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The BIG Final Review Kahoot's Cousin ('22-23)

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Longleaf is located at 35 degrees N, 78 degrees W. Which of these is its longitude?

a)

35 degrees N

b)

78 degrees W

c)

both

d)

neither

2.

The 0 degree latitude line is called the

a)

Equator

b)

Prime Meridian

c)

Tropic of Cancer

d)

Tropic of Capricorn

3.

What force brings tiny gas particles together when they're far away from any large objects?

a)

EM radiation

b)

fusion

c)

gravity

d)

fission

4.

How many years old is the universe?

a)

3.8 million

b)

13.8 billion

c)

15 trillion

d)

6.4 octillion

5.

The most common element in our universe is

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon

c)

hydrogen

d)

helium

6.

Which of the following causes us to experience seasons?

a)

Precession

b)

Tilt of Earth's axis

c)

Barycenter

d)

Solstices

7.

When one celestial body orbits another, they are actually both orbiting around the middle point of their combined mass, which is called the

a)

precession

b)

equinox

c)

barycenter

d)

tidal force

8.

How many equinoxes are there every year?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

9.

The day of the year with the shortest period of daylight is called the

a)

Vernal Equinox

b)

Autumnal Equinox

c)

Winter Solstice

d)

Summer Solstice

10.

The higher the frequency of a wave, the

a)

higher the energy

b)

lower the energy

c)

shorter the wavelength

d)

longer the wavelength

11.

Light behaves as both a _________ and a _________.

a)

tidal force

b)

particle

c)

barycenter

d)

wave

12.

Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

a)

visible light

b)

X-rays

c)

gamma rays

d)

microwaves

13.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

radio waves

b)

ultraviolet (UV)

c)

infrared (IR)

d)

visible light

14.

Which of the following types of EM radiation do not make it through the Earth's atmosphere? Choose all that apply.

a)

radio waves

b)

visible light

c)

gamma rays

d)

X-rays

15.

In a main-sequence star, where does fusion occur?

a)

core

b)

radiation zone

c)

convection zone

d)

corona

16.

Any time an electric charge moves from one place to another, what is created?

a)

barycenter

b)

precession

c)

tidal forces

d)

magnetic field

17.

Where are the Earth's magnetic fields strongest?

a)

the Equator

b)

the Prime Meridian

c)

evenly strong everywhere

d)

the poles

18.

Which types of EM radiation are emitted by the Sun? Choose all that apply.

a)

radio waves

b)

infrared

c)

microwaves

d)

gamma rays

e)

X-rays

19.

What kind of reaction fuels nuclear power plants?

a)

fusion

b)

chemical combustion

c)

fission

20.

After the new moon, which of the following moon phases will occur first?

a)

waning gibbous

b)

waning crescent

c)

first quarter

d)

waxing gibbous

21.

In order to see a total eclipse, where must you be located?

a)

Prime Meridian

b)

Equator

c)

umbra

d)

penumbra

22.

The Earth comes directly between the Moon and the Sun during a

a)

lunar eclipse

b)

solar eclipse

c)

new moon

d)

full moon

23.

How many low tides are there every 24 hour period?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

24.

Tides occur at the same times in a given place every day.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

The shape of a coastline can influence the tides in that area.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Storms can influence the tides.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What gas makes up 78% of the atmosphere?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Ozone

d)

Carbon Dioxide

28.

When heat is transferred via warm matter rising and cold matter sinking in a continuous cycle, this is called

a)

conduction

b)

insolation

c)

convection

d)

radiation

29.

When Miss Lucy the cat gets warmed up by lying in her heated cat bed, this transfer of heat is called

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

30.

If an air mass is sinking, it must be

a)

cold and less dense

b)

cold and more dense

c)

warm and more dense

d)

warm and less dense

31.
If an air mass is rising, it must be
a)
cold and less dense
b)
cold and more dense
c)
warm and more dense
d)
warm and less dense
32.

Air masses are different in many ways. Which of these is NOT different?

a)

moisture contents

b)

ratio of oxygen/nitrogen

c)

density

d)

temperature

33.

If I blew up a balloon in a 72°F classroom and then took it outside where it is 100°F, what would happen to the volume of air in the balloon?

a)

It would shrink.

b)

It wouldn't change size.

c)

It would expand.

34.

A front is

a)

where warm air is cooling at earth's surface

b)

a line where hot and cold air are separating

c)

a line where two different air masses meet

d)

where cold air is rising and forming rain clouds

35.
Which type of front is pictured?
a)
Cold front
b)
Warm front
c)
Occluded front
d)
Stationary front
36.

When a cold front or a warm front stays in place for several days without invading another front, it becomes a/n ______.

a)

stationary front

b)

cold front

c)

occluded front

d)

warm front

37.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold Front
d)
Warm Front
38.
What does this symbol on a weather map indicate? 
a)
High pressure system
b)
Low pressure system
c)
Cold front
d)
Warm front
39.

Winds are caused by differences in

a)

precipitation

b)

humidity

c)

air pressure

d)

turbulance

40.

High pressure areas tend to have what kind of weather? Select two answers.

a)

rain

b)

overcast

c)

clear skies

d)

windy

e)

no wind

41.

Low pressure areas tend to have what kind of weather? Select two answers.

a)

rain

b)

overcast

c)

clear skies

d)

windy

e)

no wind

42.

What is this called?

a)

barometer

b)

thermometer

c)

anemometer

d)

hygrometer

43.

What is a barometer used to measure?

a)

Wind Direction

b)

Temperature

c)

Wind Speed

d)

Air Pressure

44.

Cyclonic winds in the Northern Hemisphere blow

a)

clockwise

b)

counterclockwise

c)

north to south

d)

west to east

45.

Warm fronts tend to bring what kind of precipitation?

a)

prolonged, light rain

b)

short bursts of hard rain

46.

Which of the following symbols represents an occluded front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
47.

Which of the following symbols represents a warm front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

Which of the following symbols represents a cold front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
49.

Which of the following symbols represents a stationary front?

a)
b)
c)
d)
50.

Where does the vast majority of our weather occur?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

51.

Where is most of the water vapor in our atmosphere?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

52.

Wind blows from where to where?

a)

high pressure to low pressure

b)

low pressure to high pressure

53.

When water changes from a liquid to a gas, this is called

a)

condensation

b)

precipitation

c)

evaporation

d)

freezing

54.

The amount of water vapor in the air compared to how much could potentially be in the air is called

a)

dew point

b)

absolute humidity

c)

relative humidity

d)

heat index

55.

Which can hold MORE water vapor?

a)

relatively cooler air

b)

relatively warmer air

56.

"The lowest temperature at which air will reach 100% relative humidity" is a definition for which of the following terms?

a)

heat index

b)

condensation nucleus

c)

dew point

d)

absolute humidity

57.

Why does high humidity make humans feel uncomfortable?

a)

We first evolved in a dry climate.

b)

Humidity is higher now than it ever used to be,

c)

It makes it difficult for our sweat to evaporate.

d)

We're just being whiny.

58.

Heat Index takes into account which TWO factors?

a)

(air) temperature

b)

relative humidity

c)

dew point

d)

UV index

59.

As altitude increases, dew point . . .

a)

also increases

b)

stays the same

c)

decreases

60.

In order for water vapor to condense into liquid droplets, what is needed?

a)

warm front

b)

downdraft

c)

stratus clouds

d)

condensation nuclei

61.

Why do water vapor molecules have a hard time sticking together on their own?

a)

They're too heavy.

b)

They're too fast.

c)

They're too small.

d)

They repel each other.

62.

What TWO gases are the primary causes of acid rain?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

sulfur dioxide

c)

calcium oxides

d)

nitrogen oxides

63.

The largest source of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides is . . .

a)

using fossil fuels

b)

extracting metal from ores

c)

volcanoes

d)

landfills

64.

What is the pH of acid rain?

a)

3

b)

4.2-4.4

c)

5.6

d)

7

65.

What would be the effect on the particles in the animation if more heat is supplied to the system?

a)

They would slow down.

b)

They would stop moving completely.

c)

They would speed up.

d)

There would be no effect.

66.
How does heat flow?
a)
Always from cold to warm
b)
Always from warm to cold
c)
Both warm to cold & cold to warm
d)
It depends on the temperature
67.

What would be the effect on the particles in the animation if more heat is supplied to the system?

a)

They would slow down.

b)

They would stop moving completely.

c)

They would speed up.

d)

There would be no effect.

68.
How does heat flow?
a)
Always from cold to warm
b)
Always from warm to cold
c)
Both warm to cold & cold to warm
d)
It depends on the temperature
69.

Which of the following best explains why the sand at the beach is hotter than the water?

a)

Sand has a higher specific heat than water.

b)

Sand has a lower specific heat than water.

c)

There is more water than sand at the beach.

d)

There is more sand than water at the beach.

70.

Water has a _____ specific heat.

a)

high

b)

medium

c)

low

d)

nonexistent

71.
Warm ocean currents generally come from
a)

the North Pole

b)

the South Pole

c)

the Equator

d)

upwelling

72.

Decreasing water temperature causes the density of the water to ______.

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

73.

Increasing water salinity causes the density of the water to ______.

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

74.

Where is ocean water the most dense?

a)

the surface

b)

near the Equator

c)

the bottom

d)

the middle of gyres

75.

What causes deep ocean currents?

a)

The Coriolis Effect

b)

gyres

c)

wind

d)

density differences

76.

What causes ocean currents in the Northern Hemisphere to rotate clockwise?

a)
Earth's orbit around the Sun
b)
Earth's spinning on its axis
c)
Earth's magnetic field
d)
Earth's force of gravity
77.
If the Earth did not rotate on its axis, there would be no
a)

Great Ocean Conveyor Belt

b)
Coriolis effect
c)

upwelling

d)
Convection
78.
What happens to a current when it comes in contact with a continent or landmass?
a)

It continues over the continent.

b)

It stops.

c)

It changes direction.

d)

It is absorbed by the land.

79.

Nutrients are brought to the surface for phytoplankton to use at _______.

a)

gyres

b)

eddies

c)

upwellings

d)

the equator

80.

________ and _______ affect the ocean's density and cause the Great Ocean Conveyor Belt to travel.

a)

gravity and the Coriolis Effect

b)

temperature and salinity

c)

wind and climate

d)

temperature and the Coriolis Effect

81.

The more scientific name of the Great Ocean Conveyor Belt is _____.

a)

halinethermal circulation

b)

thermohaline circulation

c)

thermodensity circulation

d)

upwelling

82.

What percentage of the Earth's water is freshwater?

a)

1%

b)

2.5%

c)

12%

d)

25%

83.

Most of the Earth's freshwater can be found . . .

a)

in lakes and rivers

b)

in groundwater

c)

in glaciers and permanent snow cover

84.

When exposed to the same amount of heat, which of the following substances will increase in temperature the MOST?

a)

water

b)

rubber

c)

gold

d)

cement

85.

When exposed to the same amount of heat, which of the following substances will increase in temperature the LEAST?

a)

water

b)

rubber

c)

gold

d)

cement

86.

A kitchen sponge is . . .

a)

porous, but not permeable

b)

both porous and permeable

c)

not porous, but permeable

87.

Clay is . . .

a)

porous, but not very permeable

b)

both porous and permeable

c)

not very porous, but very permeable

88.

Precipitation into the ocean would cause the water's salinity to . . .

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

89.

Freezing ocean water would cause the remaining liquid water's salinity to . . .

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

90.

You are standing in the transition zone of a river. If you walk towards the headwaters, you are headed

a)

upstream

b)

downstream

91.

If excess fertilizer runs off from agricultural fields into a river, what type of pollution would that cause?

a)

toxic

b)

bacterial

c)

sediment

d)

nutrient

92.

Pesticides that wind up in bodies of water fall under what category of pollution?

a)

toxic

b)

bacterial

c)

sediment

d)

nutrient

93.

What are the best approaches for handling stormwater? (select TWO)

a)

slow it down

b)

speed it up

c)

absorb/capture it

d)

add more water to it

94.

Stormwater is treated at wastewater treatment plants before it reaches bodies of water.

a)

True

b)

False

95.

What are the benefits of managing stormwater appropriately? (choose TWO answers)

a)

minimizes pollutants

b)

slows down climate change

c)

recharges groundwater

d)

produces electricity

96.

What is land subsidence?

a)

When the land erodes dramatically because of water's movement.

b)

When the ground sinks because of groundwater depletion.

c)

When an area is being irrigated by groundwater.

d)

When an area is being subjected to saltwater intrusion.

97.

Arsenic can dissolve in water.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Which of the following is a viscous fluid?

(assume nothing else is mixed in with the fluid)

a)

syrup

b)

water

c)

gasoline

d)

skim milk

99.

Water moving from wastewater pretreatment to primary treatment would be most appropriately referred to as . . .

a)

sewage

b)

aerated

c)

infrastructure

d)

effluent

100.

What does EPA stand for?

a)

Ecosystem Pollution Administration

b)

Eutrophication Prevention Administration

c)

Environmental Protection Agency

d)

Enhanced Pollution Alerts

101.

During an El Nino, trade winds are typically...

a)

about average

b)

stronger

c)

weaker

102.

El Niño MOST DIRECTLY effects what?

a)

precipitation

b)

sea surface temperature

c)

evaporation

d)

cloud formation

103.

What are the most common two elements that make up the Earth's crust?

a)

Iron and Silicon

b)

Oxygen and Silicon

c)

Iron and Magnesium

d)

Oxygen and Aluminum

104.

What type of rock can be formed from melting and crystallization?

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

105.

What type of rock can be formed from erosion and weathering followed by compaction and cementation?

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

106.

What type of rock can be formed from heat and pressure?

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

107.

What are the FIVE defining characteristics of a mineral?

4 lines
108.

What is the difference between extrusive and intrusive igneous rocks?

a)

Extrusive rocks have points sticking out, intrusive rocks are smooth.

b)

Extrusive rocks are mainly one type of mineral with a 2nd type on the surface, intrusive have different minerals all mixed together.

c)

Extrusive rocks can be found anywhere on the Earth's surface, intrusive rocks can only be found inside volcanoes.

d)

Extrusive rocks cool above the Earth's surface, intrusive rocks cool beneath the Earth's surface.

109.

When one lithospheric plate moves down into the asthenosphere under another plate at a convergent boundary, this is called . . .

a)

convection

b)

mantle

c)

strike-slip

d)

subduction

110.

The Earth's magnetic field sometimes reverses itself

(north turns into south and south turns into north).

a)

True

b)

False

111.

A single tectonic plate can have multiple types of boundaries (convergent, divergent, transform) along its borders.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Tectonic plates move at an average of a few ____ a year.

a)

millimeters (mm)

b)

centimeters (cm)

c)

meters (m)

d)

kilometers (km)

113.

What is the main force driving the movement of tectonic plates?

a)

slab pull

b)

magnetic fields

c)

ridge push

d)

convection in the mantle

114.

Which type of plate boundary is NOT prone to producing volcanoes?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

115.

__ % of volcanoes occur at subduction zones and mid-oceanic ridges.

a)

25

b)

33

c)

50

d)

95

116.

Energy released by an earthquake that travels in waves though the lithosphere

a)

focus waves

b)

epicenter waves

c)

seismic waves

d)

fault waves

117.

All earthquakes occur along plate boundaries.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

A fault occurring in the middle of a tectonic plate is called a/an . . .

a)

INTERplate fault

b)

Don't pick me, I'm not the answer.

c)

INTRAplate fault

119.

Why do intraplate faults exist?

a)

shrug That's just how the Earth do?

b)

Because plates are moving across a curved surface.

c)

Some rock types just can't hold themselves together very well.

d)

Scientists don't know yet.

120.

All faults are visible along the Earth's surface.

a)

True

b)

False

121.

What type of fault is this?

a)

Normal

b)

Reverse

c)

Strike-Slip AKA Lateral

122.

What type of plate boundary is most likely to produce this kind of fault?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

123.

What type of fault is this?

a)

Normal

b)

Reverse

c)

Strike-Slip AKA Lateral

124.

What type of plate boundary is most likely to produce this kind of fault?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

125.

What type of fault is this?

a)

Normal

b)

Reverse

c)

Strike-Slip AKA Lateral

126.

What type of plate boundary is most likely to produce this kind of fault?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

127.

What is the difference between erosion and weathering?

a)

Particles are not transported in erosion.

b)

Particles are not transported in weathering.

c)

Erosion takes place very quickly, weathering happens gradually.

d)

Weathering takes place very quickly, erosion happens gradually.

128.

Soil can vary significantly, but generally speaking, what percentage of soil is minerals?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

75%

129.

Soil can vary significantly, but generally speaking, what percentage of soil is organic material?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

75%

130.

Soil can vary significantly, but generally speaking, what percentage of soil is water?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

75%

131.

Soil can vary significantly, but generally speaking, what percentage of soil is air?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

75%

132.

Which soil particle is the largest?

a)

Clay

b)

Sand

c)

Silt

133.

Which soil particle is the smallest?

a)

Clay

b)

Sand

c)

Silt

134.

Mountaintop Removal (MTR) is an environmentally harmful method of extracting what resource?

a)

oil

b)

natural gas

c)

coal

d)

precious metals

135.

True or false: Mining companies can legally dump toxic debris into valleys as "fill material".

a)

True

b)

False

136.

True or False: Coal must be chemically treated before it is shipped to power plants for burning.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

Which of the following are non-renewable energy resources? (Check all that apply)

a)

coal

b)

wind

c)

solar

d)

nuclear

138.

Examples of renewable energy sources include:

a)

Bioethanol, natural gas, petroleum

b)

Geothermal, wind, solar

c)

Hydroelectricity, coal, nuclear

139.

Oil is made from

a)

dead plant and animal remains

b)

sedimentary rocks

c)

magma and lava

d)

water

140.

It takes ______ of years for oil to form.

a)

tens

b)

hundreds

c)

thousands

d)

millions

141.

Fossil fuels are nonrenewable resources because they

a)

take millions of years to form

b)

are easily replaced

c)

are in high demand

d)

don't pollute the air

142.

A natural non renewable fuel such as coal, oil, or natural gas formed over a very long time in the geological past from the remains of living organisms

a)

fossil fuel

b)

hydropower

c)

geothermal

d)

wind

143.
Which of the following is NOT a fossil fuel?
a)
Petroleum
b)
Biomass
c)
Natural gas
d)
Coal
144.

Fossil fuels come from the fossils of dinosaurs.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

70% of all freshwater on Earth is used for

a)

drinking water

b)

meat production

c)

industry

d)

agriculture

146.

Which type of meat requires the largest amount of water to produce?

a)

chicken

b)

beef

c)

veal

d)

pork

147.

Which of the following is a BENEFIT of urbanization?

a)

increased likelihood of disease spread

b)

less air pollution

c)

increased efficiency

d)

decreased light pollution

148.
Carbon dioxide levels in the air have changed throughout earth's history.  The difference today is how ______ the change is happening.
a)
rapidly 
b)
slowly 
c)
wide spread
149.

Which of the following factors is very closely tied to the ability of a small town to grow into a city?

a)

proximity to cropland

b)

sports teams

c)

law enforcement

d)

transportation

e)

healthcare

150.

Explain what a "heat island" is.

(Where do they occur? Why do they occur?)

2-3 sentences recommended.

4 lines
151.

Ice cores are most useful for determining

a)

the atmospheric composition in the past

b)

plate tectonic movement of the past

c)

number of species in the past

d)

geographical species of the past

152.

What are two things that ice cores reveal?

a)

biodiversity levels and Earth's orbit data

b)

carbon dioxide and global temperatures

c)

Polar temperatures

and fossil records

d)

volcanic activity and land subsidence

153.

What part of ice cores tells us what the atmosphere was like in the past?

a)

The water when the ice cores melt

b)

Each thin layer of ice

c)

The air bubbles trapped in ice cores

d)

The rings of the ice core

154.

The Earth has always had ice caps at the poles.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

Rapid climate change in Earth's past has often been followed by

a)

a larger number of predators

b)

a change in Earth's tilt

c)

mass extinctions

d)

increased tectonic activity

156.

The main influence on rising sea level is

a)

melting polar ice caps

b)

increased erosion

c)

plastic pollution in the oceans

d)

thermal expansion

e)

increased rainfall

157.

Which of the following is an abiotic component?

a)

an eagle

b)

a rock

c)

a tree

d)

leaf litter (dead leaves on forest floor)

158.
The most important abiotic factors when studying biomes are...
a)
Food and Water
b)

Precipitation and Sunlight

c)
Temperature and Oxygen
d)
Precipitation and Temperature 
159.

Ecological efficiency from one trophic level to the next is generally:

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

75%

d)

90%

160.

__________ primary productivity = the organic materials that remain after photosynthetic organisms in the ecosystem have used some of these compounds for their cellular energy needs (cellular respiration).

a)

Gross

b)

Total

c)

Net

d)

Secondary

161.

__________ primary productivity is the total amount of energy that producers convert to chemical energy in organic molecules per unit of time.

a)

Net

b)

Total

c)

Gross

d)

Secondary

162.

Match the following

a)
1.

Cultural

b)
2.

Provisioning

c)
3.

Supporting

d)
4.

Regulating

163.

Match the following

a)
1.

Cultural

b)
2.

Supporting

c)
3.

Regulating

d)
4.

Provisioning

164.

Provide three ways to prevent the spread of invasive species.

4 lines

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