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Tapeworms and Their Anatomy

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All tapeworms (cestodes) have which type of life cycle?

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Facultative

d)

Autoinfective

2.

The scolex of a true tapeworm functions primarily as:

a)

A reproductive organ

b)

An attachment organ

c)

A digestive organ

d)

A locomotor organ

3.

The muscular suckers on the scolex of true tapeworms are called:

a)

Bothria

b)

Proglottids

c)

Rostella

d)

Acetabula

4.

The rostellum of a tapeworm is best described as:

a)

The tail segment

b)

A snout that may bear hooks

c)

A slitlike sucker

d)

The gravid segment

5.

The body of a tapeworm, composed of individual segments, is called the:

a)

Scolex

b)

Strobila

c)

Cysticercus

d)

Miracidium

6.

Proglottids closest to the neck region of the tapeworm are:

a)

Gravid

b)

Immature

c)

Cystic

d)

Infective larvae

7.

True tapeworms (Eucestodes) differ from pseudotapeworms (Cotyloda) in that pseudotapeworms have:

a)

Bothria as attachment organs

b)

Acetabula only

c)

No scolex

d)

No reproductive organs

8.

Eggs of pseudotapeworms are typically:

a)

Non-operculated and thick-shelled

b)

Operculated and released in water

c)

Found only in intermediate hosts

d)

Not passed in feces

9.

Dogs and cats become infected with Dipylidium caninum primarily by ingesting:

a)

Rodents

b)

Rabbits

c)

Fleas

d)

Ticks

10.

The prepatent period of Dipylidium caninum is approximately:

a)

3–5 days

b)

7–10 days

c)

14–21 days

d)

30–45 days

11.

Echinococcus spp. are of particular concern because:

a)

They have very long strobilae

b)

They cause liver fluke disease

c)

They have zoonotic hydatid cyst forms

d)

They infect only rodents

12.

Echinococcus adults are characterized by:

a)

Many proglottids and large scolex

b)

Only three proglottids (immature, mature, gravid)

c)

No scolex

d)

Absence of reproductive organs

13.

The intermediate host for D. caninum is:

a)

Snail

b)

Flea

c)

Mosquito

d)

Earthworm

14.

Spirometra spp. are commonly referred to as:

a)

Zipper tapeworms

b)

Broad fish tapeworms

c)

Thorny-headed worms

d)

Beef tapeworms

15.

Diphyllobothrium species are known as:

a)

Zipper tapeworms

b)

Broad fish tapeworms

c)

Liver flukes

d)

Blood flukes

16.

Trematodes (flukes) generally require at least one intermediate host, which is almost always a:

a)

Flea

b)

Tick

c)

Mollusk (snail/slug)

d)

Rodent

17.

Eggs of digenetic trematodes are typically:

a)

Thick-walled and non-operculated

b)

Operculated and contain a miracidium

c)

Found only in intermediate hosts

d)

Not passed in feces

18.

The lizard poisoning fluke of cats is:

a)

Nanophyetus salmincola

b)

Platynosomum fastosum

c)

Paragonimus kellicotti

d)

Fasciola hepatica

19.

The salmon poisoning fluke of dogs is:

a)

Nanophyetus salmincola

b)

Platynosomum fastosum

c)

Paragonimus kellicotti

d)

Dicrocoelium dendriticum

20.

The lung fluke of dogs, often diagnosed via tracheal wash, is:

a)

Fasciola hepatica

b)

Paragonimus kellicotti

c)

Heterobilharzia americanum

d)

Dicrocoelium dendriticum

21.

Fasciola hepatica is commonly known as the:

a)

Lung fluke

b)

Blood fluke

c)

Liver fluke of ruminants

d)

Thorny-headed worm

22.

Acanthocephalans are:

a)

Common in dogs and cats

b)

Thorny-headed worms without a true gut

c)

Segmented flatworms

d)

Roundworms of the intestine

23.

Anticestodal drugs primarily act to:

a)

Inhibit DNA synthesis

b)

Paralyze tapeworms and damage their cuticle

c)

Prevent egg shedding by nematodes

d)

Kill protozoal cysts

24.

A key characteristic of anticestodals is that dead tapeworms:

a)

Are expelled intact, with many proglottids

b)

Dissolve and are digested; proglottids are not seen

c)

Leave the body through urine

d)

Encyst in muscles

25.

Praziquantel:

a)

Is narrow spectrum and effective only against roundworms

b)

Is broad spectrum against cestodes in a single dose

c)

Is ovicidal for all tapeworm eggs

d)

Is ineffective in small animals

26.

Epsiprantel (Cestex) is:

a)

Identical in spectrum to praziquantel

b)

Narrower in spectrum and ineffective against Echinococcus

c)

Only effective against nematodes

d)

A topical anticestodal

27.

Protozoa are best described as:

a)

Multicellular organisms without nuclei

b)

Single-celled organisms

c)

Viruses with envelopes

d)

Fungal spores

28.

The trophozoite stage of protozoa is the:

a)

Resistant, dormant stage

b)

Stage of feeding, movement, and reproduction

29.

The cyst stage of protozoa functions primarily to:

a)

Aid in locomotion

b)

Enhance reproduction

c)

Protect the organism and aid in transmission

d)

Produce toxins

30.

Giardia trophozoites are often described as:

a)

Round with a single nucleus

b)

Pear-shaped with 'eyes' (two nuclei) and flagella

c)

Crescent-shaped with an undulating membrane

d)

Leaf-like with cilia

31.

Giardia cysts are best detected using:

a)

Direct smear with water

b)

Fecal flotation with zinc sulfate

c)

Baermann technique

d)

Blood smear

32.

The life cycle of Giardia includes:

a)

Only a cyst stage

b)

Only a trophozoite stage

c)

Both trophozoite and cyst stages

d)

No environmental forms

33.

Trypanosoma cruzi is primarily transmitted by:

a)

Fleas

b)

Ticks

c)

Kissing bugs (reduviid bugs)

d)

Snails

34.

The swimming blood stage of Trypanosoma is called the:

a)

Amastigote

b)

Tachyzoite

c)

Trypomastigote

d)

Bradyzoite

35.

Leishmania spp. are transmitted by:

a)

Mosquitoes

b)

Ticks

c)

Sandflies

d)

Fleas

36.

Tritrichomonas foetus in cattle primarily affects the:

a)

Respiratory system

b)

Reproductive tract

c)

Nervous system

d)

Kidneys

37.

A major clinical issue caused by Tritrichomonas foetus in cattle is:

a)

Chronic diarrhea

b)

Infertility and early abortions

c)

Neurologic signs

d)

Renal failure

38.

Birds infected with Trichomonas gallinae may have lesions in the:

a)

Liver and spleen

b)

Crop and esophagus

c)

Kidneys and bladder

d)

Lungs and trachea

39.

Histomonas meleagridis infection in turkeys is also known as:

a)

Blackhead

b)

White muscle disease

c)

Red nose

d)

Blue tongue

40.

Cats are the only definitive host for:

a)

Cryptosporidium parvum

b)

Toxoplasma gondii

c)

Giardia duodenalis

d)

Eimeria tenella

41.

Toxoplasma gondii oocysts are typically shed by cats for:

a)

Their entire life

b)

One month

c)

Less than 2 weeks total

d)

Only when older than 10 years

42.

Most humans acquire Toxoplasma infection by:

a)

Cleaning litter boxes

b)

Ingesting undercooked meat

c)

Drinking contaminated water

d)

Contact with infected birds

43.

Cryptosporidium infections are of concern because they are:

a)

Not zoonotic

b)

Only seen in cats

c)

Zoonotic and affect many species

d)

Always fatal

44.

The diagnostic stage of Cystoisospora (coccidia of dogs/cats) in feces is the:

a)

Trophozoite

b)

Oocyst

c)

Tachyzoite

d)

Miracidium

45.

Babesia spp. are typically described as:

a)

Pear-shaped organisms within RBCs

b)

Flagellates in the intestinal lumen

c)

Ciliated protozoa

d)

Amoebas in the CNS

46.

Transmission of Babesia in animals most often involves:

a)

Fleas

b)

Ticks

c)

Snails

d)

Lice

47.

Cytauxzoon felis infection in cats is often:

a)

Subclinical and mild

b)

Rapidly fatal

c)

Non-pathogenic

d)

Only respiratory

48.

The intraerythrocytic forms of Cytauxzoon felis are commonly described as:

a)

Banana-shaped

b)

Signet-ring or bejeweled rings

c)

Round, large inclusions

d)

Filamentous

49.

Hepatozoon infection in dogs is acquired primarily by:

a)

Tick bite

b)

Mosquito bite

c)

Blood transfusion

d)

Flea bite

50.

Balantidium coli, a ciliated protozoan, is found primarily in the:

a)

Small intestine of dogs

b)

Large intestine of swine

c)

Blood of cattle

d)

Lungs of birds

51.

Rickettsial organisms such as Ehrlichia and Anaplasma are best described as:

a)

Free-living bacteria

b)

Obligate intracellular gram-negative bacteria

c)

Viruses

d)

Fungi

52.

Hematopoiesis refers to:

a)

Breakdown of blood cells

b)

Production of blood cells and platelets

c)

Coagulation processes

d)

Blood pressure regulation

53.

In adult animals, the primary site of hematopoiesis is the:

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Red bone marrow

d)

Thymus

54.

The hormone responsible for stimulating RBC production is:

a)

Thrombopoietin

b)

Erythropoietin (EPO)

c)

Leukopoietin

d)

Renin

55.

Erythropoietin is produced mainly by the:

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Spleen

c)

Kidneys

d)

Liver only

56.

Thrombopoiesis refers to the production of:

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Platelets

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Eosinophils

57.

The precursor cell that gives rise to all blood cell lines is the:

a)

Myeloblast

b)

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell

c)

Rubriblast

d)

Megakaryocyte

58.

The packed cell volume (PCV) represents:

a)

The number of platelets

b)

The percentage of whole blood composed of RBCs

c)

The volume of plasma proteins

d)

The number of leukocytes

59.

A microhematocrit tube with a red ring indicates it is:

a)

Plain

b)

Heparinized

c)

EDTA-coated

d)

Sodium citrate-coated

60.

A cloudy, milky plasma layer on a spun PCV sample indicates:

a)

Icterus

b)

Lipemia

c)

Hemolysis

d)

Dehydration

61.

A deep yellow (gold) plasma color on a PCV usually indicates:

a)

Lipemia

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Icterus (bilirubin elevation)

d)

Dehydration

62.

A reddish tinge to plasma in a spun PCV tube suggests:

a)

Lipemia

b)

Hemolysis

c)

Hyperproteinemia

d)

Hypoproteinemia

63.

A PCV below the reference interval most likely indicates:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Polycythemia

c)

Anemia

d)

Hyperlipidemia

64.

Plasma is:

a)

Whole blood minus RBCs only

b)

The fluid portion of blood including clotting factors

c)

Serum plus fibrinogen removed

d)

RBCs plus platelets

65.

Serum is:

a)

Plasma without fibrinogen

b)

Plasma plus anticoagulant

c)

Whole blood minus WBCs

d)

Whole blood minus platelets

66.

Which anticoagulant is preferred for hematologic studies (CBC)?

a)

Heparin

b)

EDTA

c)

Sodium citrate

d)

Sodium fluoride

67.

Sodium citrate (blue top tube) is primarily used for:

a)

CBC

b)

Serum biochemistry

c)

Coagulation testing

d)

Blood typing only

68.

Sodium fluoride in blood tubes is mainly used as a:

a)

Coagulation enhancer

b)

Glucose preservative

c)

RBC stabilizer

d)

Platelet activator

69.

In a well-hydrated animal with PCV 50%, 10 mL of whole blood will yield approximately:

a)

1 mL plasma

b)

3 mL plasma

c)

5 mL plasma

d)

8 mL plasma

70.

If transferring blood from a syringe to a tube with anticoagulant, you should:

a)

Leave the needle on to minimize exposure

b)

Remove the needle before transfer

c)

Shake vigorously after filling

d)

Use glass syringes only

71.

A complete blood count (CBC) typically includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Packed cell volume

b)

Total RBC count

c)

Differential WBC count

d)

Serum chemistry profile

72.

A blood smear is still necessary even with automated analyzers because:

a)

Machines cannot count cells

b)

Morphologic abnormalities and parasites can be missed

c)

Machines do not measure PCV

d)

Blood smears are only for platelets

73.

The “feathered edge” of a blood smear is:

a)

Too thick to read

b)

The optimal area for WBC differential

c)

Where microfilariae and large cells collect

d)

Unstained

74.

For anemic blood, the angle of the spreader slide should be:

a)

Larger

b)

Smaller

c)

The same as normal

d)

Vertical

75.

Romanowsky-type stains (e.g., Diff-Quik) are used primarily to stain:

a)

Bacteria only

b)

Blood cells and cytology samples

c)

Fungi only

d)

Urine crystals only

76.

The most abundant WBC in most mammals is:

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Monocyte

c)

Neutrophil

d)

Eosinophil

77.

Increased neutrophil numbers usually indicate:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Allergic reaction

c)

Parasitic infection

d)

Infection/inflammation (often bacterial)

78.

Eosinophilia is commonly associated with:

a)

Viral infection

b)

Allergies and parasitism

c)

Trauma

d)

Neoplasia only

79.

The predominant WBC in ruminants is:

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

80.

Monocytes are large cells whose primary function is:

a)

Antibody production

b)

Phagocytosis

c)

Coagulation

d)

Histamine release

81.

Basophils are often associated with:

a)

Modulation of immune and allergic responses

b)

RBC production

c)

Liver disease

d)

Parasite transmission

82.

Rouleaux formation is:

a)

Normal in horses

b)

Always pathologic in all species

c)

Indicative of viral infection

d)

A sign of bacterial infection

83.

Autoagglutination is usually associated with:

a)

Dehydration

b)

Immune-mediated disorders coating RBCs with antibodies

c)

Iron deficiency

d)

Liver disease

84.

Anisocytosis refers to variation in:

a)

RBC shape

b)

RBC size

c)

RBC color

d)

WBC number

85.

Polychromasia in RBCs is typically associated with:

a)

Old, senescent RBCs

b)

Young RBCs (reticulocytes)

c)

Iron overload

d)

RBC parasites

86.

Schistocytes are:

a)

RBCs with central pallor

b)

Fragmented RBCs

c)

Tear-drop shaped RBCs

d)

Sickle-shaped RBCs

87.

Acanthocytes are commonly associated with which condition in dogs?

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Hemangiosarcoma

c)

Renal failure

d)

Hypothyroidism

88.

Spherocytes are strongly suggestive of:

a)

Iron deficiency anemia

b)

Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia

c)

Dehydration

d)

Chronic liver disease

89.

Heinz bodies are associated with:

a)

Oxidant damage to RBCs

b)

Iron deficiency

c)

Dehydration

d)

Chronic liver disease

90.

The presence of nucleated RBCs in mammalian peripheral blood is usually:

a)

Normal in all adult mammals

b)

A sign of regenerative anemia or bone marrow stress

c)

Seen only in horses

d)

Not clinically relevant

91.

Reticulocytes are:

a)

Mature RBCs

b)

Immature RBCs containing residual RNA

c)

Immature WBCs

d)

Platelet fragments

92.

In cats, punctate reticulocytes:

a)

Are the only type seen

b)

Are the aggregate form

c)

Persist longer and represent older reticulocytes

d)

Do not stain with new methylene blue

93.

Reticulocyte counts are not typically used in which species to assess regenerative anemia?

a)

Cats

b)

Dogs

c)

Cattle

d)

Horses

94.

A corrected reticulocyte count is calculated to:

a)

Adjust for serum protein levels

b)

Account for anemia severity using PCV

c)

Correct for platelet count

d)

Adjust for WBC count

95.

Bone marrow evaluation is particularly indicated in cases of:

a)

Mild dehydration

b)

Persistent unexplained pancytopenia

c)

Simple skin infection

d)

Acute trauma

96.

A bone marrow described as hypercellular indicates:

a)

Aplasia

b)

Increased cellularity

c)

Decreased cellularity

d)

Normal bone marrow

97.

Regenerative anemia is characterized by:

a)

Absence of reticulocytes

b)

Increased erythrocyte production with reticulocytosis

c)

Normal bone marrow response

d)

Decreased EPO

98.

Nonregenerative anemia implies:

a)

Adequate bone marrow response

b)

Bone marrow failure or inability to keep up

c)

Hemorrhage only

d)

Hemolysis only

99.

Microcytic, hypochromic anemia is most commonly associated with:

a)

Iron deficiency

b)

Acute blood loss

c)

Dehydration

d)

Polycythemia

100.

Horses with anemia:

a)

Routinely show marked reticulocytosis

b)

Rarely release reticulocytes into circulation

c)

Should not be evaluated with bone marrow

d)

Have no regenerative response

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