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CSC MID TERM Quiz

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The volume of trading on the dealer market for bonds is ______________ the volume of trading for equities.

a)

Higher than

b)

Lower than

c)

The same as

2.

A(n) ______________________ is a privately owned computerized network that matches orders for securities outside recognized exchange facilities.

a)

CanDeal

b)

Lynx

c)

Clearing house

d)

Alternative Trading system

3.

What are the three important characteristics of capital?

a)

Mobile, Scarce, Tangible

b)

Sensitive, Scarce, Expensive

c)

Mobile, Sensitive, Scarce

d)

Abundant, Mobile, Predictable

4.

Which of the following is not one of the Canadian electronic trading systems for fixed-income securities?

a)

CanDeal, Canfx, MarketAxess and CUB

b)

CBID, CBID Institutional, Lynx, Firewall

c)

CanPx, TMX Money, CBID, CANDEAL

d)

CanDeal, CBID, CanPX, and MarketAxess

5.

The unlisted market does not set any listing requirements nor does it attempt to regulate companies.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A market with frequent sales, narrow price spreads, and small price fluctuations is known as a ___________________ market.

a)

Thin

b)

Liquid

c)

Volatile

d)

Dealer

7.

The financial market that deals with bringing new securities to market is known as the ________________________ market.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Dealer

d)

Auction

8.

Which of the following is not a Canadian exchange?

a)

TSX

b)

TSX Venture

c)

NASDAQ

d)

CSE

9.

Which of the following is not an indicator of a liquid market?

a)

Frequent sales

b)

Narrow price spreads

c)

Small price fluctuations

d)

Large bid-ask spreads

10.

A debt instrument is:

a)

An ownership interest in a company

b)

A written promise to repay borrowed money with interest

c)

A certificate of deposit

d)

A government grant

11.

A principal acts ______________________, while an agent acts ______________________.

a)

On behalf of others; for their own account

b)

For their own account; on behalf of others

c)

As a middleman; as an issuer

d)

As a regulator; as a dealer

12.

The primary market involves ________________, while the secondary market involves ________________.

a)

Existing securities; new securities

b)

New securities; trading of existing securities

c)

Dealers; exchanges

d)

Foreign exchange; domestic exchange

13.

The securities firm department responsible for maintaining client accounts (cash and margin) is the ___________________ department.

a)

Back Office

b)

Middle Office

c)

Trading

d)

Compliance

14.

What is the CDS (CDSX)?

a)

Canadian Derivative System

b)

Clearing and Depository Services Inc.

c)

Central Data Securities

d)

Canadian Dividend Service

15.

Almost all bonds and debentures are sold through dealer markets in the secondary market.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

When acting as a(n) ___________________, the broker acts on behalf of the buyer or seller and therefore charges a commission.

a)

Agent

b)

Principal

c)

Underwriter

d)

Dealer

17.

Which of the following are examples of auction markets in Canada?

a)

CanDeal and CanPX

b)

TSX and TSX Venture Exchange

c)

CBID and MarketAxess

d)

Canadian Unlisted Board (CUB) and CanDeal

18.

Schedule I and II banks must be wholly owned by Canadian residents.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

The difference between what banks pay as interest on deposits and what they charge as interest on loans is known as the ___________________.

a)

Spread

b)

Exchange rate

c)

Discount rate

d)

Prime rate

20.

Which of the following correctly lists the four departments in securities firms?

a)

Management, Front Office, Middle Office, Back Office

b)

Retail, Institutional, Legal, Audit

c)

Treasury, Trading, Sales, Settlements

d)

Lending, Capital, Custody, Credit

21.

The securities department responsible for facilitating trades for retail and institutional clients is the ___________________ department.

a)

Management

b)

Middle

c)

Front

d)

Back

22.

What is the CSE?

a)

Canadian Securities Exchange – an alternative to the TSX Venture for emerging companies

b)

Central Stock Exchange – for government securities

c)

Canadian Settlement Exchange – clearing system

d)

Credit Securities Entity – a trust company

23.

A direct investment is in a ________________, while an indirect investment is in a ________________.

a)

Real asset; financial asset

b)

Financial asset; real asset

c)

Stock; bond

d)

Fund; property

24.

___________________ banks focus on retail business.

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule II

c)

Schedule III

d)

Schedule IV

25.

When evaluating a country for risk, what is considered positive with regard to its labour force?

a)

Low unemployment

b)

High-skilled labour force

c)

Government wage control

d)

Strong unionization

26.

Which supplier of capital is the least significant in Canada?

a)

Individuals

b)

Non-financial corporations

c)

Governments

d)

Foreign investors

27.

What is a Firewall?

a)

A computer virus protection program

b)

Controls to prevent information sharing between business units

c)

A legal barrier against insider trading

d)

A type of government regulation

28.

An investor dislikes large companies but needs to borrow money to buy a house. Which financial intermediary best meets his needs?

a)

Trust company

b)

Insurance company

c)

Credit Union

d)

Schedule I bank

29.

Assume you are a Canadian investor in Swiss Franc denominated bonds. If the Swiss economy is booming, will this increase or decrease the value of your investment?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Cannot be determined

30.

If you invest in a company that sells primarily in Canada and imports many of its raw materials and components, how would a sudden fall in the Canadian dollar likely affect your stock's price?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Cannot be determined

31.

Falling lumber prices cause forest products companies to lay off employees. This describes _____________________ unemployment.

a)

Frictional

b)

Structural

c)

Cyclical

d)

Seasonal

32.

Housing starts are a _________________ indicator.

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

c)

Coincident

d)

Contrarian

33.

Sandy is 16 years old and is looking for work. Sandy would be included in which employment statistics?

a)

employed

b)

Participation rate

c)

Labor force

d)

unemployment statistics

34.

The Canadian Investor Protection Fund protects each public investor against loss through failure of a member up to what amount?

a)

$100,000

b)

$10,000,000

c)

$1,000,000

d)

an amount decided by CIPF annually

35.

Which of these are considered to be SROs?

a)

CIRO

b)

OSC

c)

ME, TSX, TSX Venture

d)

OSFI

36.

What is the DNCL, and how does it affect Investment Advisors?

a)

Do Not Contact List; Investment Advisors cannot solicit individuals on the list

b)

Domestic National Compliance List; regulates advisor licensing

c)

Default National Credit Limit; limits client investments

d)

Direct Net Client Ledger; tracks client accounts

37.

If inflation increases, what happens to interest rates?

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Stay the same

d)

Cannot be determined

38.

What is the Balance of Payments?

a)

A record of all international transactions of a country

b)

The government’s annual budget

c)

The central bank’s monetary policy statement

d)

The trade balance only

39.

When inflation is caused by the cost of raw materials going up and feeding into higher prices, this is termed _______________________

a)

Demand-pull inflation

b)

Cost-push inflation

c)

Hyperinflation

d)

Structural inflation

40.

New computer systems enable a firm to increase productivity by eliminating jobs. This would be considered ______________ unemployment.

a)

Cyclical

b)

Structural

c)

Frictional

d)

Seasonal

41.

What does the Phillips Curve tell us?

a)

That inflation and unemployment have an inverse relationship

b)

Relationship between interest rates and investment

c)

Relationship between GDP and CPI

d)

Relationship between government debt and tax rates

42.

When the USA has higher inflation than Canada, who has the highest exchange rate?

a)

Canada

b)

USA

c)

Both equal

d)

Cannot be determined

43.

If the Canadian government appears to others to be in a position not to be able to repay their debt (default risk), what happens to interest rates in Canada?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stay the same

d)

Cannot be determined

44.

If Canada has a current account deficit and England has a current account surplus, who would likely have the highest exchange rate?

a)

Canada

b)

England

c)

Both equal

d)

Cannot be determined

45.

What is front-running?

a)

Placing orders for your own account before executing client orders to benefit from anticipated price movements

b)

Investing in foreign markets before they open

c)

Hedging against market risk using derivatives

d)

Buying stocks only after a public announcement

46.

The two components of the Balance of Payments are the ______________ account and the ____________________ account.

a)

Current; Capital

b)

Trade; Financial

c)

Revenue; Investment

d)

Savings; Expenditure

47.

Which financial market is responsible for trading previously issued securities?

a)

Secondary market

b)

Primary market

c)

Dealer market

d)

Auction market

48.

What is the main function of a self-regulatory organization (SRO) in the financial industry?

a)

To set listing requirements for companies

b)

To regulate and oversee member conduct

c)

To manage monetary policy

d)

To issue government bonds

49.

If Canada's economy grows 4% compared to 2.5% in the US, it will _________________ the external value of the Canadian dollar

a)
depreciate
b)
fluctuate
c)

decrease

d)
increase
50.

If Canada records a current account deficit, it will ___________________ the external value of the Canadian dollar.

a)
decrease
b)
have no effect
c)
increase
d)
stabilize
51.

Which of the following is not used in measuring GDP on an expenditure basis?

a)
Consumption
b)

Income/ wages

c)
Government Spending
d)
Net Exports
52.

What does OSFI stand for?

a)
Organization of Supervisors for Financial Integrity
b)
Office of the Superintendent of Fiscal Investments
c)
Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions
d)
Office of the Secretary of Financial Institutions
53.


What does OBSI stand for?

a)
Ombudsman for Banking Services and Investments
b)
Office of Banking Services and Investments
c)
Ombudsman for Business Services and Investments
d)
Ombudsman for Banking Standards and Initiatives
54.

The base year for CPI calculations is _________

a)

2015

b)

1992

c)

1984

d)

2002

55.

If the federal government wants to stimulate the economy, it could decrease the tax rate.

a)

false

b)

true

56.

The use of interest rates, and the money supply to influence demand and inflation is known as ________________policy

a)
monetary
b)
fiscal
c)
trade
d)
regulatory
57.

True/ false

One of the Bank's cash management techniques is a drawdown, which involves moving federal government deposits from the Bank of Canada to the direct clearer's accounts

a)
True
b)
False
58.


A method of influencing interest rates by altering settlement balances between the Bank of Canada and the direct clearers is referred to as a(n):

a)
fiscal policy adjustments
b)
quantitative easing
c)
interest rate swaps
d)

drawdown and redeposit

59.

true/false

Most fixed income securities are ones where the income stream is known, as is the maturity date and value.

a)
false
b)
true
60.

true/false

A negotiable bond must also be a marketable bond

a)
false
b)
true
61.

true/false

Provincial bonds and Government of Canada bonds are actually debentures because they are simply promises to pay and their level of security or safety depends upon the government's ability to pay rather than on the quality of assets used as security.

a)
false
b)
true
62.

Which of the following organizations is responsible for overseeing the conduct of investment dealers in Canada?

a)

Canadian Securities Administrators

b)

Canada Revenue Agency

c)

CIRO

d)

Bank of Canada

63.

A bond is rated AA by Moody's Bond Rating Service. Which statement is true?

a)
The bond has a low risk of default.
b)
The bond has a high risk of default.
c)
The bond is guaranteed by the government.
d)
The bond is considered junk status.
64.

What's a collateral Trust bond?

a)
A bond that guarantees a fixed interest rate.
b)
A bond secured by collateral held in trust.
c)
A bond that is not secured by any assets.
d)
A type of bond issued by the government.
65.

true/false

Eurobonds are called Eurobonds because they are denominated in the currencies of the European countries.

a)
Eurobonds are exclusively issued by the European Union.
b)
Eurobonds are always issued in euros.
c)
Eurobonds are only available to European investors.
d)
false
66.

true or false


Both bonds and debentures are usually secured by real assets


a)
true
b)
false
67.

A bond quoted as trading at 98, but with a $1000 par value would mean that __________


a)

The bond is trading at $1000 a premium

b)
The bond is trading at $950.
c)

The bond is trading at $900 discount

d)

The bond is trading at $980 a discount

68.

true/false

Bonds with low coupon rates have more price volatility than bonds with high coupon rates

a)
false
b)
true
69.

What is a bond?

a)

an agreement or friendship

b)

binding security

c)

something that binds, fastens, confines, or holds together

d)

a type of debt a company issues to investors

70.

A bond issued by a corporation is called a ________ .

a)

corporate bond

b)

market share

c)

stock option

d)

share of stock

71.

The rate of interest on a bond is called the ________ .

a)

bond rate

b)

coupon rate

c)

discount rate

d)

interest rate

72.

If a bond's yield to maturity is lower than its coupon rate, the bond will sell at a discount.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

As a bond approaches its maturity date, its price necessarily approaches par value.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

When the price of bond is calculated below its par value, it is classified as...

a)

classified bond

b)

discount bond

c)

compound bond

d)

consideration earnings

75.

A bond which has a yield to maturity greater than its coupon rate will sell for a price

a)

below par

b)

at par

c)

above par

d)

equal to face value of bond plus the interest payments

76.

What is a coupon?

a)

something you use in a supermarket to decrease your cost

b)

an asset bought in the stock market

c)

used in the stock market to lessen the initial cost of stocks

d)

the interest rate on a bond at the time it is issued

77.

If a bond was issued with a 5% coupon rate and the market rate is now 8%, the coupon payment:

a)

Goes up

b)

Goes down

c)

Stays the same

78.

What will happen to the market value of a bond if interest rates rise?

a)

market value will decrease

b)

market value will increase

c)

Stay the same

d)

No idea

79.

A bond which has a yield to maturity greater than its coupon rate will sell for a price

a)

below par

b)

at par

c)

above par

d)

equal to face value of bond plus the interest payments

80.

A type of long-term financing used by both corporations and government entities is

a)

common stock

b)

bonds

c)

preferred stock

d)

retained earnings

81.

Bonds are

a)

a series of short-term debt instruments.

b)

a form of equity financing that pays interest.

c)

long-term debt instruments.

d)

a hybrid form of financing used to raise large sums of money from a diverse group of lenders.

82.

4. The ________ value of a bond is also called its face value. Bonds which sell at less than face value are priced at a ________, while bonds which sell at greater than face value sell at a ________.

a)

premium; discount; par

b)

discount; par; premium

c)

par; discount; premium

d)

coupon; premium; discount

83.

The value of a bond is the present value of the

a)

dividends and maturity value.

b)

interest and dividend payments.

c)

maturity value

d)

interest payments and maturity value.

84.

What is the primary purpose of a bond?

a)

To generate dividends for shareholders

b)

To raise capital through loans

c)

To provide equity financing

d)

To facilitate stock trading

85.

When a bond is sold at a premium, it means that the bond's price is:

a)

above its face value

b)

below its face value

c)

equal to its face value

d)

subject to market fluctuations

86.

The term 'maturity date' in relation to bonds refers to:

a)

The date when the bond can be converted to stock

b)

The date when the bond is first issued

c)

The date when the bond issuer must repay the principal

d)

The date when interest payments begin

87.

Which of the following is a characteristic of zero-coupon bonds?

a)

They are issued by governments only

b)

They have a fixed interest rate

c)

They are sold at a discount and do not pay interest

d)

They pay interest periodically

88.

Who issues bonds?

a)

Individuals

b)

Commercial banks and retail banks

c)

Governments and companies

d)

Corporates

89.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between bond prices and market interest rates?

a)

They move in the same direction

b)

They always remain constant

c)

They move in opposite directions

d)

They are not related

90.

What happens to the price of a bond if its coupon rate is higher than the current market interest rate?

a)

The bond will not be sold

b)

The bond will sell at par value

c)

The bond will sell at a discount

d)

The bond will sell at a premium

91.

Which Canadian organization insures investors against losses due to insolvency of a member firm?

a)

Canadian Investor Protection Fund (CIPF)

b)

Canada Deposit Insurance Corporation (CDIC)

c)

Investment Industry Regulatory Organization of Canada (IIROC)

d)

Bank of Canada

92.

Which of the following is considered a lagging economic indicator?

a)

Consumer confidence index

b)

Housing permits

c)

Unemployment rate

d)

Stock market returns

93.

According to the Phillips Curve, what happens to unemployment when inflation rises?

a)

Unemployment fluctuates randomly

b)

Unemployment decreases

c)

Unemployment remains unchanged

d)

Unemployment increases

94.

What happens to the price of existing bonds in the secondary market when interest rates rise?

a)

Prices decrease

b)

Prices increase

c)

Prices remain unchanged

d)

Prices become volatile

95.

Which of the following is considered a leading economic indicator?

a)

Gross domestic product

b)

Consumer price index

c)

Housing starts

d)

Unemployment rate