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Unit 4/9 Review

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 2hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The SECOND most common gas in our atmosphere is ____.

a)

N

b)

O

c)

Ne

d)

Ar

2.

In which atmospheric layer do all the pressure, wind and precipitation changes occur?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Stratosphere

3.

In which atmospheric layer do meteors burn up in?

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Exosphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Thermosphere

4.

The layer of soil in which topsoil is found is the ___ layer.

a)

O

b)

A

c)

B

d)

C

5.

The type of tectonic plate boundary that is NOT usually associated with volcanoes is _____.

a)

Transform

b)

Convergent

c)

Divergent

6.

Which of the following does NOT exert a major influence on Earth's overall climate?

a)

The distribution of land masses and oceans, in combination with Earth's topography.

b)

The daily rotation of Earth on its axis, along with its annual revolution around the sun.

c)

The annual amount of solar radiation that reaches Earth's surface.

d)

All of these can exert a major influence.

7.

What layer of the atmosphere absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

8.

Which of the following has the least permeability?

a)

Sand

b)

Silt

c)

Clay

d)

Loam

9.

The Coriolis Effect is a result of the Earth's ____.

a)

rotation

b)

gravity

c)

curvature

d)

temperature

10.

Which of the following changes in eastern Pacific Ocean food webs is typically associated with La Niña events?

a)

Decreased populations of squid

b)

Decreased populations of anchovies

c)

Increased phytoplankton concentrations

d)

Increased famine among sea lions and seals

11.

This phenomenon occurs when a coastal mountain range blocks the passage of precipitation to the leeward side of the mountains.

a)

thermal inversion.

b)

Coriolis effect.

c)

rain shadow effect.

d)

urban heat island effect.

e)

ENSO.

12.

This air circulation pattern occurs between 0 degrees latitude and 30 degrees latitude.

a)

Hadley cell

b)

Ferrell cell

c)

polar cell

d)

Coriolis effect

13.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
14.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
15.

The primary cause of Earth's seasons is the

a)

constant tilt of Earth's rotational axis with respect to the plane of its orbit around the Sun

b)

changing distance of Earth from the Sun at different times of the year

c)

periodic wobbling of Earth on its axis of rotation

d)

changing relative positions of Earth, its Moon, and the Sun

16.

The Sun’s radiation provides the energy for all of the following EXCEPT

a)

plant growth

b)

ocean currents

c)

hurricanes

d)

plate tectonics

17.
The most common gas in the atmosphere (78%).
a)
Nitrogen
b)
Oxygen
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Trace gases
18.
Sea surface temperature changes great than .5oC for greater than 5 months across the centeral ropical Pacific OCean are known as
a)
the arctic effect
b)
the get stream 
c)
a typhoon
d)
El Nino-Southern Oscillation 
19.

The surface of the earth, otherwise known as the ______, is broken into seven major pieces and sits atop a liquid layer called the _______

a)

lithosphere, asthenosphere

b)

astenosphere, mantle

c)

crust, litosphere

d)

asthenosphere, lithosphere

20.
The San Andrea's Fault in California is which type of boundary?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Subductive Zone
d)
Transform
21.
The layer of soil which the topsoil is found.
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
22.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
23.
In which horizon is most of the HUMUS?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
24.

As you travel from the crust to the inner core, how would temperature and density of the material change?

a)

The would all increase

b)

The would all decrease.

c)

They would stay the same.

d)

Temperature would decrease, but pressure and density would increase.

25.
Most of Earth's freshwater is ___________
a)
under ground
b)
as a liquid on the surface
c)
frozen
d)
in Olympic swimming pools
26.
Most of the freshwater around the world is used for the following purpose.
a)
industry
b)
residential
c)
agriculture
d)
recreation
27.

Where the naturally occuring good ozone layer is located

a)

troposphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

thermosphere

28.
In which layer do all the pressure, wind, and precipitation changes occur?
a)
Outer space 
b)
stratosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
mesosphere
29.
The thin layer of gases surrounding Earth
a)
atmosphere
b)
biosphere
c)
hydrosphere
d)
lithosphere
30.
All of the water on and near Earth's surface
a)
hydrosphere
b)
atmosphere
c)
biosphere
d)
lithosphere
31.

How are boundaries of a watershed determined?

a)

The elevation of the surrounding area.

b)

The size of the river.

c)

Political determinations.

d)

The size of the watershed.

32.

A mountain ridge would be this part of a watershed.

a)

Aquifer

b)

Zone of aeration

c)

Water table

d)

Divide

33.

Water that stands or flows across the Earth's surface is known as...

a)

Ground water

b)

Runoff

c)

Divide

d)

Aquifer

34.

An underground layer of sediment or rock that holds water is known as...

a)

Reservoir

b)

Watershed

c)

Aquifer

d)

Runoff

35.

What is one of the most important things that determines a watershed?

a)

Vegetation type

b)

Topography of the land

c)

The amount of liquid

d)

Soil types

36.

What is a watershed?

a)

The movement of water in the clouds and around the world.

b)

Water in the form or rain, mist, sleet, hair, or snow.

c)

The area under the ground where water is stored in rocks and soil.

d)

The land area that drains into a body of water.

37.

Why is gravity a factor in watersheds?

a)

It causes water to transpire.

b)

It causes water to flow away from the watershed.

c)

It causes water to evaporate.

d)

It causes water to flow down towards a watershed.

38.

Which of the following pollutants are commonly found in the watershed.

a)

Pet waste

b)

Fertilizers/ Pesticides

c)

Sediments from erosion.

d)

All of the above

39.

What describes the smaller streams and rivers that feed into the larger river of a watershed?

a)

Lake

b)

Tributary

c)

Estuary

d)

Sound

40.

What describes an area where freshwater and saltwater mix?

a)

Lake

b)

Tributary

c)

Estuary

d)

Sound

41.

Why do cities and suburbs have more runoff and pollution?

a)

More people making pollutants

b)

Pavement doesn't absorb water

c)

Storm drain water not cleaned

d)

All of the above

42.

How does climate affect a watershed?

a)

It determines the amount of water input and output in a watershed.

b)

It determines if the watershed will absorb water or not.

c)

It determines how fast water will be moved through a watershed.

d)

It does not affect watersheds.

43.

Look closely at the map of the watershed below. If water enters the watershed at the top of the mountain where the arrow is pointing, at which point will it stop draining?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

44.
Why is gravity a factor in watersheds? 
a)
it causes the water to flow away from a watershed
b)

it causes the water to flow down towards a watershed

45.

The boundaries of a watershed are determined by ___________

a)

Elevation

b)

Soil type

c)

The amount of water that flows

d)

The kinds of organisms found in the area

46.

Which of the following models BEST represents how water flows in a watershed?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

47.

Which factor does not affect the flow of water in a watershed?

a)

amount of precipitation

b)

elevation of land

c)

amount of pollution in water

d)

material on land surface

48.
The two main agents of erosion are...
a)
wind and flowing water
b)
gravity and frost wedging
c)
oxygen and water
d)
carbon dioxiede and wind
49.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
50.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
51.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
52.
The deep, underlying non-soil materials
a)
B horizon
b)
E horizon
c)
O horizon
d)
Bedrock
53.
The layer where minerals that were leached out of layers above accumulate
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
54.
A mixture of soil, loam, and detritus; the topsoil
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
55.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

56.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
57.

The layer(s) of soil in which most of the humus and soil organisms are contained:

1- leaf litter, horizon O

2- topsoil, horizon A

3- subsoil, horizons B and C

a)

1 only

b)

2 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

2 and 3 only

e)

1, 2, and 3

58.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants and on farms. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
soil
d)
dirt
59.
Ellen grabs a topsoil sample in her hand. She rolls it into a ball. The soil feels gritty and the ball falls apart. What part of the topsoil most likely made the topsoil feel gritty?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
silt
d)
humus
60.
When plants, animals, and other organisms die, they break down and become part of the soil. What is this part of the soil called?
a)
sand
b)
silt
c)
clay
d)
humus
61.
You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil mostly made of?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
62.
Water gets into the cracks of rock and freezes, causing the rock to break.  What is this an example of?
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
63.
Soil is made of
a)
weathered rocks and minerals
b)
dead plants and animals
c)
air and water
d)
all of the above
64.
Soil formation begins with the weathering of_______.
a)
Humas
b)
Subsoil
c)
Litter
d)
Rock
65.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
66.

Which horizon contains clay, silt, and minerals, and is commonly referred to as subsoil?

a)

Horizon A

b)

Horizon B

c)

Horizon C

d)

Horizon D or R

67.

Porosity is a measure of void space in a soil sample. Larger soil particles have larger void spaces. Smaller soil particles have smaller pore spaces, but a greater number of them, which leads to higher surface tension and higher % porosity. With this is mind, which statement is true:

a)

Sandy soil has a higher porosity than clay soil

b)

Sandy soil has a higher porosity than silty soil

c)

Clay soil has a higher porosity than sandy soil

d)

Porosity is directly proportional to soil particle size

68.
What soil type is typically found on the top of soil?
a)
Humus because it made up of dead, organic matter
b)
Loam because it is lighter than the other layers
c)
Clay because it is not able to fit through the finer particles
d)
Rock because the other layers are more dense
69.
Which of the following can result from soils that are too acidic?
a)
they create acid-mine drainage
b)
they can leach soluble heavy metals
c)
they can adversely affect aquatic life
d)
they can cause neurological damage in unborn children
70.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
71.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
72.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
73.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
74.
Which type of soil is best for growing plants?
a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
dirt
d)
loam
75.
Which statement BEST summarizes the Tragedy of the Commons?
a)
Self-interests outweigh public interest
b)
Public interests outweigh self-interest
c)
It is all right to be selfish as long as you think of the big picture.
d)
It is a tragedy when biodiversity disappears.
76.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)
A, B, E,C, O
b)
O, A, B, C, E
c)
O, E, A, B, C
d)
O, A, E, B, C
77.
Silt and sand are concentrated here
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
78.
Liter layer, mostly undecided materials
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
O horizon
d)
E horizon
79.
The deep, underlying non-soil materials
a)
B horizon
b)
E horizon
c)
O horizon
d)
Bedrock
80.
The layer where minerals that were leached out of layers above accumulate
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
81.
A mixture of soil, loam, and detritus; the topsoil
a)
A horizon
b)
B horizon
c)
E horizon
d)
O horizon
82.
Which of the following best describes industrialized agriculture?
a)
Consumes large amounts of fossil fuels, pesticides, and water
b)
Uses human labor and draft animals to grow crops
c)
Rows of crop plants are interspersed with rows of trees
d)
Uses little water or fossil fuels; relies on human labor
83.
Soil rich in organic matter
a)
clay
b)
humus
c)
loam
d)
sand
84.
Soil with the highest water-holding capacity.
a)
clay
b)
humus
c)
loam
d)
sand
85.
Soil with the largest pores
a)
clay
b)
humus
c)
sand
d)
silt
86.
Soil composed of the finest particles
a)
clay
b)
silt
c)
humus
d)
loam
87.
Which type of irritation results in the greatest amount of water lost to evaporation?
I.  Flood irrigation
II.  Drip irrigation
III.  Low-pressure central pivot irrigation
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
III only
d)
II and III
88.
All of the following statements about the degradation of soil by climate change are true EXCEPT
a)
Increased flooding in coastal areas leads to soil desalinization.
b)
Increased global temperature produces more deserts.
c)
Decreased precipitation produces more deserts.
d)
Increased evaporation of water leads to soil salinization
89.
Salinization of soil can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT
a)
flooding in coastal areas
b)
rising temperatures
c)
excessive irrigation
d)
drip irrigation
90.
All of the following are negative impacts of food production EXCEPT
a)
increased erosion
b)
air pollution from fossil fuels
c)
bioaccumulation of pesticides
d)
lower death rates
91.

What type of boundary is shown in the picture

a)

Convergent plate boundary

b)

Divergent plate boundary

c)

Transform plate boundary

92.

Match the following as either Continental crust or Oceanic crust

a)

Continental

crust

1.

older

b)

Continental

crust

2.

less dense

c)

Oceanic

crust

3.

recycles

d)

Oceanic

crust

4.

basalt rock

e)

Continental

crust

5.

thicker

93.

At which plate boundary is new crust formed?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

continental

d)

transform

94.

What type of crusts are involved with one plate subducting beneath another?

a)

continental and continental

b)

Oceanic and continental

c)

oceanic and divergent

d)

continental and convergent

95.

What types of landforms are formed at convergent boundaries?

PICK TWO

a)

volcanoes

b)

new crust

c)

Trenches

d)

rift valley

96.

What is the WHOLE AREA called where the oceanic crust goes beneath the continental crust?

a)

subtraction zone

b)

section zone

c)

secondary zone

d)

subduction zone

97.

The earth's plates, rigid slabs of rock, are part of the ___ .

a)

asthenosphere

b)

lithosphere

c)

mantle

d)

granitic rock

98.
Earth's crust is broken up into several large rocky pieces called ...
a)
plates
b)
faults
c)
fossils
d)
puzzle pieces
99.

What happens often at transform boundaries?

a)

Rain

b)

Hurricanes

c)

Volcanic activity

d)

Earthquakes

100.

What is common at convergent boundaries?

a)

Valleys

b)

Canyons

c)

Mountains

d)

Rivers

101.
What type of boundary is shown at A?
a)
transform
b)
convergent
c)
divergent
d)
subduction
102.
What is happening at point B?
a)
subduction
b)
a divergent boundary
c)
convection
d)
an earthquake
103.

During a(n) ____ event, trade winds are much stronger than usual.

a)

El Nino

b)

La Nina

c)

Normal

d)

Partly sunny

104.

Normally, atmospheric upwelling and rain occurs in the:

a)

FAR Western Pacific

b)

Central Pacific

c)

Western Pacific

105.

During an El Nino, it rains

a)

in the central Pacific

b)

in the FAR eastern Pacific

c)

in the western Pacific

d)

In all of the Pacific

106.

Both El Nino and La Nina have this in common

a)

Influence birds that migrate over the ocean

b)

Influence rainy / dry weather world wide

c)

The weather at the polar regions

d)

The directions that ships travel in the oceans

107.

During an El Nino, trade winds are typically...

a)

about average

b)

stronger

c)

weaker

108.

The image is of a(n):

a)

El Nino event

b)

La Nina event

c)

Non-El Nino (normal conditions)

109.

The picture below is of a(n) ____ event.

a)

Non-El Nino (Normal)

b)

El Nino

c)

La Nina

110.

The picture represents a(n) ___ event.

a)

El Nino

b)

La Nina

c)

Non-El Nino (normal conditions)

111.

Without question, ENSO events:

a)

Are preventable

b)

Eliminate sources of rain

c)

Are really scary

d)

Impact everyone on the planet somehow

112.

La Niña is characterized by ______________ of the Western Pacific Ocean.

a)

a warming

b)

a cooling

c)

average temperatures

113.

El Niño ___________________ the trade winds causing the warm pool to move ___________.

a)

weakens or reverses; west

b)

intensifies; west

c)

weakens or reverses; east

d)

intensifies; east

114.

Why do the fisherman of Peru and South America not welcome a strong El Nino?

a)

El Nino poisons the fish

b)

El Nino causes strong winds and currents which move fish westward

c)

El Nino bring cold water to the surface which kills the base of the food chain

d)

El Nino shuts off upwelling and nutrients needed for the marine food chain do not rise to the surface

115.

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about El Niño and La Niña?

a)

Both occur every 2-7 years

b)

Both occur in the Atlantic Ocean

c)

El Nino is a warming and La Nina is a cooling of the Pacific Ocean

d)

Neither are considered "storms"

116.

In El Nino, rain moves east with the warm pool causing rainy/stormy weather in California and less hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean.

a)

True

b)

False

117.

When La Nina and hurricanes pull cold water to the surface and bring nutrient rich sediments from the seafloor, this is called ___________________.

a)

upwelling

b)

downwelling

c)

El zapato

d)

La Gloria

118.
If differences in air pressure produce winds, what can you conclude about temperature and air pressure based on the figure?
a)
As warm air rises, it creates an area of lower pressure, and cooler air flows in as wind
b)
Warm air is denser than cold air is, creating an area of high pressure the produces wind.
c)
Winds flow from areas of low pressure to areas high pressure when temperature is warmer
d)
Air pressure decreases at night because temperature is lower, producing land and sea breezes
119.
At the seashore late in the afternoon on a hot day, a person often feels a strong breeze coming from the ocean because...
a)
the pounding waves generate air currents
b)
warm air over the ocean rushes in to replace the cool air that rises over the land
c)
the heavy, cool air over the ocean rushes in to replace the warm air that rises over the land
d)
there are no clouds to block the wind coming in from the ocean
120.

Heat transfer by convection is caused by differences in what two things:

a)

Thickness and material

b)

Weight and electricity

c)

Temperature and density

121.
The cycle that powers the ocean currents, weather, and tectonic plates it called
a)
conduction current
b)
radiation
c)
condition current
d)
convection current
122.
In these latitudes the cooler air from the poles meets the warmer air from the tropics, causing air to rise. 
a)
Polar Cells
b)
Ferrel Cells
c)
Hadley Cells
123.

Select the word that is not part of the word Insolation.

a)

Convection

b)

Radiation

c)

Solar

d)

Incoming

124.

La Nina would produce all of the following effects EXCEPT

a)

more Atlantic hurricanes

b)

warmer and drier winters in the southwestern and southeastern United States

c)

decreased fish schools due to less upwelling

d)

wetter winters in the Pacific Northwest region of the United States

125.

Most of Earth’s deserts are approximately 30º north and south latitudes because these latitudes are characterized by

a)

a slow moving jet stream

b)

descending dry air currents

c)

enhanced solar radiation

d)

predominately low atmospheric pressure

126.

Which of the following gives the correct order of events leading to the rain shadow effect shown below?

a)

Warm, moisture-laden air from a body of water moves toward the mountain. As the air rises it cools and water vapor condenses, causing precipitation which removes water vapor from the air. The now dry air descends on the other side of the mountain, creating a desert climate.

b)

Warm, moisture-laden air from over a body of water moves toward the mountain. As the air rises it cools and water vapor condenses, but since it does not fall a desert climate is produced.

c)

Cool, moisture-laden air from over a body of water moves toward the mountain. As the air rises it warms and water vapor condenses, causing precipitation which removes water vapor from the air. The now dry air descends on the other side of the mountain, creating a desert climate.

d)

Cool, moisture-laden air from over a body of water moves toward the mountain. As the air rises it warms and water vapor condenses, but since it doe not fall a desert climate is produced.

127.

"Bad ozone" occurs in the

a)

Lithosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Stratosphere

d)

Troposphere

128.

The main elements in CFCs are

a)

Carbon, Calcium, Francium

b)

Carbon, Chlorine, Fluorine

c)

Chromium, Chlorine, Fluorine

d)

Chlorine, Fluorine, Calcium

129.

Which of the following best exemplifies global collaboration for a sustainable environment? (Getting rid of CFCs)

a)

The Antarctic Treaty of 1961

b)

The Clean Air Act of 1972

c)

CERCLA (Superfund)

d)

The Montreal Protocol

130.

Which of the following best describes the importance of ozone in the stratosphere to life on Earth?

a)

Ozone reflects X-rays from the Sun back into space.

b)

Ozone absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.

c)

Ozone helps to moderate surface temperature by absorbing CO2 and CH4.

d)

Ozone increases mutation rates and accelerates evolution in a variety of species.

131.

The second step of ozone formation involves atomic oxygen combining with what molecule?

a)

CO2

b)

O2

c)

NO2

d)

2H2O

132.

The breakdown of CFCs in the atmosphere is caused by UV rays.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas that comes only from human sources?

a)

Nitrous oxide

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Methane

d)

Chlorofluorocarbons

134.

Although levels of CFCs in the atmosphere are much lower than those of CO2 , CFCs are still potent greenhouse gases because they

a)

remain in the atmosphere for only a brief time

b)

lack natural sources

c)

are much more efficient at absorbing thermal radiation

d)

are more difficult to remove from smokestacks and tailpipes

135.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the greenhouse effect in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

Infrared radiation from Earth's surface is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.

b)

Cosmic radiation from deep space is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere.

c)

Alpha radiation from the Sun is absorbed by water vapor in the atmosphere.

d)

Ultraviolet radiation from the Sun is absorbed by ozone gas in the stratosphere.

136.

All of the following gases have been implicated in contributing to the increase in global temperature via the greenhouse effect EXCEPT

a)

CFC's

b)

O2

c)

N2O

d)

CO2

137.

Why is water vapor not considered a significant contributor to global climate change?

a)

The concentration of water vapor is very low compared to the other gases.

b)

Water vapor is inefficient at absorbing heat and does not absorb much of the infrared spectrum.

c)

Trees and other organisms naturally release water vapor during the process of decomposition.

d)

Water vapor has a relatively short residence time in the atmosphere.

138.

A greenhouse gas that, in the lower troposphere, is formed by photochemical reactions

a)

H2O

b)

CO2

c)

CH4

d)

O3

139.

Layer of Earth's atmosphere the contains "good" O3

a)

Troposphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Asthenosphere

e)

Stratosphere

140.

The ocean becomes this with the absorption of excess CO2

a)

alkaline

b)

acidic

c)

neutral

d)

shallower

e)

none of these

141.

committing industrialized countries and economies in transition to limit and reduce greenhouse gases (GHG) emissions in accordance with agreed individual targets

a)

Kyoto Protocol

b)

CITES

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Endangered Species Act

e)

NEPA

142.

This had the goal of decrease production of CFCs by the year 2000

a)

Montreal Protocol

b)

Kyoto Protocol

c)

Paris Agreement

d)

NEPA

e)

CITES

143.

Where there is a lot of mixing of air, weather, and "bad" ozone

a)

Troposphere

b)

Hydrosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Asthenosphere

e)

Stratosphere

144.

Which is NOT true about ocean warming?

a)

The distribution of heat in the oceans is not uniform

b)

Coral bleaching rates are decreasing

c)

Warm water holds less dissolved oxygen than colder water

d)

Sea levels are rising due to thermal expansion

e)

Many species are relocating further from the equator

145.

Evidence for climate change on Earth includes

a)

Global temperature decline

b)

Warming oceans

c)

Increasing glaciers

d)

Lowering sea levels

e)

None of these

146.

Which of the following anthropogenic activities is most closely associated with depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer?

a)

Flooded cropland

b)

Garbage incineration

c)

Mining of talc

d)

Disposal of refrigerators and air conditioners

e)

None of these

147.

A source of heat to warm up oceans is

a)

sunlight

b)

water vapor

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

all of these

e)

none of these

148.

As greenhouse gasses increase, what happens to Earth's temperature?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Stays the Same

d)

No Trend

149.

What evidence is there to support that Global Warming is occurring?

a)

Rising ocean temperatures

b)

Declining arctic sea glacers

c)

Sea levels rising

d)

Increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

150.

Which of the following could increase the amount of greenhouse gasses in our atmosphere?

a)

Burning fossil fuels

b)

Planting trees

c)

Walking to school and work

d)

Cutting down trees

151.

Why do we need greenhouse gasses?

a)

We don't! All greenhouse gasses are bad

b)

They help regulate Earth's climate

c)

They decrease Earth's temperature

d)

None of the above

152.

On the picture, the heat out is decreasing. What can we assume if this is happening?

a)

There is no change in the graph

b)

We don't have any greenhouse gasses

c)

Greenhouse gasses are decreasing

d)

Greenhouse gasses are increasing

153.
Carbon dioxide and seawater combine to form
a)
calcium carbonate
b)
carbon monoxide
c)
carbonic acid 
154.
Carbon dioxide levels in the air have changed throughout earth's history.  The difference today is how ______ the change is happening.
a)
rapidly 
b)
slowly 
c)
wide spread
155.
As the ocean becomes more acidic, the pH of the water
a)
increases
b)
decreases
156.

How does ocean acidification impact marine calcifiers?

a)

It weakens their shells and bodies

b)

It makes their food die

c)

It makes the water too warm for them

d)

It adds too much weight to their shells

157.

How are humans adding CO2 to the air?

a)

Building houses

b)

Using fossil fuels

c)

Causing chemical spills

d)

Growing trees

158.
Which of the following are greenhouse gases?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Methane
c)
Water vapor
d)
All answers are correct

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