only

d)

A form of legal description

54.

A voluntary lien is:

a)

A property tax lien

b)

A mechanic’s lien

c)

A mortgage lien

d)

A judgment lien

55.

A superior lien in Florida is:

a)

Mortgage lien

b)

Judgment lien

c)

Property tax lien

d)

Vendor’s lien

56.

A legal description that uses monuments, distances, and directions is:

a)

Lot and block

b)

Metes and bounds

c)

Government survey

d)

Benchmark method

57.

The NW¼ of the NE¼ of Section 16 contains how many acres?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

40

d)

80

58.

A developer subdivides a tract into streets, lots, and blocks; this is recorded as:

a)

Metes and bounds

b)

Subdivision plat map

c)

Government survey

d)

Escheat map

59.

Restrictive covenants in a subdivision are usually enforced by:

a)

FREC

b)

Local courts

c)

DBPR

d)

The U.S. Supreme Court

60.

A latent defect in a property is:

a)

Obvious and easily seen

b)

Hidden and not readily observable

c)

A title defect only

d)

A zoning issue

61.

A contract that has all essential elements and is legally binding is:

a)

Void

b)

Voidable

c)

Unenforceable

d)

Valid

62.

Which is not an essential element of a real estate contract?

a)

Offer and acceptance

b)

Consideration

c)

Written form in every case

d)

Legal purpose

63.

An oral lease agreement for 10 months is:

a)

Void

b)

Voidable

c)

Enforceable

d)

Unenforceable under the Statute of Frauds

64.

The transfer of contractual rights and obligations to another party is:

a)

Assignment

b)

Novation

c)

Rescission

d)

Breach

65.

The substitution of a new party and/or new contract, releasing the original party, is:

a)

Assignment

b)

Novation

c)

Rescission

d)

Forbearance

66.

Which clause in a mortgage allows the lender to call the entire balance due upon default?

a)

Defeasance clause

b)

Acceleration clause

c)

Alienation clause

d)

Prepayment clause

67.

A clause in a mortgage that prevents the borrower from transferring the property without lender approval is:

a)

Acceleration clause

b)

Alienation (due-on-sale) clause

c)

Defeasance clause

d)

Subordination clause

68.

Which is the best definition of “equity” in real estate?

a)

Loan balance minus property taxes

b)

Property value minus mortgage debt

c)

Mortgage interest minus principal

d)

Assessed value minus loan balance

69.

A borrower obtains a loan for 80% of a property’s value. The loan-to-value ratio (LTV) is:

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

80%

d)

100%

70.

A property sells for $300,000. The commission rate is 6%. How much is the total commission?

a)

$18,000

b)

$12,000

c)

$9,000

d)

$6,000

71.

A sales associate is to receive 60% of the total commission. If the property sells for $250,000 at 5% and the broker keeps 40%, the associate’s share is:

a)

$3,000

b)

$4,500

c)

$5,000

d)

$7,500

72.

Monthly rent is $2,400. The seller has received the full rent for the month, and closing is on the 10th of a 30-day month. How much rent should be credited to the buyer?

a)

$160

b)

$800

c)

$1,600

d)

$2,400

73.

A property is assessed at $200,000. The tax rate is 16 mills. What is the annual property tax?

a)

$2,000

b)

$3,200

c)

$3,600

d)

$4,000

74.

A borrower obtains a $180,000 loan at 5% interest, interest-only for the first year. What is the annual interest?

a)

$7,000

b)

$8,000

c)

$9,000

d)

$9,500

75.

A seller wants to net $190,000 after paying 6% commission and $2,000 in closing costs. What should the listing price be (rounded to the nearest dollar)?

a)

$200,000

b)

$204,255

c)

$204,468

d)

$205,319

76.

A property’s market value is $350,000. If the loan-to-value ratio is 90%, what is the loan amount?

a)

$280,000

b)

$300,000

c)

$315,000

d)

$320,000

77.

A building earns annual potential gross income of $120,000, has 5% vacancy and $30,000 in operating expenses. What is the net operating income (NOI)?

a)

$78,000

b)

$84,000

c)

$84,500

d)

$90,000

78.

Using the income approach, if the NOI is $60,000 and the capitalization rate is 8%, what is the estimated value?

a)

$480,000

b)

$600,000

c)

$650,000

d)

$750,000

79.

Documentary stamp tax on the deed in Florida is:

a)

$.35 per $100 of consideration (most counties)

b)

$.70 per $100 of consideration

c)

$.35 per $1,000 of consideration

d)

$.70 per $1,000 of consideration

80.

Intangible tax on a new mortgage in Florida is:

a)

$.002 per $1 of new mortgage debt

b)

$.002 per $100 of new mortgage debt

c)

$.002 per $1,000 of new mortgage debt

d)

$.002 per $10,000 of new mortgage debt

81.

The principle of substitution says:

a)

Property value is based on reproduction cost

b)

A buyer will not pay more for a property than for a substitute with similar utility

c)

Property value is determined by the cost of land and improvements

d)

A property’s value is based on its highest and best use

82.

The principle of conformity states that:

a)

Property achieves maximum value when it is different

b)

Values are highest when properties are similar in style and use

c)

Overimprovement always increases value

d)

Zoning has no effect on value

83.

External obsolescence is:

a)

Caused by physical wear and tear

b)

Located within the property boundaries

c)

Caused by factors outside the property

d)

Always curable

84.

The sales comparison approach is most appropriate for:

a)

Special-purpose properties

b)

Single-family homes in an active market

c)

New construction only

d)

Land only

85.

Functional obsolescence is:

a)

Loss of value from outdated design or features

b)

Physical deterioration

c)

Caused by external forces

d)

Normal depreciation

86.

The Civil Rights Act of 1968 (Fair Housing Act) prohibits discrimination based on:

a)

Race only

b)

Race, color, religion, national origin, sex, handicap, and familial status

c)

Age and marital status

d)

Occupation and income level

87.

Steering is defined as:

a)

Directing buyers to or away from neighborhoods based on a protected class

b)

Setting different prices for different buyers

c)

Refusing to show listings to certain buyers

d)

Advertising that indicates a preference

88.

Blockbusting is:

a)

Denying loans in certain neighborhoods

b)

Persuading owners to sell because minorities are moving in

c)

Charging higher commissions to certain sellers

d)

Refusing to advertise homes to minorities

89.

Redlining is:

a)

A fair housing violation in advertising

b)

Directing buyers to specific neighborhoods

c)

Denying loans in certain areas regardless of qualifications

d)

Refusing to sell to families with children

90.

Which type of property is exempt from some provisions of the Fair Housing Act (if certain conditions are met)?

a)

Single-family home sold by owner without broker and limited advertising

b)

All rental properties

c)

Commercial office buildings

d)

Government-owned housing

91.

A landlord refuses to allow a disabled tenant to install grab bars in the bathroom at the tenant’s expense. This is:

a)

Legal, because alterations are not allowed

b)

Legal, if mentioned in the lease

c)

A potential fair housing violation

d)

Permitted under ADA only

92.

An ad that reads “Perfect for single professionals, no children” is:

a)

Acceptable

b)

Acceptable if approved by the broker

c)

Potentially discriminatory against familial status

d)

Only a violation if someone complains

93.

Real property is best described as:

a)

Land only

b)

Land plus improvements and legal rights

c)

Personal property

d)

Fixtures only

94.

Personal property is also known as:

a)

Realty

b)

Chattel

c)

Fixtures

d)

Improvements

95.

A fixture is:

a)

Always removable

b)

Personal property that is permanently attached and becomes real property

c)

A type of encumbrance

d)

A form of legal description

96.

A time-share estate usually involves:

a)

Ownership of personal property only

b)

A right-to-use lease

c)

Fee simple interest with a right to occupy for a specific time period each year

d)

Only commercial properties

97.

A planned unit development (PUD) typically features:

a)

No common areas

b)

Mixed uses such as residential, commercial, and recreational

c)

Only high-density housing

d)

Government ownership

98.

A comprehensive plan is:

a)

A short-term zoning variance

b)

A local government’s long-range guide for growth and land use

c)

A developer’s private plan

d)

An HOA rulebook

99.

Zoning that allows one specific property to continue its existing use when the zoning changes is:

a)

Variance

b)

Special exception

c)

Nonconforming use

d)

Spot zoning

100.

A variance is:

a)

Permission to deviate from zoning requirements for a specific property

b)

A complete change in zoning classification

c)

A temporary use permit

d)

A change in the comprehensive plan