wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Trimester 1 Review (AP Bio Units 1-4)

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 3hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of bond joins oxygen and hydrogen together within one water molecule?

a)

Nonpolar Covalent Bonds

b)

Hydrogen Bonds

c)

Polar Covalent Bonds

d)

Ionic Bonds

2.

What is the range of the entire pH scale?

a)

2-14

b)

1-14

c)

0-14

d)

1-13

3.

All lipids are _________ in water.

a)

hydrophobic

b)

phosphate

c)

insoluble

d)

dehydration synthesis

4.

What are example of nucleic acids

a)

Adenine

b)

DNA

c)

Thymine

d)

RNA

5.

What is dehydration synthesis

a)

A reaction where large molecules are made into small molecules by removing water

b)

A reaction where small molecules are made into large molecules by removing water

c)

A reaction where small molecules are made into large molecules by adding water

d)

A reaction where large molecules are made into large molecules by adding water

6.

What type of bonds join two water molecules together?

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

ionic bonds

d)

capillary action

7.

What property allows water molecules to stick together?

a)

cohesion

b)

adhesion

c)

density

d)

capillary action

8.

What property allows water to stick to other substances?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

High Specific Heat

d)

Capillary Action

9.

What property allows water to move up from the roots to the leaves of the plant?

a)

Capillary Action

b)

Cohesion

c)

Adhesion

d)

Surface Tension

10.

Why does Ice float?

a)

It is more dense than water

b)

surface tension

c)

It is less dense than water

d)

high specific heat

11.

What property prevents large bodies of water from quickly fluctuating in temperature?

a)

Surface Tension

b)

High Specfic Heat

c)

Polarity

d)

Covalent Bonds

12.

What property allows some insects to walk accoss water?

a)

Jesus

b)

Surface Tension

c)

Density

d)

Polarity

13.

What does polar mean?

a)

When they share the same amount of electrons

b)

There are more positive electrons

c)

There are more negative electrons

d)

Unequal sharing of the electrons making water a polar molecule

14.

What type of ions do bases produce?

a)

H+

b)

OH-

c)

H-

d)

OH+

15.

What type of ions do acids produce?

a)

H+

b)

H-

c)

OH-

d)

OH+

16.

What is the range of an acid?

a)

1-6

b)

1-6.7

c)

1-6.3

d)

1-6.9

17.

What is the range of a base?

a)

7.2-14

b)

7-14

c)

7.1-14

d)

7.5-14

18.

What number on the pH scale is considered neutral?

a)

7

b)

6

c)

8

d)

9

19.

How are polymers made from monomers?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration synthesis

c)

Cellulose

d)

Starch

20.

How are polymers broken back down into monomers?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration synthesis

c)

Starch

d)

Cellulose

21.

What is the function of carbs?

a)

Supply short term energy

b)

Structure Support

c)

Long term energy

d)

No support in structure

22.

Plants store excess sugar as?

a)

Starch

b)

Cellulose

c)

Glucose

d)

Fructose

23.

Which polysaccharide makes up the tough cell wall of plants?

a)

Starch

b)

Cellulose

c)

Glucose

d)

Sugar

24.

What is a monosaccharide and a example?

a)

A simple sugar

b)

1

c)

Lactose

d)

Glucose

25.

What is a disaccharide and an example?

a)

2

b)

Lactose

c)

A sugar

d)

3 or more

26.

What is a Polysaccharide and an example?

a)

3 or more

b)

Starch

c)

A Simple Sugar

d)

Lactose

27.

Phospholipids have a glycerol head, fatty acid tails and a __________________?

a)

Carbon

b)

Oxygen

c)

Phosphate

d)

Hydrogen

28.

Saturated fats are ?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Lack double bonds

d)

Have double bonds

29.

Unsaturated fats are ?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Lack double bonds

d)

Have double bonds

30.

Which level of protien structure includes the alpha helix and Beta pleated sheets?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Teritary

d)

Quaternery

31.

Which level of protien structure includes amino acids joined otgether by peptide bonds?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Teritary

d)

Quaternery

32.

What are the functions of protiens?

a)

Body tissue

b)

Coordinate body functions

c)

No body tissue

d)

No body functions

33.

What part of an amino acid is different for each of the 20 amino acids?

a)

Structure

b)

Body tissue

c)

Electrical Charge

d)

Polarity

34.

What are the elements found in the four macromolecules?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Nitrogen

e)

Phosphorus

35.

What is the monomer of nucleic acids?

a)

Monosaccharide

b)

Amino acids

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Glycorel and fatty acids

36.

What are two examples of Nucleic Acids?

a)

DNA

b)

Meat

c)

RNA

d)

Eggs

37.

What is dehydration synthesis

a)

Two monomers come together with water

b)

Two monomers break apart with water

c)

Two monomers come together with glucose

d)

Two monomers break apart with glucose

38.

What is hydrolysis

a)

Two monomers come together with water

b)

Two monomers break apart with water

c)

Two monomers come together with glucose

d)

Two monomers break apart with glucose

39.

One of the key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotes from a prokaryotic ancestor is the endomembrane system. What eukaryotic organelles or features might have evolved as a part of, or as an elaboration of, the endomembrane system?

a)

plasma (cell) membrane

b)

chloroplasts

c)

mitochondria

d)

nuclear membrane

40.

In a bacterial cell, one of the subunits of the ribosome is called 30s and is composed of about 20 different proteins. A mutation occurs that changes the structure of one of these proteins.  What effect will this most likely have on the bacterial cell?

a)

It would stimulate binary cell fission and the cell would divide uncontrollably.

b)

The cell would be unable to properly synthesize proteins.

c)

Development of abnormal hereditary features would occur in the cell.

d)

Increased protein absorption would occur through the cell membrane

41.

Which of the following statements regarding the mitochondria is correct?

a)

Mitochondria contain their own ribosomes and thus produce some of their own proteins.

b)

Mitochondria are involved in the transport that occurs as a part of the endomembrane system.

c)

Mitochondria rely on the DNA of the eukaryote cell in order to function correctly.

d)

Mitochondria produce ATP only used by themselves.

42.

A cross section of part of a Golgi complex is shown. Part of the membrane of the Golgi complex pinches off and moves away. Which of the following is a function of this process?

a)

to release energy from ATP

b)

to deliver proteins to other locations in the cell

c)

to collect amino acids for use in protein synthesis

d)

to sent messages about cell requirements to the nucleus

43.

Which of the following statements correctly matches a cell part with its function

a)

The cell membrane packages lipids for export

b)

The mitochondria perform photosynthesis

c)

The lysosome digests molecules

d)

The nucleus produces energy

44.

Trichondia is a eukaryotic organism that attaches itself to fish and eats bacteria. Which of the following distinguishes Trichodina from all prokaryotes?

a)

Trichodina is unicellular

b)

Trichodina has a nucleus

c)

Trichodina has cytoplasm

d)

Trichodina is heterotrophic

45.

Keratin is a protein found in hair. Where in a cell is keratin made?

a)

nucleus

b)

vacuole

c)

ribosomes

d)

mitochondria

46.

After a protein is constructed at the ribosome, it can be transported to the Golgi complex for modification. What cellular structure is used in this transport?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Mitochondrion

c)

Nuclear pore

d)

Endoplasmic reticulum

47.

You are told that the cells on a microscope slide are plant, animal, or bacterial. You look at them through a microscope and see cell walls and membrane-bound organelles. How should these cells be classified?

a)

plant cells

b)

animal cells

c)

They could be plant cells or bacterial cells.

d)

They could be plant cells, animal cells or bacterial cells.

48.

Which of the following is a major difference between a prokaryote and a eukaryote?

a)

The need for nutrients.

b)

The presence of a nucleus.

c)

The presence of a cell membrane.

d)

The presence of DNA.

49.

Why are chloroplasts found in plant cells but NOT in animal cells?

a)

Plant cells are producers that make their own food.

b)

Plant cells need additional protection from herbivores.

c)

Animal cells do not need to store water.

d)

Animal cells store their DNA in the nucleus.

50.

What is the name of organelle D?

a)

mitochondrion

b)

nucleus

c)

Golgi body

d)

vacuole

51.

Which organelle breaks down food to release energy?

a)

B

b)

D

c)

G

d)

H

52.
Which cells are more efficient at obtaining nutrients?
a)
Small Cells
b)
Medium Size Cells
c)
Large Cells
d)
X-Large Cells
53.
The absorption of nutrients is determined by...
a)
The cell's volume
b)
The cell's surface area
c)
The cell's ribosomes
d)
The cell's DNA
54.
As a cell’s size increases, its ratio of surface area to volume decreases.
a)
True
b)
False
55.
High Surface area to volume ratio allows cells to do what quickly?
a)
Move materials around inside the cell
b)
Move materials in and out of the cell 
c)
Communicate to other cells
d)
Divide
56.

Identify cholesterol molecule

a)

structure a

b)

structure b

c)

structure h

d)

structure i

57.

identify a glycolipid

a)

structure a

b)

structure d

c)

structure e

d)

structure g

58.

Identify a peripheral protein

a)

structure a

b)

strucure b

c)

structure g

d)

structure h

59.

Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means

a)

anything can pass in and out

b)

the membrane regulates the passage of the material in and out of the cell

c)

glucose cannot enter the cell

d)

cholesterol cannot enter

60.

Which of the following substances would have the most trouble crossing the membrane by diffusing through the bilayer?

a)

water

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

a sodium ion

61.

A major function of glycoproteins and glycolipids in the membane is to

a)

glue cells together to form tissues

b)

allow cells to identify each other

c)

attach membrane to cytoskeleton

d)

help retain shape

62.
Which of the following is responsible for getting large or charged (polar) molecules across the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
63.

In a lipid bilayer, ___________ fatty acid tails face each other within the bilayer and form a region that excludes water.

a)

A. Hypotonic

b)

B. Hypertonic

c)

C. Hydrophilic

d)

D. Hydrophobic

64.

The Endosymbiotic Theory suggests that eukaryotic cells evolved when an ancient cell engulfed another, forming a permanent symbiotic relationship. Choose the evidence that best justifies this claim.

a)

Both mitochondria and chloroplasts perform energy functions

b)

Eukaryotic cells have many mitochondria

c)

Eukaryotic cells have traits in common with archaea

d)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain circular loops of unique DNA

65.

Long hair-like structure that allows movement of the cell

a)

Pili, Eukaryotic

b)

Flagella, Eukaryotic

c)

Cilia, Prokaryotic

d)

Bacteria, Eukaryotic

e)

Flagella, Prokaryotic

66.

Which of the following statements about osmosis is correct?

a)

a)If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, more water will

enter the cell than leaves the cell.

b)

a)Osmotic movement of water into a cell would likely occur

if the cell accumulates water from its environment.

c)

a)The presence of aquaporins (proteins that form water

channels in the membrane) should speed up the process

of osmosis.

d)

a)If a solution outside the cell is hypertonic compared to the cytoplasm, water will move into the cell by osmosis.

e)

a)Osmosis is the diffusion of water from a region of lower water concentration to a region of higher water concentration.

67.

Cells (e.g., bacteria) are taken up by other cells (e.g., an immune cell) by which of the following?

a)

a)pinocytosis

b)

a)exocytosis

c)

a)receptor-mediated endocytosis

d)

a)phagocytosis

e)

a)facilitated diffusion

68.

As shown on the next slide, two solutions with similar solute concentration are separated by a membrane that allows only water to pass, and one solution is of greater volume than the other. Which choice best describes what will happen next?

a)

a)The energy in the pressure gradient will drive water to the

left side, which will cause the solute concentration on the

right side to increase.

b)

a)Water will pass to the right side and increase its volume.

c)

a)Any water that passes to the left side will create a tension

on the right side, pulling the water back to the right side.

d)

a)The water will flow to the left side, down its pressure gradient, until the two sides achieve equal height.

e)

a)Since there is no concentration gradient present, there will

be no net movement of water.

69.

One strategy used by many animal species to avoid the need for their body cells to have either a stiff external cell wall or active contractile vacuoles is to

a)

a)have membranes that are impermeable to water and keep it from entering their cells.

b)

a)use aquaporins to actively pump water out through a hydrophilic pore.

c)

a)keep the concentration of solutes in their cytosol the same as that found in pond water.

d)

a)maintain a high internal pressure to constantly push extra water out of cells.

e)

a)carefully regulate the solute concentration of the extracellular solution to which their cells are exposed.

70.

A correct distinction between facilitated diffusion and active transport of a substance across a biological membrane is that

a)

a)active transport requires conformational changes in the

transport protein associated with the transport process,

and facilitated diffusion does not.

b)

a)active transport requires an integral membrane protein to

carry out the transport, and facilitated diffusion does not.

c)

a)facilitated diffusion requires a protein lined pore in the

membrane, and active transport does not.

d)

a)facilitated diffusion depends on an existing energy gradient

acting on the transported substance, while active transport

makes such a gradient.

e)

a)facilitated diffusion requires cellular energy (often from ATP hydrolysis), but active transport does not.

71.

The location where the enzyme and substrate bind is the...

a)

allosteric site

b)

inhibition site

c)

reaction site

d)

active site

72.

This image shows...

a)

Competitive Inhibition

b)

Uncompetitive Inhibition

c)

Noncompetitive Inhibition

d)

Normal enzyme function

73.

Chemiosmosis is best described as...

a)

Moving high energy electrons through carrier molecules toward oxygen

b)

The use of a proton gradient to power ATP Synthase and produce ATP

c)

The breakdown of pyruvate into electron carrier molecules

d)

The enzyme that combines ADP and inorganic phosphate to produce ATP

74.

The point of the Krebs Cycle is to...

a)

Produce high amounts of ATP using a proton gradient

b)

Move high energy electrons through series of proteins to eventually bind with O2, creating water and protons

c)

Break down pyruvate to produce electron carrier molecules, FADH2 and NADH, as well as CO2 and ATP as byproducts

d)

Use ATP and NADPH to produce 6 carbon sugars

75.

What effect does adding an enzyme to a reaction cause?

a)

increasing the time it takes for the reaction to occur

b)

increases the activation energy

c)

decreases the activation energy

d)

increasing the amount of energy necessary for the reaction

76.

What serves as the final acceptor of the electrons moving down the ETC during cellular respiration?

a)

sulfur

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ATP

d)

oxygen

77.

What is true of glycolysis?

a)

produces a net of 2 ATP

b)

occurs in the mitochondria

c)

produces ATP through oxidative phosphorylation

d)

produces 34ish ATP

e)

all of the above are true

78.

Which enzyme functions best in acidic environments?

a)

neither enzyme

b)

Enzyme A

c)

Enzyme B

d)

Both enzymes

79.

The break down of larger molecules into small one.

a)

metabolism

b)

catabolism

c)

anabolism

d)

oxidation

80.
Use the diagram to answer the question. Between which parts of the molecule must the bonds be broken to form an ADP molecule?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and C
d)
C and D
81.
What is the function of NADP+?
a)
It absorbs light
b)
It is an electron carrier
c)
It is a light-reflecting pigment
d)
It acts as long-term energy storage
82.
Endergonic reactions require:
a)
an input of energy
b)
a release of energy
c)
do not change energy
83.
Which of the following is true for anabolic reactions?
a)
They are spontaneous and breakdown molecules.
b)
They are nonspontaneous and breakdown molecules.
c)
They are spontaneous and build molecules.
d)
They are nonspontaneous and build molecules.
84.
Succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. The reaction is inhibited by malonic acid, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Increasing the ratio of succinate to malonic acid reduces the inhibitory effect of malonic acid. What is malonic acid's role with respect to succinate dehydrogenase?
a)
It is a competitive inhibitor.
b)
It is an allosteric regulator.
c)
It is able to bind to succinate.
d)
It blocks the binding of fumarate.
85.
The place, other than the active site, where activators and inhibitors bind to an enzyme is called the ________ site.
a)
competitive
b)
allosteric
c)
alterior
d)
rate
86.

The goal of photosynthesis is to

a)

convert light energy into glucose energy

b)

use light energy to make oxygen gas

c)

convert sugar energy into ATP

d)

convert sugar energy into oxygen gas

87.

Rubisco is important in which step of photosynthesis

a)

energizing the electrons in chlorophyll

b)

carbon fixation when CO2 is connected to RUBP during calvin cycle

c)

regeneration phase as RUBP is made during calvin cycle

d)

reduction of the carbon chain during the calvin cycle

88.

Plants obtain CO2 into the chloroplast by

a)

active transport

b)

diffusion

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

endocytosis

89.

An increase in CO2 in the air would most likely

a)

increase photosynthesis

b)

increase cell respiration

c)

increase photorespiration

d)

increase transpiration

90.
Which process does not occur in aerobic conditions? 
a)
Fermentation
b)
Pyruvate Oxidation
c)
Citric Acid Cycle or Krebs cycle 
d)
Oxidative Phosphorylation 
91.
What is the main job of the electron carriers in cellular respiration? 
a)

Transport electrons and hydrogen ions (H+) to the electron transport chain 

b)

Capture energy throughout the process of cellular respiration

c)

Provide the reactants for the process of cellular respiration

d)

Pump positive hydrogen ions and shuttle electrons across the electron transport chain and contribute to chemiosmosis

92.

The ETC provides the energy needed to make the majority of the cell's ATP in a process known as:

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

substrate level phosphorylation

c)

oxidative phosphorylation

93.

What produces ATP during glycolysis?

a)

chemiosmosis

b)

oxidative phosphorylation

c)

substrate level phosphorylation

d)

fermentation

94.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
95.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
96.

The amount of energy needed for a reaction to occur is called the (a)   ?

97.

What's going on in this picture?

a)

The enzyme is taking the red substrate and turning it blue

b)

The enzyme's active site is blocked by a competitive inhibitor

c)

The enzyme can't function if too many substrates are trying to bind

d)

This is an example of an anabolic enzyme reaction

98.

An activor or inhibitor binding place that is not the active site, causing the enzyme to change conformation (shape) is an example of ...

a)

competitive inhibition

b)

allosteric control

c)

optimum conditions

d)

induced fit

99.

Which of the following is NOT produced during the electron transport chain in cellular respiration?

a)

ATP

b)

NADP+

c)

FADH+

d)

H2O

100.

Which of the following is NOT produced during the Calvin Cycle in photosynthesis?

a)

G3P

b)

RuBP

c)

NADPH

d)

FADH2

101.

Name the key enzyme in the Calvin Cycle that fixes CO2.

a)

RuBP

b)

RUBISCO

c)

Carboxylase

d)

Pyruvate Dehydrogenase

102.

Which of the following does NOT belong?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Citric Acid Cycle

c)

Chemiosmosis

d)

Light Dependent Reactions

103.

What does A represent?

a)

inner membrane

b)

cristae

c)

outer membrane

d)

matrix

104.

What does c represent?

a)

inner membrane

b)

cristae

c)

matrix

d)

outer membrane

105.

What letter represents the matrix?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

b and c

106.

Which of these are reactants needed to start cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

water

107.

Which of these are products of cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

ATP

108.

What stage occurs in the cytosol (cytoplasm) of the cell?

a)

glycolysis

b)

Kreb's cycle

c)

ETC

d)

Calvin Cycle

109.

Where in the mitochondria does the Kreb's cycle occur?

a)

outer membrane

b)

inner membrane

c)

cristae

d)

matrix

110.

Glycolysis splits glucose into 2, 3 carbon ________ molecules

a)

G3P

b)

ATP

c)

pyruvate

d)

acetyle COA

111.

Immune cells, specifically Antigen presenting cells, was an example of which type of communication

a)

Direct contact

b)

Local signaling (paracrine)

c)

Long distance signaling

d)

Local signaling (synaptic)

112.

Ligands, such as growth factors, was an example of which type of communication

a)

Direct contact

b)

Local signaling (paracrine)

c)

Long distance signaling

d)

Local signaling (synaptic)

113.

Seritonine is a neurotransmitter that is extremley important for healthy sleep. This is an example of which type of communication

a)

Direct contact

b)

Local signaling (paracrine)

c)

Long distance signaling

d)

Local signaling (synaptic)

114.

A popular product for fruit and vegetable fans are 'Debbie green bags' which can be purachsed almost anywhere. Produce is placed in a bag that allows for the escape of ethylene gas, a hormone released by plants to ripen other nearby produce. This is an example of what type of communication?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Local signaling (paracrine)

c)

Long distance signaling

d)

Local signaling (synaptic)

115.

Hormones released in the bloodstream is an example of what type of cell communication?

a)

Direct contact

b)

Local signaling (paracrine)

c)

Long distance signaling

d)

Local signaling (synaptic)

116.

Small ions or non-protein moelcules that help amplify a signal during transduction

a)

Protein phophatase

b)

Protein kinase

c)

Secondary messangers

d)

Ligands

117.

Cyclic AMP (cAMP) was an example of...

a)

Protein phophatase

b)

Protein kinase

c)

Secondary messangers

d)

Ligands

118.

A molecule respsonsible for phosphorylating intracellular signaling molecules

a)

Protein phophatase

b)

Protein kinase

c)

Secondary messangers

d)

Ligands

119.

A molecule respsonsible for de-phosphorylating intracellular signaling molecules

a)

Protein phophatase

b)

Protein kinase

c)

Secondary messangers

d)

Ligands

120.

A molecule that is recieved by either a membrane bound or intracellular receptor. Also known as a messenger

a)

Protein phophatase

b)

Protein kinase

c)

Secondary messangers

d)

Ligands

121.

Hydrolysis reaction

a)

A reaction that breaks down a moelcule by adding water

b)

A reaction that builds a moelcule by adding water

c)

A reaction that breaks down a molecule by removing water

d)

A reaction that builds a molecule by removing water

122.

Dehydration reaction

a)

A reaction that breaks down a moelcule by adding water

b)

A reaction that builds a moelcule by adding water

c)

A reaction that breaks down a molecule by removing water

d)

A reaction that builds a molecule by removing water

123.

What is the term for maintaining balanced internal environments

a)

Set points

b)

homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Negative feedback

124.

When the effects of a stimulus is reduced this is known as

a)

Set points

b)

homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Negative feedback

125.

When the effects of a stimulus is enhanced this is known as

a)

Set points

b)

homeostasis

c)

Positive feedback

d)

Negative feedback

126.

Example of negative feedback

a)

blood clotting

b)

Glucose levels

c)

Fruit ripening

d)

Child birth

127.

Example of positive feedback

a)

blood clotting

b)

Glucose levels

c)

Fruit ripening

d)

Child birth

128.

How many chromosomes are in this image?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

129.

How many chromatins are in this image?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

130.

How many centromeres are in this image?

a)

3

b)

6

c)

8

d)

12

131.

Looking at the DNA in this image, it is clear that the cells is

a)

undergoing apoptosis

b)

going about its normal function

c)

Going through meiosis

d)

going through mitosis

132.

If a skin cell undergoes 3 rounds of mitosis, how many daughter cells will there be after the 3rd round

a)

2

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

133.

What stage of mitosis is shown

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

134.

What stage of mitosis is shown

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

135.

What stage of mitosis is shown

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

136.

What stage of mitosis is shown

a)

Metaphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Prophase

137.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Chromain condenses

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

138.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Nucleoli disappears

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

139.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Duplicated chromosomes appear as sister chromatids

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

140.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Mitotic spindle begins to form

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

141.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Centrosomes move away from each other

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

142.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Nuclear envelope fragments

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

143.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Microtubules enter nuclear area and some attach to kinetochores

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

144.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Centrosomes are at opposite poles

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

145.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Chromosomes line up at the metaphase plate

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

146.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Microtubules are attached to each kinetochore

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

147.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Sister chromatids separate and move to opposite ends of the cell due to the microtubules shortening

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

148.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Cell elongates

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

149.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Two daughter nuclei form

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

150.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Nucleoli reappear

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

151.

Identify the stage of mitosis:

Chromosomes become less condensed

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase/Cytokinesis

152.

a cleavage furrow appears due to a contractile ring of actin filaments

a)

Telophase (Animals)

b)

Telophase (Plants)

c)

Cytokinesis (Animals)

d)

Cytokinesis (Plants)

153.

vesicles produced by the Golgi travel to the middle of the cell and form a cell plate

a)

Telophase (Animals)

b)

Telophase (Plants)

c)

Cytokinesis (Animals)

d)

Cytokinesis (Plants)

154.

Cells will enter G0 state during this checkpoint

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

G3

d)

M phase

155.

Stage where completion of DNA replication AND damage is checked

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

G3

d)

M phase

156.

Checkpoint for microtubule attachment to chromosomes at the kinetochores at metaphase

a)

G1

b)

G2

c)

G3

d)

M phase

157.

All of the following are examples of external cell cycle regulators, except...

a)

Growth factors

b)

contact/density inhibition

c)

anchorage dependancy

d)

All of these are examples

158.
Building blocks of proteins are
a)
Simple sugars
b)
Amino acids
c)
Monosaccharides
d)
Polysaccharides
159.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
160.

A polymer of a protein is called a...

a)

polysaccharide

b)

polypeptide

c)

polynucleotide

d)

triglyceride

Similar Resources on Wayground

Anatomy semester 1 final

155 questions

Anatomy semester 1 final

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th - 12th Grade

Baby ko si lungkot, inaalis nya aking kulot

160 questions

Baby ko si lungkot, inaalis nya aking kulot

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - University

Praxis II: Biology Exam

160 questions

Praxis II: Biology Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

CSET 3

164 questions

CSET 3

quiz

Worksheet

•

KG - 9th Grade

Unit 1 Review

156 questions

Unit 1 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Physics I semester 1 Review

155 questions

Physics I semester 1 Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

Chemistry Final Review

160 questions

Chemistry Final Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

11th Grade

Forensic Science 1st Semester Final Exam Review

158 questions

Forensic Science 1st Semester Final Exam Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade