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Anatomy end of year review

Total questions: 163

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which macromolecule is used as our main source of energy?

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

2.

Which macromolecule stores energy?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids/Fats

d)

Nucleic Acids

3.

This is one job proteins do not have in the body.

a)

structure for tissues and organs

b)

transport things through cell membranes

c)

speed up chemical reactions

d)

insulation

4.

This macromolecule breaks down into sugars such as glucose.

a)

Lipids/Fats

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Protein

d)

Carbohydrates

5.

Which type of fat is considered healthier than others?

a)

Saturated Fat

b)

Unsaturated Fat

c)

Monounsaturated Fats

d)

Trans Fat

6.
Proteins are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
7.
Lipids are made of... 
a)
C H O
b)
C H O N
c)
C H O N P
d)
C H O N S
8.
What type of macromolecule are enzymes?
a)
Protein
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Lipid
d)
Nucleic Acid
9.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

10.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
11.
What are the single sugars that are the building blocks of carbohydrates?
a)
monosaccharides
b)
disaccharides
c)
polysaccharides
d)
amino acid
12.
What type of macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
13.
Which major macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
14.
Glycerol and fatty acids combine to form...?
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
15.
Enzymes will make a reaction go _______ and use ______ energy.
a)
faster, less
b)
faster, more
c)
slower, less
d)
slower, more
16.
Which factor denatures a enzyme?
a)
Excessive heat
b)
Nothing can
c)
Exposure to light
d)
Exposure to bacteria
17.

Blood is example of __ tissue.

a)

Nervous

b)

muscle

c)

epithelial

d)

connective

18.

This type of epithelial tissue is found in the bladder.

a)

simple squamous

b)

stratified squamous

c)

transitional

d)

pseudostratified columnar

19.

Microvilli and goblet cells are common adaptations found in ___ tissue.

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Simple columnar epithelial

c)

Blood

d)

Nervous Tissue

20.

How many layers are found in pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

more than 2

d)

it varies

21.

Which of the following epithelial tissues is known for being located in an area of high diffusion like walls of blood vessels or in the alveoli of the lungs.

a)

Stratified Columnar

b)

Simple Columnar

c)

Stratified Squamous

d)

Simple Squamous

22.

your friend gets their upper ear pierced. What type of cartilage did they pierce?

a)

hyaline

b)

fibrous

c)

elastic

23.
 Located in the skin this tissue functions mainly to protect from injury.
a)
Columnar epithelium 
b)
Ciliated epithelium 
c)
Simple cuboidal epithelium
d)
Stratified squamous epithelium  
24.
Which of the following is the main function of adipose tissue?
a)
Energy 
b)
Padding/protection
c)
Insulation 
d)
All of the above
25.

What type of tissue is this?

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Simple cuboidal

c)

Stratified cuboidal

d)

Stratified squamous

26.

The space surrounding the cell body in a connective tissue that is often gel-like or watery is known as the

a)

elastic fibers

b)

collagen fibers

c)

ground susbtance

d)

epithelial tissue

27.
Name this tissue
a)
Bone
b)
Cartliage
c)
Blood
d)
Dense regular 
28.
ID
a)
neuron
b)
blood
c)
loose reticular
d)
bone
29.
Name this tissue
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
30.
What tissue is this
a)
Transitional epithelium
b)
Cartilage
c)
Dense Fibrous
d)
Areolar
31.
The muscle tissue shown is called ______.
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
32.
What tissue is this
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
33.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Skeletal muscle
b)
Nervous tissue
c)
Adipose tissue
d)
'Specialised' connective tissue
34.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Nervous tissue
b)
Cardiac muscle
c)
Smooth muscle
d)
Connective tissue proper
35.
Name the tissue
a)
elastic cartilage
b)
hyaline cartilage
c)
blood
d)
adipose
36.
The coloring in the skin; found in the epidermis.
a)
Melanin
b)
Oil
c)
Perspiration
d)
Pores
37.
What gland is responsible for keeping our hair soft and is a barrier for bacteria and fungi?
a)
Sudoriferous
b)
Sebaceous
c)
Melanin
d)
Carotene
38.
Goosebumps are caused by contractions of the ______ muscle
a)
Arrector pili
b)
Apocrine
c)
Eccrine
d)
Sebaceous
39.
Which layer contains accessory structures such as sweat glands, sebaceous glands, and hair follicles?
a)
epidermis
b)
dermis
c)
hypodermis
d)
hyperdermis
40.
What causes acne?
a)
clogged sebaceous glands
b)
clogged apocrine glands
c)
clogged merocrine glands
d)
clogged sweat glands
41.
What layer of epidermis does cell division occur?
a)
stratum lucidum
b)
stratum basale
c)
stratum granulosum
d)
stratum corneum
42.
The epidermis is composed of _____.
a)
stratified squamous epithelium
b)
simple columnar epithelium
c)
adipose tissue
d)
connective tissue
43.
The structure that holds the root of the hair firmly in place.
a)
Hair follicle
b)
Hair shaft
c)
Hypodermis
d)
Sweat pore
44.

List the layers of the Epidermis in order from top to bottom.

a)

5,2,3,4,1

b)

1,2,3,4,5

c)

4,5,3,1,2

d)

1,4,3,2,5

45.
The sweat gland that produces "stinky" sweat is the 
a)
Apocrine gland
b)
Eccrine gland
c)
Sudoriferous gland
d)
Sebaceous gland
46.

What is number 8?

a)

Sebaceous gland

b)

Hypodermis

c)

Sudoriferous gland

d)

Vein

47.

What is number 5?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Sebaceous Gland

d)

Sudoriferous Gland

48.

What is number 1?

a)

Dermis

b)

Epidermis

c)

Hypodermis/subcutaneous

d)

Artery

49.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

50.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

51.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

52.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Femur

b)

Tibia

c)

Fibula

d)

Humerus

53.

What bone is highlighted? (hint: inside of your leg)

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Femur

d)

Humerus

54.

What are the ends of bone covered with that helps reduce friction when two bones are rubbed together?

a)

periosteum

b)

ligament

c)

tendon

d)

cartilage

55.

What is the function of marrow?

a)

To make protein

b)

To make red blood cells and store fat.

c)

reduce friction

d)

to hold bones together

56.

Name the condition in which the bones become weak and break easily.

a)

Osteoarthritis

b)

Rheumatoid arthritis

c)

osteoporosis

d)

arthritis

57.

What is the name of the bone in green?

a)

Parietal

b)

Occipital

c)

Frontal

d)

Ethmoid

58.

What is the name of the bone in green?

a)

Sphenoid

b)

Parietal

c)

Maxilla

d)

Temporal

59.

What is the name of the biggest foramen on the image?

a)

Lambdoid Foramen

b)

Foramen Magnum

c)

Occipital Foramen

d)

Posterior Foramen

60.

What is the name of the bone highlighted on the image?

a)

Ethmoid Bone

b)

Mandible Bone

c)

Maxillary Bone

d)

Sphenoid Bone

61.

what is the name of the bone highlighted on the image?

a)

Mandible Bone

b)

Maxillary Bone

c)

Nasal Bones

d)

Occipital Bone

62.
Any bony prominance
a)
Process
b)
Facet
c)
Fissure
d)
Meatus
63.

Large, rounded, roughened projection

a)

Trochanter

b)

Tubercle

c)

Tuberosity

d)

Notch

64.

Narrow ridge of bone, usually prominent

a)

Crest

b)

Forament

c)

Notch

d)

Epicondyle

65.

A condyle is a

a)

bony projection

b)

narrow ridge of bone

c)

indentation at the edge of a bone

d)

rounded joint connection

66.

A raised area on or above a condyle is called a(n)

a)

crest

b)

notch

c)

epicondyle

d)

tuberosity

67.
A narrow slit-like opening
a)
fissure
b)
foramen
c)
meatus
d)
ovale
68.

Name this structure:

(a)  

69.

What is necessary for the myosin to release the actin?

a)

ATP

b)

Calcium

c)

ADP

d)

Sodium

70.

What does the myosin do to the actin?

a)

Nothing

b)

Pushes on it

c)

Pulls on it

d)

Breaks it into pieces

71.

What is the name of the protein that covers the binding sites on actin?

a)

Myosin

b)

Titin

c)

Troponin

d)

Tropomyosin

72.

What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum do?

a)

Stores sodium

b)

Stores ATP

c)

Releases sodium

d)

Stores calcium

73.

What is the name of the place where a nerve meets a muscle fiber

a)

Nerve junction

b)

Neuromuscular junction

c)

Muscle junction

d)

Crossbridge

74.

How does the sarcomere shorten (contract) ?

a)

The myosin filaments contract

b)

The actin filaments contract

c)

The myosin is pulled by the actin

d)

The actin is pulled by the myosin

75.

___ and ___ are regulatory proteins bound to actin.

a)

Myosin and actin

b)

Glycogen and hemoglobin

c)

Calcium and oxygen

d)

Troponin and tropomyosin

76.

Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell.

a)

Muscle cell

b)

Gland

c)

Neuron

d)

None of the above

77.

The neurotransmitter that signals muscle contraction is...

a)

Calcium

b)

Actin

c)

Myosin

d)

Ach (acetylcholine)

78.

The functional unit of the muscle cell is the:

a)

Sarcomere

b)

Myofilament

c)

Osteon

d)

Muscle fiber

79.

What is the name of structure #1?

a)

Troponin

b)

Tropomyosin

c)

Actin

d)

ATP

80.

What is labeled #1

a)

Synapse

b)

Neurotransmitter

c)

Synaptic Vesicle

d)

Motor End Plate

81.

What is labeled #2?

a)

Synaptic Vesicles

b)

Calcium Channel

c)

Motor End Plate

d)

Synapse

82.

In a neuromuscular synapse, which of the following breaks down the neurotransmitter ACh?

a)

The enzyme acetylcholinesterase

b)

The motor end plate

c)

The arrival of additional impulses at the axon terminal

d)

The creation of additional synaptic vesicles

83.

When an action potential reaches a neuromuscular junction, which of the following will happen first?

a)

Acetylcholine binds to acetylcholinesterase and depolarizes the cell.

b)

Sodium ion gates and potassium ion gates open at the same time.

c)

Acetylcholine enters into the synapse to bond with receptor proteins.

d)

Vesicles containing acetylcholine fuse with the presynaptic membrane.

84.

Identify this part of the nervous system

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Peripheral nervous system

85.

Identify this part of the nervous system

a)

Central nervous system

b)

Peripheral nervous system

86.

Which supporting cell helps insulate nerve fibers in the PNS? (select all)

a)

Schwann cells

b)

Satellite cells

c)

Oligodedrocytes

d)

Ependymal  

87.

Which supporting cell helps insulate nerve fibers in the CNS?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglia

c)

Oligodedrocytes

d)

Ependymal  

88.

Which supporting cell has a spider like shape?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglia

c)

Oligodedrocytes

d)

Ependymal  

89.

Which supporting cell anchors neurons to capillaries?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Microglia

c)

Oligodedrocytes

d)

Ependymal  

90.

While driving a car, which lobe would help you hear the car behind you honking its horn?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

91.

While giving a speech, which part of the brain helps the speaker maintain good posture and stay balanced?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Hippocampus

92.

While studying for a test, which lobe of the brain helps you see the study material that you are reading?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Occipital

d)

Parietal

93.

Sabrina is awesome on walking on the balance beam. Which part of the brain helps her?

a)
cerebellum
b)
occipital lobe
c)
hippocampus
d)
frontal lobe
94.

I burn my hand and I feel heat. What part of the brain helps with this?

a)
Occipital lobe
b)
Temporal lobe
c)
Frontal lobe
d)

Parietal lobe

95.

Which part of the brain is responsible for the body's basic functions?

a)

Brain stem

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Frontal Lobe

d)

Cerebellum

96.
Which letter represents the central canal?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
97.
Which number represents the ventral root?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
98.
Which number represents the dorsal root?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
99.
Which number represents the dorsal root ganglion?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
100.

How is a reflex arc different than other voluntary movements?

a)

A reflex arc takes the same path as a voluntary action

b)

A reflex a travels from a sensory neuron to the spinal cord then to a motor neuron, skipping the brain

c)

A reflex arc takes longer than a voluntary action

d)

There is no difference between a reflex arc and a voluntary action

101.

“They are cells specialized in picking up stimulus, whether they are internal or external, and send them to the brain through the nervous system”. This is the definition of...

a)

Stimulus

b)

Receptor

c)

Sense

d)

Taste

102.

Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc

a)

Receptors, spinal cord,sensory neuron, motor neuron, muscle

b)

Receptors, muscle, sensory neuron, motor neuron, spinal cord

c)

Receptors, sensory neuron, spinal cord, motor neuron, muscle

d)

Receptors, motor neuron, spinal cord, sensory neuron, muscle

103.
Which structure is E?
a)
midbrain
b)
thalamus
c)
pons
d)
hypothalamus
104.

What is this?

a)

Corpus callosum

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

105.
The membranes covering the brain and spinal cord are the _________.
a)
thalamus
b)
ventricles
c)
meninges
d)
choroid plexuses
106.
What is this?
a)
Pons
b)
Medulla Oblongata
c)
Epithalamus
d)
3rd Ventricle
107.

Which numbers represents the motor neuron in a reflex arc?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

108.

In which lobe of the brain is Wernicke's area located?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

109.

In which lobe of the brain is Broca's area located?

a)

Frontal

b)

Temporal

c)

Parietal

d)

Occipital

110.

The area of the brain that regulates hunger, thirst and other drives.

a)

thalamus

b)

hypothalamus

c)

amygdala

d)

cerebellum

111.

Which letter identifies the ventral horn?

(a)  

112.

Information superhighway to the thalamus

a)

Pons

b)

Midbrain

c)

Medulla

d)

Hypothalamus

113.

Directs signals to the various parts of the cerebrum

a)

Pons

b)

Midbrain

c)

Thalamus

d)

Hypothalamus

114.

What is detected by chemoreceptors?

a)

tastes

b)

sounds

c)

odors

d)

both taste and odor

115.

Of the following, which is NOT part of an eye?

a)

cochlea

b)

iris

c)

retina

d)

cornea

116.

Which neurons in your eye can detect all colors of light?

a)

Rods

b)

Pyramids

c)

Cubes

d)

Cones

117.
The ear has 2 main functions.  They are hearing and: 
a)
Balance
b)
Draining excess fluid
c)
Managing pressure when in elevated areas
d)
Creating cerumen
118.
The small projections on the surface of the tongue are called
a)
otoliths
b)
papillae
c)
taste buds
d)
gustatory hairs
119.
What other sense works closely with your sense of taste?
a)
Sense of sight
b)
Sense of hearing
c)
Sense of smell
120.
When you cry and your nose runs, what fluid is coming through your nose?
a)

Tears/lacrimal fluid

b)
Cerebrospinal fluid
c)
Aqueous humor
d)
Mucus
121.
When you look in the mirror, what part of the eye can you NOT see?
a)
Iris
b)
Pupil
c)
Sclera
d)
Retina
122.
If your ossicles were removed, you would NOT be able to:
a)
Equalize pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane
b)
Maintain your sense of balance
c)
Transmit sound waves to the inner ear
d)
Carry nerve impulses to the cerebrum
123.
Which part of the eye allows the lens to change shape when focusing?
a)
choroid coat
b)
circular muscles
c)
ciliary bodies
d)
extrinsic muscles
124.

The sharpest vision occurs in the region of the retina called the:

a)

optic disc

b)

fovea centralis

c)

vitreous humor

d)

sclera

125.

What part of the ear is responsible for our sense of dynamic equilibrium?

a)

cochlea

b)

semicircular canals

c)

labrynth

d)

tympanic cavity

126.

80% of taste is actually due to ____________

a)

vision

b)

smell

c)

taste buds

d)

ossicles

127.

What is the correct chemical equation for Cellular Respiration?

a)

C6H12O6 (Glucose) + H2O (Water) -----> CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) + H2O (Water) + ATP

b)

C6H12O6 (Glucose) + O2 (Oxygen) -----> CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) + H2O (Water) + ATP

c)

C6H12O6 (Glucose) + O2 (Oxygen) -----> CO2 (Carbon Dioxide) + H2O (Water) + ADP

128.

What is labeled "4" (the blue/purple part) in the diagram?

a)

sarcolemma

b)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

transverse tubules

d)

myofibril

129.

What muscle is this?

a)

Gluteutal muscles

b)

Hamstrings

c)

Quadriceps

d)

Deltoids

130.

What muscles is this?

a)

Iliopsoas

b)

Deltiods

c)

Trapezius

d)

Pectoralis

131.
Name this muscle.
a)
Tricep
b)
Trapezius
c)
Biceps Brachii
d)
Tres Major
132.
What muscle is this?
a)
Trapezius
b)
Erector spinae
c)
External obliques
d)
Internal obliques
133.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Pectorals
c)
Sternocleidomastoid
d)
Quadricep
134.
a)
Trapezius
b)
Gluteals
c)
Deltoid
d)
Hamstring
135.

which skeletal muscle is represented in the image?

a)

orbicularis oculi

b)

zygomaticus

c)

orbicularis oris

d)

frontalis

136.

which skeletal muscle is represented in the image?

a)

rectus femoris

b)

vastus lateralis

c)

vastus medialis

d)

sartorius

137.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Quadriceps
c)
Bicep
d)
Satorius
138.

What carries food from the pharynx to the stomach?

a)

larynx

b)

trachea

c)

esophagus

d)

bronchioles

139.

What type of digestion takes place in the stomach?

a)

mechanical

b)

chemical

c)

both mechanical and chemical

140.

Where does the process of digestion begin?

a)

mouth

b)

esophagus

c)

stomach

d)

small intestine

141.

Where does the absorption of nutrients from food take place?

a)

stomach

b)

liver

c)

small intestine

d)

large intestine

142.

What chemically breaks down food into smaller molecules?

a)

teeth

b)

muscles of the stomach

c)

enzymes

143.

What are the rhythmic muscular contractions of your esophagus called to help food move along?

a)

swallowing

b)

peristalsis

c)

inertia contractions

d)

paralysis

144.

What part of the digestive system mechanically and chemically breaks down food?

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

both the mouth and stomach

145.

How many ureters does a person typically have?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

four

146.

How many urethras does a person typically have?

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

147.

Filtering blood to remove excess water and waste products is the job of the:

a)

kidneys

b)

ureters

c)

urinary bladder

148.

Transporting urine from the kidneys to the bladder is the job of the:

a)

kidneys

b)

ureters

c)

urethra

149.

Identify the structure labelled "A" in the diagram.

a)

Kidney

b)

Ureter

c)

Bladder

d)

Urethra

150.
Which sequence represents the correct pathway for the removal of urine from the human body?
a)
kidney → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra
b)
kidney → urethra → urinary bladder → ureter
c)
ureter → kidney → urinary bladder → urethra
d)
urethra → kidney → urinary bladder → ureter
151.
In addition to water, the principal components of urine are
a)
amino acids and fatty acids
b)
urea and salts
c)
ammonia and bile
d)
hydrochloric acid and bases
152.

In each kidney there are millions of tiny filtering units responsible for cleaning the blood, what are they?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Villi

c)

Nephrons

d)

Cilia

153.

What is the function of the renal corpuscle?

a)

Filters out plasma from blood

b)

Holds urine until excretion

c)

Balances chemicals in urine

d)

Returns needed elements to blood

e)

Stabilizes hydration

154.

What is a "normal" blood pressure

a)

120/110 mmHg

b)

120/80 mmHg

c)

100/80 mmHg

d)

140/80 mmHg

155.

Which of the following can cause hypertension?

a)

dilated blood vessels

b)

constriction of blood vessels

c)

low blood volume

d)

low hematocrit

156.

Cancer is defined as the

a)

uncontrolled division of mutated cells

b)

normal division of cells

c)

normal DNA replication

d)

abnormal ATP synthesis

157.

The invasion of the bloodstream by a malignant cell that takes up residence in a new location is called.

a)

Metastasis

b)

Metaphase

c)

Benign tumor relocation

d)

cancer relocation

158.

Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a

a)

Pathogen

b)

Biopsy

c)

Carcinogen

d)

Retrovirus

159.
 Division of the Autonomic Nervous System (which is a subdivision of the Peripheral Nervous System) that is & REST AND DIGEST
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
160.
increased heart rate
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic
161.
What is not a response of the sympathetic nervous system?
a)
Dilation of the pupils
b)
Elevation of the heart rate
c)
Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle
d)
  increased activity of the digestive system
162.
What tissue is not innervated by the autonomic nervous system?
a)
Glands
b)
Skeletal Muscle
c)
Cardiac Muscle
d)
Smooth Muscle
163.
Feeling of calm
a)
sympathetic
b)
parasympathetic

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