wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Environmental Systems Final

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 1hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The rate of replenishment must be equal to or faster than the rate of usage refers to what type of resource?

a)

Limited resource

b)

Unlimited resource

c)

Renewable resource

d)

Non-renewable resource

2.

Layers containing spaces, or pores though which water can pass:

a)

Sediment layers

b)

Porous layers

c)

Impermeable layers

d)

Permeable layers

3.

Parasitic worms would be classified as which type of water pollutant?

a)

Groundwater pollutant

b)

Industrial pollutant

c)

Biological pollutant

d)

Thermal pollutant

4.

An area where surface water soaks into the ground and reaches an aquifer:

a)

Filtration

b)

Recharge zone

c)

Runoff

d)

Watershed

5.

Polluted groundwater is difficult to clean because:

a)

All are correct

b)

The recycling process of groundwater can take decades or hundreds of years.

c)

Pollutants cling to the materials that make up the aquifer and contaminate the clean water.

d)

Groundwater is deep in the ground and dispersed through large areas of rock.

6.

Fresh water is a finite renewable resource because:

a)

Most water is frozen

b)

Most surface water contains low amounts of salt

c)

It is controlled by powerful governments

d)

Water can become contaminated during its cycle

7.

The buildup of salts in the surface layers of soil, which can cause it to be unusable and infertile:

a)

Waterlogging

b)

Salinization

c)

Biological magnification

d)

Artificial eutrophication

8.

Law that set standards for pollution levels in surface waters, industrial wastewater, rivers and lakes:

a)

Oil pollution act of 1990

b)

The resource conservation and recovery act of 1976

c)

Toxic substances control act of 1976

d)

The clean water act of 1977

9.

Law that calls for the government to track industrial chemicals, screening them for environmental or human health hazards.

a)

Oil pollution act of 1990

b)

The resource conservation and recovery act of 1976

c)

Toxic substances control act of 1976

d)

The clean water act of 1977

10.

Many areas of the world that do not have adequate fresh water have become habitable because:

a)

People have practiced water conservation.

b)

Icebergs have been towed in to provide fresh water.

c)

Water management projects have diverted water to the area.

d)

Rainfall patterns have changed.

11.

The increase in the concentration of toxins as each organism in food chain stores toxin and passes to next level:

a)

Waterlogging

b)

Salinization

c)

Biological magnification

d)

Artificial eutrophication

12.

The following diagram illustrates which of the following types of pollution:

a)

Industrial pollution

b)

Groundwater pollution

c)

Biological pollution

d)

Thermal pollution

13.

Three percent of the world’s water resources are found as:

a)

Groundwater

b)

Icecaps and icebergs

c)

Salt water

d)

Fresh water

14.

Most of the pollutants in the ocean come from:

a)

Leaking underground storage facilities

b)

Activities on land

c)

Spills from oil tankers

d)

Commercial boats and personal watercraft

15.

During the water treatment process, what is the purpose of adding chlorine to water?

a)

To remove unwanted gases

b)

To kill or limit bacterial growth

c)

To form flocs

d)

To remove large debris

16.

How is fresh water used in industry?

a)

All are correct

b)

To generate power

c)

In the disposal of waste products

d)

In manufacturing processes

17.

Which of the following is a source of nonpoint pollution?

a)

Runoff from agricultural feedlots

b)

Leaking oil tanker

c)

Polluted waste-water from a chemical plant

d)

Unlined landfill

18.

When neighborhood residents noticed a large number of dead fish in a local creek, they traced the problem to a nearby gas station. It turned out that a gasoline tank had developed a leak. This is an example of:

a)

Groundwater pollution.

b)

Thermal pollution.

c)

Nonpoint-source pollution.

d)

Point-source pollution.

19.

Water that flows over land and has not been absorbed into the ground is called:

a)

Ice

b)

Groundwater

c)

Runoff

d)

Ocean water

20.

Groundwater mining is the process of:

a)

Withdrawing groundwater and replacing it with ocean water

b)

Withdrawing groundwater and replacing it with surface water

c)

Replacing groundwater faster than it can be withdrawn

d)

Withdrawing groundwater faster than it can be replaced

21.

From the diagram, how much water is available for us to drink?

a)

97%

b)

2.5%

c)

0.5%

d)

100%

22.

Most aquifers are underground groundwater. How should this water be classified?

a)

Renewable

b)

Nonrenewable

c)

Both

d)

Neither

23.

Natural lakes and reservoirs and rivers are on the surface of the earth. How should this water be classified?

a)

Renewable

b)

Nonrenewable

c)

Both

d)

Neither

24.

If a water sample tested to have 70 ppm what classification would it have?

a)

Hard

b)

Moderately hard

c)

Slightly hard

d)

Soft

25.

Why is it hard to tell where a source of point pollution that affects groundwater may be coming from?

a)

Because when it rains, none of the water ever makes it to the groundwater ever.

b)

Because when it rains, the water dissolves all the pollutants and none of the pollution is ever seen in the ground.

c)

Because when it rains, the water spreads the pollution horizontally first then down.

d)

Because when it rains, the pollution goes straight down into the groundwater.

26.

Which human activity uses the most water in the US?

a)

Cooking

b)

Industry

c)

Agriculture

d)

Sewage disposal

27.

Which human activity uses the most water in the world?

a)

Cooking

b)

Industry

c)

Agriculture

d)

Sewage disposal

28.

How does our water supply get renewed?

a)

The water cycle

b)

Evaporation of water into the atmosphere

c)

Precipitation

d)

All are Correct

29.

Where is the most freshwater trapped?

a)

In ice glaciers

b)

In the oceans

c)

In rivers

d)

In aquifers

30.

Why do some countries need to perform water desalination?

a)

Because they have no fresh water available nearby, only ocean water

b)

They live in desert areas

c)

There is too much salt in the water that is available to them

d)

All are correct

31.

Using the picture above could the groundwater supply be contaminated by the septic tank?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Both

d)

Neither

32.

What could happen to the groundwater if a landfill was built nearby?

a)

A. Water table will sink

b)

B. Groundwater becomes contaminated

c)

C. Rivers can become contaminated

d)

Both b and c

33.

This diagram could be an argument for:

a)

Having landfills near homes

b)

Having landfills near water supplies

c)

Keeping landfills away from homes and water sources

d)

Recharged area will clean all pollutants away

34.

The diagram shows:

a)

Water tables keep the grass green

b)

Water can spread pollutants

c)

The ground can filter out all pollutants making all groundwater safe to drink

d)

A recharged area cleans up waste

35.

According to the diagram what is the first way the water is cleaned?

a)

Sedimentation

b)

Use of screens

c)

Sand filtration

d)

Chlorination

36.

Why does the water go through the anthracite, sand, and gravel?

a)

So minerals can be put into the water making it healthy

b)

To filter out minerals and chemical pollutants

c)

To feed bacteria

d)

Help put fluorine in the water for stronger teeth

37.

Why is chorine and fluorine put in the water?

a)

To kill any parasites that may get in the water and give us strong teeth.

b)

To make it easy for us to swim in our pools.

c)

To give us more minerals in our diet

d)

To make the water flow better and not rot the pipes

38.

How long does it take rainwater to become groundwater?

a)

Immediately

b)

One week

c)

10 years

d)

Close to 100 years

39.

What is the purpose of the Clean Water Act?

a)

To protect ground water

b)

To protect drinking water

c)

To protect lakes rivers and streams

d)

All are correct

40.

What is the purpose of watershed near your homes in Texas?

a)

To collect water to be used in homes

b)

To clean our water supplies

c)

To collect water to be used for agriculture

d)

To protect our homes and businesses from flooding

41.

Which type of water usage uses the most water in our homes?

a)

Showering

b)

Drinking

c)

Flushing the toilet

d)

Cleaning

42.

Pollution from pesticides and fertilizers are which type of pollution?

a)

A. Nutrient

b)

B. Chemical

c)

C. Biological

d)

D. Physical

e)

Both a and b

43.

Heated water is which type of pollution?

a)

A. Nutrient

b)

B. Chemical

c)

C. Biological

d)

D. Thermal

e)

Both a and b

44.

What that runs on the ground is called?

a)

groundwater

b)

freshwater

c)

runoff

d)

aquifer

45.

What watershed is most of Humble part of?

a)

San Jacinto River

b)

Mississippi River

c)

Brazos River

d)

Colorado River

46.

How much water does it take to raise 2.2 lbs of grain feed beef?

a)

400

b)

4000

c)

1000

d)

100

47.

How much water does it take to produce 1 gallon of gasoline?

a)

1-2.25

b)

2.25-4.5

c)

4.5-5.25

d)

0-1

48.

Ground that water is able to pass through is called?

a)

permeable

b)

impermeable

49.

Concrete would be?

a)

permeable

b)

impermeable

50.

______ is the level below which the ground is saturated with water.

a)

Watershed

b)

Groundwater

c)

Water Table

d)

Aquifer

51.

__________ are underground regions of soil or porous rock that are saturated with water.

a)

Aquifer

b)

Springs

c)

Wells

d)

Water Table

52.

When groundwater is

depleted, the falling water tables can cause cities to______.

a)

sink

b)

grow

c)

raise

d)

swell

53.

When trees and plants are removed from areas near bodies of water, what type of pollution can this create

a)

A. Thermal

b)

B. Chemical

c)

C. Sediment

d)

D. Biological

54.

A rock containing iron turns red as its surface is exposed to air and water over time. This is an example of

a)

decomposition

b)

primary succession

c)

chemical weathering

d)

physical weathering

55.

Most of the nutrients in soil come from

a)

decomposition

b)

erosion

c)

mechanical weathering

d)

chemical weathering

56.

A farmer interested in raising healthy crops should look for a

a)

sandy soil with a high pH, no clumps, and a light color.

b)

loamy, clumpy soil with a neutral pH and a dark color.

c)

loamy soil with a low pH and a light color.

d)

heavy clay soil with a high pH and a dark color.

57.

Deterioration of the soil’s fertility and ability to provide ecosystem services is called

a)

succession.

b)

soil pollution.

c)

soil degradation.

d)

erosion.

58.

Watering crops by way of human-constructed structures is known as

a)

fertilization.

b)

salinization.

c)

irrigation.

d)

precipitation.

59.

Your friend tells you she’s decided not to use pesticides or synthetic chemicals on her farm; instead she’ll rely on composting and biological pest control. She is practicing

a)

sustainable agriculture.

b)

organic agriculture.

c)

monoculture.

d)

industrial agriculture.

60.

An example of a soil parent material is

a)

topsoil.

b)

leaf litter.

c)

bedrock

d)

humus.

61.

As a farmer, you would be most concerned with the quality of the soil in the

a)

R horizon.

b)

E horizon.

c)

A horizon.

d)

O horizon.

62.

A rancher interested in the quality of the soil in her pasture might use which aspect of soil as a quick indicator of the pasture’s overall fertility?

a)

pH

b)

structure

c)

texture

d)

color

63.

The porous qualities of soil mean that which of the following can filter through the ground and pollute groundwater?

a)

nutrients

b)

microorganisms

c)

pesticides

d)

minerals

64.

A large area of cropland seeded with one crop is a(n)

a)

traditional farming technique.

b)

organic practice.

c)

polyculture.

d)

monoculture.

65.

The average food item in the United States travels 2400 km to reach the buyer. One alternative to this energy-inefficient practice is

a)

buying GM food.

b)

buying organic food.

c)

buying locally produced food.

d)

treating the food with preservative chemicals.

66.

During the beginning of human existence on Earth, the primary source of food came from

a)

village farms

b)

hunting and gathering

c)

agricultural practices

d)

domesticated farm animals

67.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four criteria for a food desert?

a)

distance from a supermarket

b)

vehicle ownership

c)

household size

d)

household income

68.

What do GMOs have modified?

a)

Lipids

b)

Proteins

c)

DNA

d)

RNA

69.

__ are pest that become resistant to “pest-resistant” crops.

a)

weeds

b)

all pest

c)

coach roaches

d)

super pest

70.

What is porosity?

a)

How soil particles are organized and clumped together.

b)

A measure of the volume of soil and the average distances between the spaces.

c)

The rate at which water and air moves from upper to lower soil layers.

d)

How easily a soil can crumble

71.

What is friability?

a)

How soil particles are organized and clumped together.

b)

A measure of the volume of soil and the average distances between the spaces.

c)

The rate at which water and air moves from upper to lower soil layers.

d)

How easily a soil can crumble

72.

What is soil structure?

a)

How soil particles are organized and clumped together.

b)

A measure of the volume of soil and the average distances between the spaces.

c)

The rate at which water and air moves from upper to lower soil layers.

d)

How easily a soil can crumble

73.

What is permeability?

a)

How soil particles are organized and clumped together.

b)

A measure of the volume of soil and the average distances between the spaces.

c)

The rate at which water and air moves from upper to lower soil layers.

d)

How easily a soil can crumble

74.

What is arable land?

a)

Land on which crops can be grown

b)

An invention from the 1700s

c)

Wearing away of the topsoil

d)

Parent material of topsoil

75.

How much U.S. farmable land was lost between 1985 – 2000?

a)

99%

b)

None

c)

One-fifth

d)

One-half

76.

Fertile soil supports abundant plant life. Which of the following characteristics describe fertile soil?

a)

Good soil structure, contains a range of microorganisms and has little topsoil

b)

Rich in nutrients, good soil structure and contains a range of microorganisms

c)

Has little topsoil, rich in nutrients and is low in organic matter

d)

Rich in nutrients, low in organic matter and good soil structure

77.

Which of the following is true of parks and preserves?

a)

They are not affected by air and water pollution.

b)

They serve as sources of wood for industries.

c)

They provide limited hunting of designated wildlife.

d)

They provide recreation for people.

78.

One benefit of preserving farmland is

a)

Increased CO2 production.

b)

Increased urban temperatures.

c)

Increased crop production.

d)

Increased urban sprawl.

79.

Leaching is:

a)

An organic fertilizer

b)

Removal of dissolved material from the soil by water

c)

Plowing across the slope of a hill

d)

Genetically altering a pesticide

80.

The three mineral components of soil are:

a)

Dirt, Silt and Sand

b)

Clay, Silt and Sand

c)

Clay, Silt and Gravel

d)

Clay, Silt and Rocks

81.

All of the following are soil conservation methods except:

a)

Contour plowing

b)

Terracing

c)

Conventional crop tilling

d)

Cover Crops

82.

Sustainable agriculture includes which of the following?

a)

Decreasing death rates

b)

Using ground cover to prevent soil erosion

c)

Wearing away of topsoil by wind and water

d)

Increasing cattle in order to increase the amount of manure collected

83.

What is the name given to the organic material found within the topsoil?

a)

Compost

b)

Falafel

c)

Humus

d)

Dirt

84.

When topsoil soil is lost by the action of wind and/or water, we call this __.

a)

Desertification

b)

Erosion

c)

Leaching

d)

Irrigation

85.

Which of the following statements describes contour planting?

a)

A farmer plants strips of close-growing plants between plants that are grown in rows.

b)

A farmer creates a series of “stair steps” along a hill.

c)

A farmer plants his crops from the top of a hill to the bottom of the hill.

d)

A farmer plants his crops across the slope of a hill.

86.

The “Dust Bowl” was an example of which soil-related problem?

a)

Desertification

b)

Ammonification

c)

Leaching

d)

Irrigation

87.

This is the layer of soil where seeds germinate and plant roots grow.

a)

Flowerbed

b)

Topsoil

c)

Bedrock

d)

Horizon

88.

Erosion is most likely when the soil is

a)

Bare and exposed to wind and rain.

b)

Plowed along the contour of the land.

c)

Covered with grass.

d)

Covered with forest.

89.

Earth’s available agricultural land is being reduced by

a)

Fast-growing human populations.

b)

Soil erosion.

c)

Desertification.

d)

All of the above.

90.

What can be done to sustain the productivity of rangeland?

a)

Limit herd size.

b)

Eliminate invasive plants.

c)

Leave the land unused for a time.

d)

All of the above.

91.

When forests are not replanted after trees are cut, other natural resources

a)

Increase.

b)

Decrease.

c)

Regenerate.

d)

Remain unchanged

92.

Given that most people live in urban areas, why should rural areas be preserved?

a)

They provide resources.

b)

They contain wildlife.

c)

They provide local services.

d)

They provide crucial infrastructure.

93.

All of these contribute directly to fertile topsoil except

a)

Earthworms’ breaking down the soil.

b)

Decomposition action of fungi and bacteria.

c)

Minerals supplied by rock particles.

d)

Bedrock chemical reactions.

94.

Many people worldwide are malnourished, in part because food production is

a)

Dependent on using genetically engineered plants.

b)

Slanted toward grain crops.

c)

Dependent on heavy fertilizer use.

d)

Sufficient, but distribution is inconsistent.

95.

The graph to the right shows the results of a study testing chemical pesticides on a pest species common to cotton plants. Different chemical pesticides were used in five different areas. According to these results, which of the following is the most effective chemical for controlling this pest species?

a)

V

b)

T

c)

S

d)

R

96.

WRITE THE LETTER OF THE MATCHING TERM: Substances that kill pests

(a)  

97.

WRITE THE LETTER OF THE MATCHING TERM: The process of cutting and removing only middle-aged or mature trees.



(a)  

98.

WRITE THE LETTER OF THE MATCHING TERM:

The process of removing all of the trees from an area of land.



(a)  

99.

WRITE THE LETTER OF THE MATCHING TERM:

Removal of dissolved material from the soil by water percolating downward.



(a)  

100.

WRITE THE LETTER OF THE MATCHING TERM:

The depletion of vegetation due to the continuous feeding of too many animals.

(a)  

101.

WRITE THE LETTER OF THE MATCHING TERM:

Substances that kill or inhibit plant growth.

(a)  

102.

WRITE THE LETTER OF THE MATCHING TERM:

A region that is not cultivated and that is not inhabited by humans.

(a)  

103.

A violent windstorm that forms a rotating column of air called a vortex is a __.

a)

Hurricane

b)

Thunderstorm

c)

Cyclone

d)

Tornado

104.

Which one of the following states is part of tornado alley?

a)

California

b)

Hawaii

c)

Florida

d)

Texas

105.

Over ¾ of all tornado occurrences take place in which country?

a)

China

b)

United States

c)

South Africa

d)

Australia

106.

Earthquakes generally occur at plate boundaries, where __

a)

Magnetic pull is greatest

b)

Stress on rocks is low

c)

Stress on rocks is greatest

d)

The most rock is found

107.

The point on the Earth's surface directly above the earthquake focus is called:

a)

Plate boundary

b)

Epicenter

c)

Quake

d)

Aftershock

108.

Where do hurricanes develop?

a)

Only in the northern hemisphere

b)

Near the equator

c)

In arctic regions

d)

In mountainous regions

109.

What is the most common type of tornado occurrences (69%)?

a)

Weak

b)

Moderate

c)

Strong

d)

Violent

110.

Which of the following is the most common phenomena?

a)

Avalanches

b)

Thunderstorms

c)

Tsunamis

d)

Earthquakes

111.

The development of an ecosystem in an area that has never had a community living within it refers to which of the following:

a)

Invasive species

b)

Secondary succession

c)

Primary succession

d)

Natural selection

112.

What is an example of a pioneer species?

a)

Mice

b)

Lichen

c)

Oak tree

d)

Pine tree

113.

The success of primary succession depends on the availability of which of the following?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Soil

d)

Water

114.

What kind of succession would result from clearing out a large area of land?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

115.

Due to constant disturbance, the following type of succession is considered to be a never ending process:

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

116.

Most volcanoes in the world are located on or nearby the:

a)

Atlantic Ocean

b)

Gulf of Mexico

c)

Ring of Fire

d)

Indian Ocean

117.

When the Mount St. Helens volcano erupted the blast covered much of the surrounding area with ash. Based on the diagram above, which list shows the sequence of secondary succession that followed that eruption?

a)

X,Y,Z,W

b)

Z,X,Y,W

c)

W,Y,X,Z

d)

Z, Y, X,W

118.

__ are large broken sections of the Earth’s crust.

a)

Convection Currents

b)

Molten Rock

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Plate Boundaries

119.

The large broken pieces of the Earth’s crust float on the top of __.

a)

Convection Currents

b)

Molten Rock

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Plate Boundaries

120.

What causes these large broken pieces of Earth’s crust to slowly move?

a)

Convection Currents

b)

Molten Rock

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Plate Boundaries

121.

Where these large broken pieces of Earth’s crust meet and interact is known as __.

a)

Convection Currents

b)

Molten Rock

c)

Tectonic Plates

d)

Plate Boundaries

122.

What is the term used for the most geologically active area surrounding the Pacific Ocean?

a)

Hot Spots

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

Ring of Fire

d)

Death Zone

123.

What scale is used to measure earthquakes?

a)

Fujita Scale

b)

Richter Scale

c)

Category Scale

d)

Earthquake Scale

124.

What scale is used to measure Hurricanes?

a)

Fujita Scale

b)

Richter Scale

c)

Category Scale

d)

Earthquake Scale

125.

What scale is used to measure Tornadoes?

a)

Fujita Scale

b)

Richter Scale

c)

Category Scale

d)

Earthquake Scale

126.

What is a rotating funnel of air that touches ground with wind speeds that can exceed 205 mph?

a)

Hurricane

b)

Funnel Cloud

c)

Tornado

d)

Dust Devil

127.

What is a storm that forms over tropical oceans?

a)

Dust Devil

b)

Tornado

c)

Funnel Cloud

d)

Hurricane

128.

What is required for a storm to be categorized as a hurricane?

a)

Wind speed of at least 54 mph

b)

Wind speed of at least 104 mph

c)

Wind speed of at least 74 mph

d)

Wind speed of at least 114 mph

129.

Tornadoes form when two masses of air with different __ and __ meet.

a)

Density and Speed

b)

Temperature and Speed

c)

Humidity and Speed

d)

Temperature and Humidity

130.

What percent of all the tornadoes are actually considered Violent?

a)

40%

b)

5%

c)

20%

d)

2%

131.

Which conditions are favorable conditions for Avalanches?

a)

high slope angle and lightly packed snow

b)

high slope angle and tightly packed snow

c)

low slope angle and warm temperatures

d)

low slope angle and cold temperatures

132.

What are volcanic eruptions known to trigger?

a)

landslides, ash clouds, possible warming temperatures

b)

landslides, ash clouds, possible cooling temperatures

c)

landslides, funnel clouds, possible cooling temperatures

d)

earthquakes, ash clouds, possible warming temperatures

133.

Which answer is only man made disasters?

a)

biological, volcanic, chemical

b)

nuclear, biological, chemical

c)

nuclear, landslides, biological

d)

nuclear, volcanic, chemical

134.

What type of disaster was Chernobyl?

a)

nuclear

b)

chemical

c)

volcanic

d)

biological

135.

What is the series of changes in an ecosystem when one community is replaced by another community as a result of changes in biotic and abiotic factors?

a)

secondary succession

b)

primary succession

c)

ecological succession

d)

natural selection

136.

Which is the correct statement about primary and secondary succession?

a)

Primary successions is the development of an ecosystem that happens to an area that has never had a community living in it and secondary succession happens after a disturbance where organisms are destroyed but the soil is safe.

b)

Primary successions happens after a disturbance where organisms are destroyed but the soil is safe and secondary succession is the development of an ecosystem that happens to an area that has never had a community living in it.

137.

What will Frequent disturbances of an ecosystem result in?

a)

an ecosystem will not be able to start at all

b)

an normal ecosystem

c)

an ecosystem with too many large trees and large animals

d)

an ecosystem with out large trees or large animals

138.

Smog is an example of:

a)

A Primary Pollutant

b)

Secondary Pollutant

c)

Smoke

d)

A thermal inversion

139.

Air pollution:

a)

Originated in the past few years

b)

Has grown much worse in recent times

c)

Has occurred throughout history

140.

Sulfur trioxide is a pollutant that is formed in a chemical reaction between oxygen in the air and sulfur dioxide emitted from smokestacks.  Is sulfur trioxide a primary and/or secondary pollutant?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

None

d)

Both

141.

Which is an example of an indoor air pollutant?

a)

Ozone

b)

Sulfur dioxide

c)

Radon gas

d)

Volcanic particles

142.

The major gases in the Earth’s atmosphere are:

a)

Carbon dioxide and oxygen

b)

Nitrogen and oxygen

c)

Hydrogen and oxygen

d)

Oxygen and ozone

143.

The earth’s atmosphere:

a)

Filters out much of the ultraviolet radiation before it reaches the Earth.

b)

Is a mixture of gases that act as a blanket to insulate the earth

c)

All

d)

Is less dense as the distance from the earth increases.

144.

Which of the following is the largest producer of primary air pollutants in the United States?

a)

Electrical energy production

b)

Transportation

c)

Agriculture

d)

Health care

145.

Climate Change:

a)

Is a natural condition which is due to changes in solar activity on the sun.

b)

Is due to an increase in the amount of water vapor produced by electrical power plants.

c)

Is affected by human activities mainly the release of carbon dioxide from the burning of fossil fuels.

d)

Is mainly due to decomposition of organic matter in landfills and wetlands.

146.

Which of the following are considered the major greenhouse gases?

a)

Water vapor and ozone

b)

Water vapor and carbon monoxide

c)

Ozone and carbon dioxide

d)

Ozone and methane

147.

Which of the following does not provide clues about Earth’s climate in the distant past?

a)

Volcanoes

b)

Sediments

c)

Ice cores

d)

Tree rings

148.

The layer of the atmosphere where the ozone shield is found is the:

a)

Ionosphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Hydrosphere

d)

Troposphere

149.

The major process that produces most air pollution is:

a)

Attrition

b)

Fusion

c)

Combustion

d)

Vaporization

150.

Rising sea levels are a result of:

a)

Increased amount of precipitation

b)

Melting ice only

c)

Increased carbon dioxide in the water

d)

Expansion of heated water

151.

Ozone in the stratosphere is most important to life at Earth’s surface because it absorbs:

a)

Gamma rays

b)

Microwaves

c)

Ultraviolet light

d)

Visible light

152.

The major human health problem related to outdoor pollution is:

a)

Lung cancer

b)

Heart disease

c)

Cataracts

d)

Skin cancer

153.

Conduction is the transfer of energy in the form of rays or waves.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

The ozone layer is found within the troposphere.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

Primary pollutants are produced when air pollutants react chemically with other substances.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

Trace amounts of some air pollutants may contribute to cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

As a result of the Clean Air Act, today, gasoline used by cars and trucks in the U.S. contains very large quantities of lead.

a)

True

b)

False

158.

Which biome shows the most biodiversity?

a)

Tropical Rainforest

b)

Coniferous Forest

c)

Grassland

d)

Desert

159.

Which biome shows the least biodiversity?

a)

Tropical Rainforest

b)

Coniferous Forest

c)

Grassland

d)

Desert

Similar Resources on Wayground

SNC1D Chemistry Review

158 questions

SNC1D Chemistry Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

Quiz 4 - Ionization, Types of Bonds, Naming Compounds

161 questions

Quiz 4 - Ionization, Types of Bonds, Naming Compounds

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

2022 Constellations Unit Exam

160 questions

2022 Constellations Unit Exam

quiz

Worksheet

•

10th - 12th Grade

Periodic table mega quiz

157 questions

Periodic table mega quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th - 12th Grade

Grade 9 NS Term 1 revision quiz

156 questions

Grade 9 NS Term 1 revision quiz

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th Grade

PMA 2 REVIEW

155 questions

PMA 2 REVIEW

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Bio 2 Semester review

156 questions

Bio 2 Semester review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

Active and Passive Transport

161 questions

Active and Passive Transport

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 10th Grade