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CHEMISTRY HONORS EXAM SEMESTER 1 PRACTICE

Total questions: 161

Worksheet time: 6hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which piece of lab equipment will be safe to use when heating a flammable substance?

a)

Bunsen burner

b)

Hot plate

c)

stricker

d)

burette

2.

Which two of Dalton’s theories statements are wrong? (Select all that apply)

a)

atoms are indivisible (subatomic particles exist)

b)

matter is composed of atoms

c)

atoms of a given element are identical (isotopes exist)

d)

different atoms combined in definite proportion to form compounds

3.

In a chemistry lab, what is the proper technique to mix water and acid?

a)

Add water to acid.

b)

Add acid to water.

c)

Heat the water then add acid.

d)

Water and acid should not be mixed.

4.

Identify the type of reaction shown. Mg + AgNO3 → Ag + Mg(NO3)2

a)

synthesis

b)

combustion

c)

single displacement

d)

double displacement

e)

decomposition

5.

What are the two categories of matter?

a)

pure substance and solution

b)

elements and compounds

c)

homogeneous and heterogeneous

d)

pure substance and mixture

6.

Which of the following subatomic particles identifies an element?

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

d)

antineutrino

7.

What are two types of pure substance?

a)

elements and solution

b)

elements and compounds

c)

homogeneous and heterogeneous

d)

solution and compounds

8.

Which subatomic particles are inside the nucleus?

a)

protons and neutrons

b)

electrons and protons

c)

neutrons and electrons

d)

protons and antineutrinos

9.

When an electron moves from the excited state to the ground state, which of the following has occurred?

a)

An electron absorbs light.

b)

An electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level.

c)

An electron emits light.

d)

An electron becomes excited.

10.

Which subatomic particle has a negative charge, a negligible mass, and is located outside the nucleus?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

positron

11.

1.       When a wavelength increases the frequency________and the energy _________.

a)

decreases, decreases

b)

increases, increases

c)

stays the same, stays the same

d)

decreases, increases

12.

What is an isotope?

a)

atoms of the same element, but different numbers of protons

b)

atoms of the same element, but different numbers of neutrons

c)

atoms the different elements with the same number of protons, but different neutrons

d)

atoms of different elements with different protons, but same number of neutrons

13.

An element has an atomic number of 76. The number of protons and electrons in a neutral atom of the element are ____.

a)

152 protons and 76 electrons

b)

76 protons and 0 electrons

c)

38 protons and 38 electrons

d)

76 protons and 76 electrons

14.

Which is the mass of the electron?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

depending on the element

d)

-1

15.

Which of the following is the use of nuclear science?

a)

generating power

b)

in medical field

c)

military applications

d)

all of the above

16.

An atom is the smallest particle of an element that still has the properties of that element.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

According to the picture, _____ depicts the trend for electronegativity and ______ is the correct one for atomic radii.

a)

a. diagram a, diagram c

b)

b. diagram b, diagram c

c)

c. diagram c, diagram a

d)

d. diagram b, diagram d

18.

In the following reaction, the substance that is reduced is ____ and the one that oxidizes is ____. K(s) + Br2(g) → KBr(s)

a)

b. Br2, K

b)

a. K, Br2

c)

c. KBr, K

d)

d. Br2, KBr

19.

The atomic mass of an element is the ____.

a)

total number of subatomic particles in its nucleus

b)

weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of the element

c)

total mass of the isotopes of the element

d)

average of the mass number and the atomic number for the element

20.

An atom has no electrical charge because:

a)

its subatomic particles are neither positively nor negatively charged

b)

the positively charged neutrons cancel out the negatively charged protons

c)

positively charged protons cancel out the negatively charged electrons

d)

the positively charged protons cancel out the negatively charged neutrons

21.

In a nuclear reaction, changes happen in the nucleus and the identity of your radioactive isotope changes.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

A (n) ____ of energy is the amount of energy required to move an electron from its present energy level to the next higher one.

a)

quantum

b)

frequency

c)

quark

d)

amplitude

23.

Which block is element “Y” most likely found in?

Element Block Characteristics

X s Soft, shiny grey metal; highly reactive, lightweight

Y ? Liquid at room temperature; has the highest electronegativity in its period

Z p Used as a semiconductor due to its electricity-conducting properties

a)

s-block

b)

p-block

c)

d-block

d)

f-block

24.

Polar compounds tend to have _____ melting & boiling points than nonpolar compounds because of ______ intermolecular forces.

a)

higher, stronger

b)

frequency

c)

lower, weaker

25.

Which of the following in order of INCREASING strength?

a)

Dipole-dipole, London Dispersion Forces, Ion-dipole and Hydrogen bond

b)

Hydrogen bond, Ion-dipole, London Dispersion Forces and Dipole-dipole

c)

London Dispersion Forces, Dipole-dipole, Hydrogen bond and Ion-dipole

d)

Hydrogen bond, London Dispersion Forces, Ion-dipole and Dipole-dipole

26.

The arrows on the pictures show ________ intermolecular force.

a)

ion-dipole

b)

dipole-dipole

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

London Dispersion

27.

Which of the following is the correct molecular shape and molecule polarity for carbon dioxide.

a)

tetrahedral, non-polar

b)

trigonal pyramidal, polar

c)

linear, non-polar

d)

bent, polar

e)

trigonal planar, non-polar

28.

Which element has the following electron configuration: 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p⁶4s²3d¹⁰4p⁶5s²4d³?

a)

scandium (Sc)

b)

niobium (Nb)

c)

vanadium (V)

d)

arsenic (As)

29.

Salt water can be classified as a(n) ________.

a)

element

b)

mixture

c)

compound

d)

alloy

30.

Which of the following subatomic particles identifies an isotope?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

antineutrino

31.

Fusion is defined as the splitting of atoms, but in fission atoms are combined.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Calcium atoms are ________ than calcium ions.

a)

bigger

b)

smaller

c)

the same size

33.

Fluorine atoms are ______ than fluorine ions.

a)

bigger

b)

smaller

c)

the same size

34.

What is the formula for copper (II) sulfate.

a)

Cu₂SO₄

b)

CuSO₄

c)

CuSO₃

d)

CuS

35.

What is the proper name of CCl₄

a)

monocarbon tetrachloride

b)

carbon chloride

c)

carbon quadrachlorine

d)

carbon tetrachloride

36.

What is the chemical formula formed of aluminum and nitrogen?

a)

AlN

b)

Al₃N₃

c)

Al₂N₃

d)

Al(NO₃)₃

37.

Which of these isotopes has the most influence (abundant) on sodium elements?

a)

sodium-22

b)

sodium-24

c)

sodium-23

d)

they all contribute equal amount

38.

What are the properties of covalent compounds?

a)

mostly gases at room temperature, except Br₂

b)

conducts electricity

c)

has low melting and boiling points

d)

form between two or more non-metals

e)

have weak bonds

39.

Covalent compounds involve ________ valence electrons and ionic compounds ________ their valence electrons.

a)

transferring, sharing

b)

sharing, transferring

40.

A barium atom______ electrons to form a ______, while a fluorine atom ______ electrons to form a(an) ____.

a)

gain, cation, lose, anion

b)

lose, cation, gain, anion

c)

lose, anion, gains, cation

d)

gains, cation, lose, anion

41.

Identify which of the following processes are endothermic.

a)

Melting of ice

b)

Condensation of steam

c)

Freezing of water

d)

Combustion of methane

42.

What makes an atom’s nucleus unstable?

a)

the ratio between n⁰ and p⁺

b)

the ratio between e⁻ and n⁰

c)

the ratio between p⁺, n⁰ and e⁻

d)

an atom’s nucleus cannot get unstable

43.

Which of the following is NOT an example of fission?

a)

energy from a nuclear power plant

b)

radiation therapy

c)

the energy produced by the sun

d)

a nuclear bomb

44.

Which of the following is an attractive force occurring between neighboring molecules holding them together?

a)

intermolecular forces

b)

Van de Graff forces

c)

intramolecular forces

d)

dipole moments

45.

Which of the following states of matter is highly compressible because its particles are very far from each other?

a)

liquid

b)

solid

c)

gas

d)

plasma

46.

According to the law of conservation of mass, when sodium, hydrogen, and oxygen react to form a compound, the mass of the compound is ___ the sum of the masses of the individual elements.

a)

equal to

b)

less than

c)

greater than

d)

either greater than or less than

47.

Which of the following is the correct number of protons, neutrons and electron in a S−2?

a)

16 protons; 16 electrons; 16 neutrons

b)

18 protons; 16 electrons; 16 neutrons

c)

6 protons; 6 electrons; 6 neutrons

d)

16 protons; 18 electrons; 16 neutrons

48.

Which of the following is the correct time-line for the development of atomic models?

a)

Planetary, Nuclear, Plum Pudding, Billiard Ball

b)

Planetary, Plum Pudding, Nuclear, Billiard Ball

c)

Billiard Ball, Nuclear, Plum Pudding, Planetary

d)

Billiard Ball, Plum Pudding, Nuclear, Planetary

49.

Which of the following is the correct time-line for the discovery of subatomic particles?

a)

nucleus, protons, electrons, neutrons

b)

neutrons, electrons, nucleus, protons

c)

electrons, nucleus, protons, neutrons

d)

electrons, protons, nucleus, neutrons

50.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
51.
How many protons does this isotope of titanium have?
a)
48
b)
22
c)
26
d)
70
52.
What is an ion?
a)
A Charged Atom
b)
A Large Atom
c)
A Small Atom
d)
A Cute Atom
53.
How many electrons can the d sublevel hold?
a)
14
b)
10
c)
2
d)
6
54.
This orbital diagram represents:  
a)
C
b)
B
c)
N
d)
O
55.
What is the atomic number of this atom?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
9
d)
none of the above
56.
How many neutrons does the isotope of lithium have?
a)
8
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
57.
How many neutron are in the atom "K"?
a)

1

b)

19

c)
39
d)

20

58.

Which color has the longest wavelength?

a)

Yellow

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Purple

59.
The shortest wavelength in visible light is______.
a)
violet
b)
red
c)
blue
d)
yellow
60.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
61.
Which element is pictured?
a)
neon
b)
fluorine
c)
magnesium
d)
argon
62.

In the Bohr model, what is the term for the lowest energy level of an electron in an atom?

a)

Excited state

b)

Ground state

c)

Ionized state

d)

Neutral state

63.

Which orbital does the image represent?

a)

s

b)

p

c)

d

d)

f

64.

As you move across from left to right the Periodic Table

The atomic radius_____.

a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
65.
Identify the element with 5 valence electrons in period 4
a)
Sn- Tin
b)
Be- Beryllium
c)
As- Arsenic
d)
B- Boron
66.

Which element is found in group 6A period 5?

a)

Chromium (Cr)

b)

Tungsten (W)

c)

Molybdenum (Mo)

d)

Lead (Pb)

67.

Match the example with the correct classification of matter.

a)

Element

1.

Magnesium

b)

Compound

2.

Epson Salt (MgSO4)

c)

Mixture

3.

Steel

68.

What is the proper name for the lab technique used to smell a substance?

       

a)

whiffing

b)

wafting

c)

waffling

d)

waving

69.

Which of the following is NOT evidence of a chemical change?

      

a)

gas bubbles formation

b)

changes in color

c)

changes in temperature/energy

d)

changes in size of a substance

70.
Name the following ionic compound: LiNO3
a)
lithium nitrate
b)
lithium III nitrate
c)
lithium nitride
d)
lithium oxide
71.

Name the compound NH4OH

a)

ammonium hydroxide

b)

ammonia oxyhydride

c)

mononitrogen tetraoxihydride

d)

hydrogen nitrate

72.

Name the compound CuO

a)

copper (II) oxide

b)

copper oxide

c)

copper (I) oxide

d)

carbon uranium oxide

73.

What is the formula for calcium phosphide?

a)

Ca3(PO4)2

b)

Ca2P3

c)

Ca3P2

d)

Ca2P

e)

Ca3(PO3)2

74.
What is the formula for Tribromine nonoxide? 
a)
Br3O9
b)
Br3O10
c)
Br3O6
d)
Br3O4
75.

Name the compound Fe(NO2)3

a)
iron nitrite
b)
iron (III) nitrate
c)
iron (III) nitrite
d)
ferric nitrite
76.
Which of the following is an ionic compound?
a)
CCl4
b)
CO2
c)
NO2
d)
CuCl2
77.
The pair of ions listed below with similar chemical properties is 
a)
F1- and Cl1-
b)
F1- and Li1+
c)
Na1+ and Cl1-
d)
Na1+ and F1-
78.

Which of the following is a brittle, crystalline solid that conducts electricity when dissolved in water?

a)

SCl3

b)

H2O

c)

CH4

d)

NH4OH

79.

Which of the following compounds has a low melting point?

a)

NH4OH

b)

H2O

c)

K2O

d)

NaH

80.
Which of the following is an example of a COVALENT COMPOUND?
a)
H2S
b)
KI
c)
CaCl2
d)
MgO
81.

What is the correct Lewis Dot Structure for ammonia NH3

a)

b)

c)

d)

82.

Which is the correct molecular structure for carbon dioxide?

a)
b)
c)
d)
83.

CO2 has how many lone pairs?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

e)

4

84.

Carbonate (CO32-) has how many double bonds?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

85.
What is the correct structure for BF3?
a)
Option A.
b)
Option B. 
c)
Option C.
d)
Option D.
86.

What are resonance structures?

a)

Structural the same structures that have different bond arrangements

b)

Structures that are similar, but not the same VSEPR shape

c)

Structures that have been drawn three times

87.

How many bonds can hydrogen make?

a)

Only 1

b)

1 or 2 Bonds

c)

1 bond with 6 electrons on it

d)

It never makes bonds

88.

This could be the dot diagram of

a)

Mg

b)

Cl

c)

C

d)

O

89.

This is a correct dot diagram for neon (Ne)

a)

true

b)

false

90.
Which electron configuration belongs to Chlorine (Cl)?
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
c)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p7
91.
What is the noble gas configuration for beryllium?
a)
[He]1s2
b)
[He]2s2
c)
[Li]2s1
d)
[Li]2s2
92.
What is the noble gas configuration for Sulfur?
a)
[Ar] 3p4
b)
[He] 3s2 3p4
c)
[Ne] 3s2 3p4
d)
[Na] 3s2 3p4
93.

What is the noble gas configuration for Cobalt?

a)

[Kr] 4s2 3d7

b)

[Kr] 4s2 4d7

c)

[Ar] 4s2 3d7

d)

[Ar] 4s2 4d7

94.

The periodic table is organized by increasing__________.

a)
atomic mass
b)
atomic size
c)
atomic number
d)
atomic periodicity
95.
The periodic table if organized by atomic number.  This section of the periodic table is called a(n)
a)
group
b)
period
c)
series
d)
set
96.
The elements from this section of the periodic table all belong to the same ....
a)
family
b)
group
c)
period
d)
column
97.
Which element is an example of a metalloid?
a)
gold
b)
helium
c)
iron
d)
silicon
98.
All elements in the same group ...
a)
Have similar chemical properties
b)
Have the same number of proton
c)
Are in the same state at room temperature
d)
Have the same boiling and freesing points
99.
The most abundant type of element on the periodic table is ...
a)
metalloids
b)
metals
c)
non-metals
d)
gases
100.

Which element is the most reactive?

a)

Silicon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Lithium

d)

Aluminum

101.

Which color on the image of the periodic table corresponds with the halogens.

a)

red

b)

black

c)

blue

d)

orange

102.

Which color on the image of the periodic table corresponds with the noble gases.

a)

red

b)

black

c)

blue

d)

orange

103.

Which color on the image of the periodic table corresponds with the transition metals.

a)

red

b)

black

c)

blue

d)

orange

104.

Which color on the image of the periodic table corresponds with the alkaline earth metals.

a)

yellow

b)

dark yellow

c)

blue/green

d)

teal

105.
Which of the following is the atomic number of an alkali metal?
a)
31
b)
20
c)
18
d)
19
106.

What block is represented by the colour red?

a)

p-block

b)

d-block

c)

s-block

d)

f-block

107.

What block is represented by the colour blue?

a)

p-block

b)

d-block

c)

s-block

d)

f-block

108.

What block is represented by the colour green?

a)

p-block

b)

d-block

c)

s-block

d)

f-block

109.

What block is represented by the colour yellow?

a)

p-block

b)

d-block

c)

s-block

d)

f-block

110.

________ arranged the periodic table in order of atomic mass contrary to its modern arrangement by increasing atomic number.

a)

Moseley

b)

Newland

c)

Bohr

d)

Mendeleev

111.

A roman numeral is used to indicate the ______ of common transition metal ions.

a)

number

b)

charge

c)

symbol

d)

protons

112.

Which of the following is NOT a diatomic molecule?

a)

nitrogen

b)

carbon

c)

hydrogen

d)

iodine

113.

The sum of the protons and neutrons in an atom equals the ____.

a)

atomic number

b)

nucleus number

c)

mass number

d)

atomic mass

114.

Which of the following compounds would have the WEAKEST bonds?

a)

CaCO3

b)

CH4

c)

NaCl

d)

FeO

115.

Carbon is able to make so many bonds because: 

a)

it is an active non-metal

b)

it has four valence electrons to share and get a full octet

c)

it has six electrons and protons when is neutral

d)

none of the above

116.

Put these in increasing order of electronegativity
F, N, B

a)
B < N < F
b)
B < F < N
c)
N < F < B
d)
F < N < B
117.
Which has the greater EN: 
Cl or Al?
a)
Cl
b)
Al
118.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Tetrahedral
d)
Linear
119.
What geometry will this molecular structure have?: H2S
a)
bent
b)
tetrahedral
c)
linear
d)
trigonal pyramidal
120.
Choose the correct shape for this molecule:
a)
Trigonal planar
b)
Trigonal pyramidal
c)
Bent
d)
Tetrahedral
121.

Order the following in increasing atomic radii: 
Fe, K, Br, Ca, As

with 1 being the smaller ...

a)

Br

b)

As

c)

Fe

d)

Ca

e)

K

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
122.
As you move down a group, atomic radius increases because - 
a)
you add more and more neutrons
b)
you add more and more protons
c)
you add more and more shells (energy levels)
d)
you add more atomic mass
123.
Hydrogen bonding occurs when hydrogen is bonded to N, O, or F.  Which of the following has hydrogen bonding?
a)
CBr4
b)
NO2
c)
H2S
d)
NH3
124.

Which substance would have the weakest intermolecular forces of attraction?

a)

CH4

b)

NaCl

c)

H2O

d)

MgF2

125.
Intermolecular force present in HCl?
a)
dipole dipole
b)
dispersion
c)
H-bond
d)
ionic
126.

Which type of radiation can be stop by metals, such aluminum?

a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma 
d)
Microwaves
127.
Arrange in order of increasing ability to penetrate matter.
a)
Beta, gamma, alpha
b)
Alpha, gamma, beta
c)
Gamma, beta, alpha
d)
Alpha, beta, gamma
128.
Alpha particles have a _____ charge.
a)
+2
b)
0
c)
+1
d)
-1
129.
What does it mean when an element is radioactive?
a)
atom emits radiation
b)
nucei unstable due to uneven p to n ratio
c)
nuclei changes to become stable
d)
all of the above
130.
What do these symbols represent?
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
neutron
d)
gamma ray
131.
What type of nuclear reaction is this?
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
hot
132.
What type of reaction is this?
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
quiet
133.

What can change shape, but not volume?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

134.

Definite volume, but change shape to the shape of the container its in.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Superfluid

135.

Definite shape and volume. Particles are held close together and vibrate in place.

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Fluid

136.
Sublimation is . . . .
a)
solid to gas
b)
gas to solid
c)
solid to liquid
d)
liquid to gas
137.
Deposition is . . . .
a)
gas to solid
b)
solid to gas
c)
gas to liquid
d)
liquid to solid
138.
Condensation is . . . .
a)
gas to liquid
b)
liquid to gas
c)
gas to solid
d)
solid to liquid
139.
Evaporation (or vaporization) is . . . .
a)
liquid to gas
b)
gas to liquid
c)
solid to gas
d)
liquid to solid
140.
Melting (or fusion) is . . . .
a)
solid to liquid
b)
liquid to solid
c)
liquid to gas
d)
solid to gas
141.
Freezing (or solidification) is . . . .
a)
liquid to solid
b)
solid to liquid
c)
solid to gas
d)
solid to plasma
142.
Which phases of matter are fluid? (molecules flow freely)
a)

liquids, gases, solids

b)
solids, liquids, gases, plasmas
c)
liquids, gases
d)
liquids only
143.

What phase of matter is shown here?

a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Plasma
144.
A chemical reaction that involves a gain/loss of electrons is called:
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Neutralization
c)
Oxidation-Reduction
d)
Hydrolysis
145.
What is the oxidation of C in CH4?
a)
-4
b)
-1
c)
+4
d)
+1
146.
What is oxidation number of Mn in MnO2 ?
a)
0
b)
+2
c)
-2
d)
+4
147.
What is oxidation number of P in K3PO4?
a)
+1
b)
+5
c)
-2
d)
0
148.
What are oxidation numbers?
a)
Number of electrons in the outer most energy level
b)
Number of protons
c)
Electrons gained or lost in chemical bonding
d)
Number of neutrons gained or lost
149.

Match the following, remember the rules

a)

The algebraic sum of oxidation numbers of a neutral atom (alone atom) or molecule is equal to

1.

0 (zero)

b)

The oxidation number of a polyatomic ion must be equal to:

2.

the charge of the ion

c)

NO3-

3.

The oxidation number is -1

d)

N−3N^{-3}

4.

the oxidation number is -3

e)

The oxidation number is Zero (0)

5.

Cu

150.

4Si + S8 --> 2Si2S4


What type of reaction is this?

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single displacement

d)

Double displacement

151.
Which chemical reaction breaks down into 2 substances?
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Single Replacement
c)
Synthesis
d)
Decomposition
152.
The reaction below is an example of?
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
a)
Single Replacement
b)
Double Replacement
c)
Decomposition
d)
Combustion
153.
What type of reaction is illustrated below?
2HI --> H2  +  I2
a)
synthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
single replacement
d)
double replacement
154.

What type of reaction is C3H8 + 5O2 => 3CO2 + 4H2O?

a)
combination
b)
decomposition
c)
combustion
d)
both combination and decomposition
155.
Subatomic particles with a positive charge
a)
neutrons
b)
atomic mass
c)
protons
d)
isotopes
156.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

157.
Subatomic particles that are neutral in charge
a)
Neutrons
b)
Protons
c)
Nucleus 
d)
Electrons
158.

What is the center of an atom called?

a)

The headquarters

b)

The centrometer

c)

The hypothesis

d)

The nucleus

159.
Which statement correctly describes the structure of an atom?
a)
Positively charged nucleus surrounded by positively charged electrons
b)
Positively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons
c)
Negatively charged nucleus surrounded by negatively charged electrons
d)
Negatively charged nucleus surrounded by positively charged electrons
160.
These two particles have approximately the same mass
a)
protons & positrons
b)
protons & electrons
c)
Protons & neutrons
d)
Electrons & neutrons
161.

How many electrons are shared in a single bond?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

2

d)

0

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