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Bio benchmark

Total questions: 156

Worksheet time: 11hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is that?

a)

Glucose

b)

Ethanol

c)

ATP

d)

CO2

2.

What is that?

(a)  

3.

.... is any material that reacts to release energy to be used for work

a)

Ethanol

b)

Glucose

c)

Fuel

d)

Energy

4.

What does ethanol reduce?

a)

Energy loss

b)

Petroleum use

c)

Chemical bond loss

d)

CO2 usage

5.

How are ethanol and glucose similar in structure and function? Choose all correct answers.

a)

They are both carbon-based molecules

b)

They are both hydrocarbons

c)

They are both used as fuel

d)

They both store energy in chemical covalent bonds

6.

In photosynthesis what do plants convert into chemical energy in the form of glucose?

(a)  

7.

......must be broken for the stored energy to be released

a)

polar bonding

b)

covalent bonds

c)

ionic bonds

d)

chemical bonds

8.

What reaction in cars provides the energy needed to break these bonds and release energy

(a)  

9.

What is cellular respiration?

4 lines
10.

What type of reaction is that

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

11.

..... is the energy needed to start a chemical reaction

a)

Products energy

b)

Difference in energy

c)

Reactants energy

d)

Activation energy

12.

Cellular respiration is an endothermic reaction

a)

False

b)

True

13.

During cellular respiration, is energy absorbed or released?

(a)  

14.

Cellular respiration is (a)   process, which means that it requires oxygen to take place

15.

The stored energy is transferred to ....

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

glucose

d)

starch

16.

Which process produces a larger number of ATP in cellular respiration?

a)

anaerobic

b)

exothermic

c)

aerobic

d)

endothermic

17.

What's the difference between an aerobic and an anaerobic process?

4 lines
18.

he release of energy as heat accounts for why the body temperatures of mammals range from (in degrees celsius)

a)

37-39

b)

36-39

c)

35-38

d)

36-38

19.

Cellular respiration takes place inside an organelle called the

(a)  

20.

Both plant and animal cells contain mitochondria

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Why do both plant and animal cells contain a mitochondria?

4 lines
22.

The mitochondrion has an inner membrane with many folds, called

a)

inner membrane

b)

matrix

c)

cristae

d)

intermembrane space

23.

The ...... separates the mitochondrion from the rest of the cell

a)

matrix

b)

outermembrane space

c)

inner membrane

d)

outer membrane

24.

What is the space between the two membranes is called

(a)  

25.

What is the difference between photosynthesis and cellular respiration

4 lines
26.

The process of ..... occurs before the two main stages of cellular respiration

a)

electron transport chain

b)

krebs cycle

c)

glycolysis

27.

The input for glycolysis is ...... which is an output of photosynthesis

a)

sun light

b)

ATP

c)

glucose

d)

starch

28.

Glycolysis forms ....., which drives the Krebs cycle to produce CO2 and ATP

a)

pyruvate

b)

ATP

c)

NADH

d)

H2O

29.

What are the 2 final outputs of cellular respiration?

(a)  

30.

What are the roles of NADH and FADH2?

4 lines
31.

The process of breaking down of glucose occurs in the .... of a cell

a)

mitochondria

b)

vacuole

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

32.

Glycolysis is an ... process

a)

anaerobic

b)

endothermic

c)

exothermic

d)

aerobic

33.

pyruvate are ...

a)

two three-oxygen molecules

b)

two two-carbon molecules

c)

three three-carbon molecules

d)

two three-carbon molecules

34.

What is the order of cellular respiration

a)

ETC -> krebs -> glycolysis

b)

krebs -> ETC -> glycolysis

c)

glycolysis -> krebs -> ETC

d)

krebs -> glycolysis -> ETC

35.

The Krebs cycle, sometimes called the (a)  

36.

The Krebs cycle was named after

a)

Viktor Kreb

b)

Albert Kreb

c)

Hans Kreb

d)

Flick Kreb

37.

What is the function of Krebs?

4 lines
38.

In Krebs process, ........ are transferred to molecules such as NADH and FADH2

a)

high-energy protons

b)

low-energy electrons

c)

high-energy electrons

d)

low-energy protons

39.

Which statement supports the idea that matter is conserved in the Krebs cycle?

a)

Carbon atoms are rearranged but not created or destroyed.

b)

Carbon atoms are made from other carbon atoms at each step.

c)

Carbon atoms are destroyed in order to use their electrons.

d)

Carbon atoms are combined with electrons to make new elements.

40.

The Krebs cycle is a continual series of reactions.

a)

true

b)

false

41.

What is a waste product of krebs cycle?

(a)  

42.

the electron transport chain, uses .... embedded in the inner membrane of the mitochondrion

a)
proteins
b)
nucleic acids
c)
carbohydrates
d)
lipids
43.

explain the process of electron transport chain

4 lines
44.

Which processes demonstrate that cellular respiration involves the breaking of chemical bonds and the formation of new bonds that results in a net transfer of energy from food to the cell? Choose all correct answers.

a)

generation of ATP

b)

Movement of hydrogen ions down a concentration gradient

c)

formation of pyruvate

d)

Transfer of electrons through a membrane

e)

release of sugar from carbohydrates

45.

Together, glycolysis and cellular respiration produce a net gain of up to ..... ATP molecules for every glucose molecule

a)

34

b)

38

c)

26

d)

32

46.

Fermentation does not make ATP, but it allows ETC to continue

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Fermentation does not make ATP, but it allows (a)   to continue

48.

Electrons are removed from electron carriers such as ....

a)

NAD+

b)

NADH only

c)

FADH2 only

d)

NADH and FADH2

49.

what are the 4 steps of ETC?

4 lines
50.

Fermentation removes electrons from ..... molecules and recycles ..... molecules for glycolysis.

a)

NADH , NAD+

b)

FADH2 , FAD3+

c)

ATP, AD{

d)

NADH , FADH2

51.

(a)   is a waste product of fermentation that builds up in muscle cells and causes that burning feeling

52.

what is the role of fermentation?

4 lines
53.

A community is a group of the same species that lives in the same area

a)

true

b)

false

54.

A .... is a group of the same species that lives in the same area

a)

community

b)

population

c)

ecosystem

d)

abiotic

55.

Multiple populations of different species form a (a)  

56.

what does an ecosystem include?

4 lines
57.

Many different ecosystems make up a biome

a)

true

b)

false

58.

A ..... is a major regional or global distribution of organisms adapted to living in that particular environmen

a)

abiome

b)

biodiversity

c)

biome

d)

prairie

59.

(a)   is a measure of the number of different species found within a specific area

60.

An area with a high level of biodiversity, such as a tropical rain forest, has a small assortment of species living near one another.

a)

false

b)

true

61.

plants and animals that live in one biome are found in any other biome.

a)

true

b)

false

62.

The amount of biodiversity found in an area depends on many factors, including .....

a)

moisture

b)

heat

c)

oxygen

d)

temperature

63.

a prairie is a type of ......

a)

temperate grassland

b)

mountain range

c)

desert

d)

tropical rainforest

64.

Why are Frozen polar ice caps and high, snow and ice-covered mountain peaks are not considered biomes?

4 lines
65.

These water-based ecosystems are called

a)
terrestrial ecosystems
b)
marine habitats
c)
aquatic ecosystems
d)
freshwater biomes
66.

There are .... main categories of aquatic ecosystems

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

67.

How could rising ocean temperatures affect coral reef ecosystems? Select all correct answers.

a)

Coral reefs are already found in warm waters. Warmer water temperatures will not affect them.

b)

Coral reefs contain animals that can only live in a specific environment. Rising water temperatures could cause mass die-offs.

c)

Many of the animals in coral reefs are fish. If the water temperature increased, the fish would relocate to cooler waters.

d)

Coral reefs are home to many different types of plants. Changing the water temperature could mean a loss in photosynthetic plants, affecting the amounts of carbon dioxide and oxygen in the water.

68.

quatic plants utilize to convert sunlight into usable energy.

a)

cellular respiration

b)

krebs cycle

c)

photosynthesis

d)

glycolysis

69.

Most coral reefs grow within .... zones

a)
abyssal
b)
benthic
c)
intertidal
d)

tropical

70.

occur where fresh water and salt water mix together. 

a)

open ocean

b)

kelp forests

c)

coral reefs

d)

estuaries

71.

What does the marine ecosystem include?

4 lines
72.

What does the freshwater ecosystems include?

4 lines
73.

..... is essential for metabolism

a)

sunlight

b)

energy

c)

ecosystem

d)

glucose

74.

What is a simple way to model the flow of energy in an ecosystem?

(a)  

75.

which law states that energy cannot be created or destroyed?

(a)  

76.

which order of food chain is correct?

a)

producer -> carnivore -> herbivore

b)

herbivore -> carnivore -> producer

c)

producer -> herbivore -> carnivore

d)

none of the above

77.

....... is a sequence that links species by their feeding relationships

a)

consumer

b)

food chain

c)

producer

d)

decomposer

78.

desert cottontails are organisms that eat only plants

a)

true

b)

false

79.

desert cottontails are ......

a)

herbivores

b)

carnivores

c)

producers

d)

decomposers

80.

Carnivores are organisms that eat only plants

a)

true

b)

false

81.

(a)   are organisms that eat only animals

82.

(a)   are organisms that eat both plants and animals

83.

Western diamondback rattlesnakes are carnivores

a)

false

b)

true

84.

....... are organisms that eat detritus, or dead organic matter

a)

herbivores

b)

carnivores

c)

omnivores

d)

detritivores

85.

..... are Detritivores

a)

earthworms

b)

kangaroo rats

c)

desert cottontails

d)

western diamondback rattlesnakes

86.

(a)   are organisms that break down organic matter into simpler compounds.

87.

why are decomposers important?

4 lines
88.

What might happen in an ecosystem if all of the decomposers were suddenly removed?

4 lines
89.

(a)   are the levels of nourishment in a food chain

90.

The first trophic level is occupied by the ......

a)

herbivores

b)

producers

c)

carnivores

d)

omnivores

91.

The third level is occupied by the primary consumer an herbivore

a)

true

b)

false

92.

The third and fourth levels contain secondary and tertiary consumers, and so on, which can be .... or ....

a)

omnivores

b)

carnivores

c)

herbivores

d)

producers

93.

Food chains are not isolated units but are linked together in (a)  

94.

A food web models the complex network of feeding relationships between trophic levels within an ecosystem

a)

true

b)

false

95.

If all the triggerfish in the food web were eliminated, what immediate effects would you expect to observe? Select all correct answers.

a)

The jellyfish population would decrease.

b)

The algae population would increase.

c)

The reef shark population would decrease.

d)

The shrimp population would increase.

e)

The sea turtle population would increase.

96.

what is biomass?

a)

a fossil fuel

b)

inorganic materials

c)

growth

d)

something derived from animal wastes

97.

energy in organisms is divided to biomass, ...., and ......

a)

homeostasis

b)

ATP

c)

CO2

d)

excreted wastes

e)

heat

98.

As trophic level ......, the amount of available energy is reduced because some is converted to heat or excreted as waste

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

doesn't change

99.

(a)   is a measure of the total dry mass of organisms in a given ecosystem at the time of measurement

100.

..... is the percentage of energy entering the ecosystem that is incorporated into biomass at a particular trophic level

a)

joules

b)

pyramid model

c)

biomass

d)

productivity

101.

(a)   are useful for showing the productivity of an ecosystem and can illustrate the distribution of energy

102.

what does modeling ecosystem productivity with a pyramid allows scientists to compare?

4 lines
103.

..... is the percentage of energy transferred from one trophic level to the next

a)

Biomass

b)

Trophic efficiency

c)

Productivity

d)

KCAL

104.

An (a)   models the transfer of energy beginning with producers and working up the food chain to the top-level consumer

105.

the more levels there are in the ecosystem, the ..... the loss of energy

a)

fewer

b)

greater

106.

only ..... percent of energy produced is transferred to the next trophic level

a)

7.5

b)

10

c)

12

d)

15

107.

Producers convert only about ..... percent of the energy available from sunlight into useable energy

a)

0.1

b)

0.5

c)

1

d)

2.5

108.

Why is there a limit on the number of trophic levels that can exist in an ecosystem?

a)

There is no limit to the number of trophic levels that can be added

b)

There would not be enough space for more organisms

c)

The remaining energy would be inadequate to form a new level

d)

There would be too much competition among organisms

109.

A ...... compares the biomass at different trophic levels within an ecosystem

a)

tertiary consumers

b)

secondary consumers

c)

producers

d)

biomass pyramid

110.

Biomass is measured as the total mass per unit of area

a)

true

b)

false

111.

The biomass measurement includes living organisms but doesn't include dead organic matter

a)

true

b)

false

112.

which unit is used when measuring a biomass pyramid?

a)

kg/m^3

b)

g/m^2

c)

kg/m^2

d)

g/m^3

113.

Use the pyramid of numbers models to help you complete the following problem. According to the grassland pyramid, how many grass plants would be needed to support 10 birds?

a)

12,000,000

b)

15,000,000

c)

10,000,000

d)

18,000,000

114.

According to this model, if the producer level contained 5000 J of energy, how many joules would be present at the secondary consumers level?

a)

50

b)

5

c)

500

d)

10

115.

A (a)   shows how many individual organisms are present at each trophic level in an ecosystem

116.

The larger the size of the individual organisms, the ..... that are needed to support the next trophic level

a)

fewer

b)

larger

117.

What effect did the human population have on Easter Island?

4 lines
118.

what does burning fossil fuels release?

4 lines
119.

..... is a type of air pollution caused by the interaction of sunlight with pollutants produced by fossil fuel emissions

a)

ozone

b)

fossil fuels

c)

fog

d)

smog

120.

The nitrogen dioxide in smog reacts with oxygen to produce ....

a)

ozone o2

b)

ozone o3

c)

ozone o4

121.

what is the role of the ozone in the upper atmosphere?

4 lines
122.

what do fertilizers do when added to food crops or lawns?

4 lines
123.

The addition of nitrogen to an ecosystem alters the nutrient balance, which can lead to increases in producers such as algae causing .....

a)

algal bloom

b)

excess fertilizers

c)

decomposition

d)

destruction of ozone

124.

what is the process of depleting oxygen called?

a)
Oxygen extraction
b)

decomposition

c)

eutrophication

d)

aquatic diffraction

125.

what 2 human activities lead to increased carbon dioxide levels in Earth's atmosphere?

4 lines
126.

what's the role of greenhouse gases?

4 lines
127.

If energy is conserved, what percentage of the solar energy should be reflected back into space?

a)

71%

b)

29%

c)

10%

d)

100%

128.

what are the names of the 4 earth spheres?

4 lines
129.

how are matter and energy alike?

4 lines
130.

The ......., also known as ........, is the circular pathway of water on Earth from the atmosphere, to the surface, below ground and back into the atmosphere

a)

hydrologic cycle

b)

water cycle

c)

oxygen cycle

d)

biogeochemical cycle

131.

are any location where cycling matter is stored

a)

Water falls

b)

Evaporation

c)

Reservoirs

d)

Precipitation

132.

...... and ...... are examples of processes that move water between reservoirs

(a)  

133.

which one of these are reservoirs?

a)

clouds

b)

precipitation

c)

evaporation

d)

fresh water lake

e)

oceans

134.

Evaporation is a process

a)

true

b)

false

135.

Which of these are processes?

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

precipitation

d)

lakes

e)

fresh water sources

136.

A (a)   is the movement of a particular chemical through the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem

137.

How is a biogeochemical cycle different from a water cycle?

4 lines
138.

What are the 4 main biogeochemical cycles?

4 lines
139.

About ..... percent of Earth's atmosphere is composed of nitrogen gas (N2).

a)

71

b)

78

c)

82

d)

88

140.

Certain types of bacteria convert gaseous nitrogen into ammonia (NH3) through a process called ......

a)
nitrogen assimilation
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
nitrogen reduction
d)
ammonia synthesis
141.

bacteria change ammonium into nitrate (NO3) through a process called ......

a)
nitrification
b)
ammonification
c)
denitrification
d)
nitrogen fixation
142.

Nitrates released by soil bacteria are taken up by plants through ......, which converts them into organic compounds such as amino acids and proteins

a)
nitrification
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
assimilation
d)
denitrification
143.

When decomposers break down animal excretions or dead animal and plant matter, nitrogen is returned to the soil as ammonium, in a process called ......

a)
nitrification
b)
denitrification
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
ammonification
144.

Denitrifying bacteria use nitrate as an oxygen source, releasing nitrogen gas back into the atmosphere as a waste product via .......

a)
denitrification
b)
nitrogen fixation
c)
ammonification
d)
nitrification
145.

..... is also stored in abiotic components of the Earth system

a)

carbon

b)

oxygen

c)

nitrogen

d)

water

146.

fossil fuels such as oil and coal, dead matter in the soil, and chemical compounds in rocks are all ......

a)

phosphorus reservoirs

b)

nitrogen reservoirs

c)

oxygen reservoirs

d)

carbon reservoirs

147.

Oxygen enters the aquatic biotic cycle when algae and phytoplankton convert it during photosynthesis

a)

true

b)

false

148.

Oceans are ...... that absorb and hold large amounts of carbon

a)

carbon sinks

b)

oxygen sinks

c)

phosphorus sinks

d)

nitrogen sinks

149.

Beneficial bacteria convert harmful ammonium into .....

a)
nitrate
b)
phosphate
c)
sulfate
d)
nitrite
150.

..... occurs in the form of phosphate salts found in ocean sediments and rocks

a)
Sulfur
b)
Phosphorus
c)

Carbon

d)
Nitrogen
151.

Water can transport phosphorus to aquatic ecosystems through runoff and leaching

a)

true

b)

false

152.

Some dissolved phosphates settle at the bottom of oceans in a process called ......., becoming phosphate rocks over millions of years

a)
sedimentation
b)
precipitation
c)
evaporation
d)
filtration
153.

Which of the following statements are true of the phosphorus cycle? Select all correct answers.

a)

Phosphate flows from the atmosphere to the geosphere

b)

Phosphorus is stored in only abiotic reservoirs

c)

Weathering releases phosphate from rocks

d)

Phosphate is taken up by producers in aquatic ecosystems

154.

..... gas is released into the atmosphere as a product of photosynthesis

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Sulfur

155.

which cycle interacts with the oxygen cycle?

a)

water cycle

b)

phosphorus cycle

c)

geochemical cycle

d)

carbon cycle

156.

The atmosphere serves as a reservoir for oxygen until it is taken in by an organism for use in cellular respiration

a)

true

b)

false