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Environmental Science Spring Semester Final Exam Review

Total questions: 161

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fossil Fuels

a)

oil

b)

natural gas

c)

coal

d)

all of these

2.

Region with the most coal deposits

a)

Asia

b)

Europe

c)

United States

d)

China

3.

Site of world's worst nuclear reactor accident

a)

Middle East

b)

Chernolbyl

c)

Alaska

d)

Europe

4.

Region with the most oil deposits

a)

Gaines County

b)

Alaska

c)

Middle East

d)

Atlantic Ocean

5.

Region with the most natural gas deposits

a)

Middle East

b)

Europe

c)

United States

d)

Asia

6.

Oil and natural gas are formed from the

a)

migration of complex carbohydrate molecules to nonporous rock formations.

b)

decay of tiny marine organisms that accumulated on the bottom of the ocean millions of years ago

c)

burning of high-sulfur, low-grade uranium.

d)

decay of plants that lived in swamps hundreds of thousands of years ago.

7.

Inside the combustion chamber of a coal-fired power plant

a)

steam is directed against turbine blades and causes the blades to turn.

b)

the turbine sets the generator in motion.

c)

electricity is generated.

d)

burning fossil fuels releases energy in the form of heat.

8.

Most of the energy consumed in the United States is used for

a)

residential electrical needs

b)

commercial electrical needs

c)

transportation

d)

industrial purposes

9.

The energy needs of the United States in the 1990s have

a)

risen dramatically

b)

fallen dramatically

c)

risen slightly

d)

fallen slightly

10.

A nuclear reactor is

a)

powered by a combustion chamber in which uranium is burned.

b)

surrounded by a thick pressure vessel filled with a cooling fluid.

c)

constructed from thick aluminum walls to control nuclear reactions.

d)

surrounded by a thick pressure vessel filled with uranium and cooling fluid

11.

New nuclei and neutrons result from

a)

nuclear fusion

b)

the release of electrons from a positively charge atom

c)

the splitting of an atoms nucleus

d)

the splitting of an atoms neutron

12.

Nuclear fusion

a)

must take place at extremely high temperatures.

b)

does not release a great amount of energy.

c)

must take place in low-density containers.

d)

results in nuclei that are lighter in weight than the nuclei that existed before the reaction

13.

Storage sites for nuclear wastes

a)

can only be located in mountain ranges.

b)

will always leak lethal amounts of radioactivity.

c)

must be located in areas that are extremely geologically stable.

d)

should be able to undergo the process of transmutation.

14.

Which of the following is not a main use of fuel?

a)

transportation

b)

manufacturing

c)

heating and cooling of buildings

d)

cooking

15.

The energy in fossil fuels is often converted into

a)

electricity

b)

magnetic fields

c)

uranium

d)

power plants

16.

Which country uses the least amount of energy per person?

a)

Argentina

b)

Japan

c)

United States

d)

Canada

17.

Much of the oil and natural gas in the United States is located in

a)

Alaska, Minnesota, New York, and Texas.

b)

Alaska, California, Michigan, and Nevada.

c)

Texas, Colorado, New York, and the Gulf of Mexico.

d)

Alaska, Texas, California, and the Gulf of Mexico.

18.

Most of the world’s fossil fuel reserves are made up of

a)

oil

b)

natural gas

c)

coal

d)

waste rock

19.

Crude oil is another name for

a)

fossil fuel

b)

natural gas

c)

pertroleum

d)

methane

20.

Internal combustion engines release

a)

carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

b)

nuclear waste into the atmosphere.

c)

iodized oil into the atmosphere.

d)

methane into the atmosphere.

21.

Oil production is still increasing, but it

a)

will start decreasing in the next year.

b)

is increasing much more dramatically than it did in the past.

c)

will start decreasing in the next five years.

d)

is increasing much more slowly than it did in the 1960s.

22.

A large oil reserve

a)

was discovered in Morocco in the year 2000.

b)

has not been discovered in the past decade.

c)

has only been discovered in Saudi Arabia.

d)

will probably be discovered on the moon.

23.

Which of the following is not a consequence of using nuclear energy?

a)

production of electricity

b)

reduction in the use of fossil fuels

c)

a safer environment for humans

d)

release of less readioactivity in the atomsphere than burning coal

24.

Nuclear fusion and nuclear fission are different because

a)

fusion releases no energy.

b)

fission is a consequence of fusion.

c)

nuclei unite during fusion and split during fission.

d)

fission does not produce nuclear waste.

25.

Which of the following is not true?

a)

Uranium is good on a salad

b)

Building and maintaining a safe reactor is very expensive.

c)

It is difficult to find a safe place to store nuclear waste.

d)

The fission process can get out of control.

26.

The most serious nuclear accident in the United States occurred at

a)

Chernobyl

b)

Yucca Mountain

c)

Diablo Canyon

d)

Three Mile Island

27.

Process of returning land to its original or better condition after mining

a)

Reclamation

b)

Overburden

c)

Dredge

d)

Slag

28.

The wall of a coal seam

a)

Long Wall

b)

Bond

c)

Alloy

d)

Quarry

29.

Minerals that contain valuable substances

a)

Aggregates

b)

Ore minerals

c)

Reclamation

d)

Smelting

30.

Two or more metals that are combined

a)

Alloy

b)

Bond

c)

Dumps

d)

Flux

31.

Open pit used to mine materials near the surface

a)

Long Wall

b)

Placer Deposits

c)

Slag

d)

Quarry

32.

Process by which crushed ore is melted at high temperatures to separate impurities from molten metal

a)

Slag

b)

Subsidence

c)

Smelting

d)

Reclamation

33.

Mining method used when ore deposits are located close toEarth’s surface

a)

Acid mine drainage

b)

Dredge

c)

Surface Method

d)

Compound

34.

Sand, gravel, and crushed rock

a)

Alloy

b)

Compound

c)

Quarry

d)

Aggregates

35.

Minerals concentrated by wind and water movement into surface deposits

a)

Alloy

b)

Compound

c)

Gemstones

d)

Placer Deposits

36.

The sinking of regions of the ground with little or no horizontal movement

a)

Smelting

b)

Aggregates

c)

Bond

d)

Subsidence

37.

Two or more atoms chemically bonded together

a)

Bond

b)

Alloy

c)

Dredge

d)

Compound

38.

Ore deposits formed in cracks in rocks

a)

Bond

b)

Compound

c)

Alloy

d)

Vents

39.

Minerals that have no commercial value

a)

Aggregates

b)

Gemstones

c)

Gangue Minerals

d)

Flux

40.

Nonmetallic minerals prized for their beauty, rarity, or durability

a)

Compound

b)

Aggregates

c)

Gemstones

d)

Ore Minerals

41.

A material that bonds with impurities and separates them from molten metal during smelting

a)

Alloy

b)

Flux

c)

Quarry

d)

Smelting

42.

A floating barge on which buckets fixed on a convey or excavate sediments

a)

Dumps

b)

Dredge

c)

Acid mix drainage

d)

Flux

43.

Rocks that cover coal seams near the surface

a)

Compound

b)

Bond

c)

Overburden

d)

Rooms

44.

A layer of impurities that forms atop molten metal during smelting

a)

Smelting

b)

Slag

c)

Flux

d)

Alloy

45.

A network of entries in coal mines

a)

Rooms

b)

Flux

c)

Dredge

d)

Long Wall

46.

A law that set standards to minimize the surface effects of coal mining on the environment

a)

Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977

b)

Comprehensive Response Compensation and Liability Act

c)

Law of Segregations

d)

Law of Dominance

47.

Contaminated water that results when acid dissolves toxic minerals remaining in mines and in excess rocks

a)

Aggregates

b)

Acid mine drainage

c)

placer deposits

d)

surface mining

48.

Large piles of excess rock from mines

a)

Flux

b)

Dumps

c)

Rooms

d)

Slag

49.

A law that regulates the release of hazardous substances into the air, soil, and water by mining operations

a)

Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act

b)

Law of Dominance

c)

Comprehensive Response Compensation and Liability Act

d)

Law of Segregation

50.

Funds posted before a mining project begins

a)

Alloy

b)

Bond

c)

Compound

d)

Flux

51.

What is one property that may be used to distinguish metallic from nonmetallic minerals?

a)

Coal to Extract

b)

value

c)

carbon content

d)

electrical conductivity

52.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a mineral?

a)

naturally occuring

b)

atoms in random patterns

c)

usually an inorganic solid

d)

orderly internal surface

53.

Evaporites most commonly form in

a)

arid regions where rates of evaporation are high.

b)

rain forests where rates of evaporation are low.

c)

cold regions that receive large seasonal snowfall.

d)

areas with frequent volcanic activity.

54.

What do hot, subsurface waters contain when they are identified as hydrothermal solutions?

a)

chunky materials

b)

dissolved minerals

c)

gangue minerals

d)

organic minerals

55.

For mining to be profitable, the price of the final product must be

a)

guaranteed in the reclamation plan.

b)

a specific percentage of the reclamation budget.

c)

greater than the costs of extraction and refining.

d)

dower than the costs of extraction and refining

56.

Placer deposits are surface deposits concentrated by

a)

surface mining

b)

subsurface mining

c)

movement of wind and water

d)

evaporation and condensation

57.

Which of the following would not likely be mined using solution mining?

a)

gypsum

b)

potash

c)

salt

d)

sulfur

58.

The first step in finding an ore deposit is

a)

finding placer deposits

b)

smelting

c)

testing the salt content of rocks

d)

exploring rock formations for mineralization

59.

About ____________ percent of the world’s salt comes from the solar evaporation process.

a)

10

b)

30

c)

50

d)

70

60.

A quarry could also be called

a)

an open pit

b)

the overburden

c)

a longwall

d)

pillar

61.

Which of the following is a water contaminant that can cause acid mine drainage?

a)

foux

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

methane

d)

sulfuric acid

62.

Surface mining can cause

a)

only air pollution

b)

only noise pollution

c)

both air and noise pollution

d)

neither air or noise pollution

63.

A given plot of land can produce more food when used to grow plants than when used to raise animals because

a)

One Tenth of a plant's mass can be used as food

b)

1 Cal animal protein requires 10 Cal from plants

c)

Plants provide more nutrients per gram

d)

Plants mass can be used as food

64.

The green revolution depended on

a)

new biodegradable pesticides

b)

high yielding grain varieties

c)

clearing of forest for crop land

d)

organic fertilizers

65.

Most of the living organisms in fertile soil are found in

a)

the surface litter and topsoil

b)

the leaching zone

c)

the subsoil

d)

the bedrock

66.

Erosion is a danger whenever the soil is

a)

bare and exposed to wind and rain

b)

plowed along the contour of the land

c)

covered with grass

d)

covered with forest

67.

The development of pesticide resistance is an example of

a)

malnutrition

b)

persistence

c)

pest control

d)

evolution

68.

All of the following describe typical types of malnutrition except

a)

amino acid deficiency

b)

insufficient variety of foods

c)

diet of mostly vegetable and grains

d)

low calorie comsumption

69.

Livestock in developing countries provide

a)

manure

b)

eggs and meat

c)

leather and wood

d)

all of these

70.

Biological pest control aims to do all of the following except

a)

maintain tolerable pest levels

b)

reduce all insects to low levels

c)

boost plants natural defenses

d)

leave non pest species unharmed

71.

Plowing with machines irrigating with drip systems and ______ are all modern agricultural methods

a)

using manure

b)

applying chemical fertilizers

c)

irrigating with ditches

d)

all of these

72.

Earth's available arable land is being reduced by

a)

fast growing human populations

b)

soil erosion

c)

desertification

d)

all of these

73.

All of these contribute to famine except

a)

crop failure

b)

green revolution

c)

unequal distribution of food

d)

drought

74.

Almost ______ of the seafood consumed in the world is produced through aquaculture

a)

one half

b)

one third

c)

one fourth

d)

three fourths

75.

Which of the following is true of parks and preserves?

a)

They are not affected by air and water pollution.

b)

They serve as sources of wood for industries.

c)

They provide limited hunting of designated wildlife.

d)

They provide recreation for people.

76.

One benefit of preserving farmland is

a)

increased CO 2 production.

b)

increased urban temperatures.

c)

increased crop production.

d)

increased urban sprawl.

77.

In cities, traffic jams, substandard housing, and pollution can be the result of

a)

urbanization

b)

urban sprawl

c)

urban crisis

d)

infrastructure

78.

What can be done to sustain the productivity of rangeland?

a)

limit herd size

b)

eliminate invasive plants

c)

leave the land unused for a time

d)

all of the above

79.

Heat islands can affect local

a)

weather patterns

b)

water levels

c)

traffic patterns

d)

harvest patterns

80.

When forests are not replanted after trees are cut, natural resources

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

regenerate

d)

remain unchanged

81.

Each U.S. resident uses the ecosystem services provided by roughly

a)

1 hectare of land

b)

6 hectares of land

c)

8 hectares of land

d)

12 hectares of land

82.

Urban sprawl involves people moving from cities to land that was previously used for

a)

industry and open space

b)

food productions

c)

power lines

d)

housing

83.

Which type of area listed below is protected from exploitation?

a)

farmland

b)

rangeland

c)

forestland

d)

wilderness

84.

Given that most people live in urban areas, why should rural areas be preserved?

a)

They provide crucial infrastructure.

b)

They provide ecological services.

c)

They contain greenbelts.

d)

None of these

85.

Which of the following has not resulted from urban sprawl?

a)

suburbs

b)

overgrazing

c)

loss of farmland

d)

traffic congestion

86.

Which of the following is an example of land used as a protected area to preserve the scenery and ecosystems?

a)

Grand Canyon

b)

Great Basin

c)

Great Plains

d)

Rocky Mountains

87.

Which environmental problem is not caused by deforestation?

a)

reduction of wildlife habitat

b)

soil erosion

c)

urban sprawl

d)

increased atomospheric CO2

88.

Which of the following most effectively allows forests to recover from tree harvesting?

a)

cutting all of the trees and then replanting the area with seedlings

b)

cutting only medium sized ore mature trees

c)

allowing the forest to reseed itself

d)

cutting only young trees and then replacing them with seedlings

89.

Eliminating invasive plants and replacing them with native plants is one aspect of

a)

urban management

b)

deforestation

c)

range improvement

d)

overgrazing

90.

Where do most Americans live?

a)

in urban areas

b)

on producing farms

c)

in rural areas

d)

none of the above

91.

Regardless of where people live, they depend on resources produced in

a)

urban areas

b)

rural areas

c)

ocean areas

d)

wilderness areas

92.

Which of the following is a side effect of heat islands?

a)

drought

b)

lower temperatures

c)

lower temperatures and drought

d)

increased precipitation

93.

Which of the following is not an environmental benefit of open spaces?

a)

lower summer temperatures

b)

absorbing carbon dioxide

c)

filtering pollutants from air and water

d)

reducing traffic flow

94.

During summer in the Southern Hemisphere, the Northern Hemisphere experiences

a)

a little toward the sun

b)

winter

c)

summer

d)

excess rainfall

95.

In regions closer to the poles, the sun

a)

never sets

b)

never changes in altitude

c)

is higher in the sky

d)

is lower in the sky

96.

Ocean currents have a great effect on climate because water

a)

moves more slowly than air

b)

stays colder than air

c)

holds large amounts of energy in the form of heat

d)

cannot hold energy in the form of heat

97.

During an El Niño event, winds in the western Pacific Ocean strengthen and push ____ eastward

a)

warm air

b)

cold air

c)

warm water

d)

cold water

98.

Earth’s precipitation pattern is mainly determined by the pattern of

a)

global atmospheric circulation

b)

solar activity

c)

volcanic eruptions

d)

all of these

99.

Scientists estimate that a single chlorine molecule in the CFC structure can destroy as many as ___________ ozone molecules.

a)

100

b)

1000

c)

10000

d)

100000

100.

As the amount of ozone in the stratosphere decreases,

a)

more ultraviolet light is able to reach Earth’s surface.

b)

the amount of phytoplankton in the ocean increases.

c)

the amount of methane in the atmosphere increases.

101.

Polar stratospheric clouds are high-altitude clouds made of

a)

ozone and CFCs

b)

ozone and molecular chlorine

c)

water and nitric acid

d)

water and sulfuric acid

102.

Which of the following is not a damaging effect of ultraviolet light on the amphibian population?

a)

interference with photosynthesis

b)

death of eggs

c)

genetic mutations among survivors

d)

education of populations

103.

High ultraviolet (UV) radiation levels at Earth’s surface can

a)

produce CFCs

b)

damage DNA

c)

thin the ozone layer

d)

change weather patterns

104.

Which of the following will require most developed countries to decrease emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases?

a)

Montreal protocol

b)

Kyoto Protocol

c)

Emissions Reduction Act

d)

Reforestation Project

105.

Some of the warming that has been observed over the 20th century can be attributed to

a)

Human activity

b)

plant growth

c)

glacial meeting

d)

droughts

106.

The attempt to slow climate change is made difficult by

a)

economic factors

b)

political factors

c)

social factors

d)

all of these

107.

Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas?

a)

water vapor

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

sulfur

d)

methane

108.

In an area away from forests and cities, geochemist Charles David Keeling measured the amount of

a)

ozone in the air

b)

oxygen in the air

c)

nitrous oxide in the air

d)

carbon dioxide in the air

109.

Climate in a region is

a)

the long-term prevailing atmospheric conditions.

b)

determined only by seasonal daylight hours.

c)

the atmospheric conditions on a given day.

d)

never affected by ocean currents.

110.

Rain frequently results whenever

a)

cold moist air rises

b)

warm moist air rises

c)

warm dry air sinks

d)

cold dry air sinks

111.

Latitude strongly influences climate because _______ solar energy falls on areas that are closer to the equator than to the poles.

a)

less

b)

the same amount

c)

more

d)

sometimes less

112.

An important property of air circulation is

a)

warm air is denser than cold air.

b)

cold air and warm air have the same density

c)

cold air is denser than warm air.

d)

air has no mass

113.

Which of the following gases is most responsible for the greenhouse effect?

a)

nitrous oxide

b)

methane

c)

oxygen

d)

water vapor

114.

Which of the following reduce(s) CO 2 in the atmosphere?

a)

phytoplankton

b)

tropical rain forests

c)

oceans

d)

all of these

115.

During the summer, sunlight in the Northern Hemisphere shines

a)

Opticauses skin cancer.

b)

prevents DNA repair.

c)

absorbs UV light.

d)

destroys CFCs.on 1

116.

Ozone holes appear in polar regions during springtime when ozone-destroying

a)

chlorine atoms are released from polar stratospheric clouds.

b)

chlorine atoms are captured by polar stratospheric clouds.

c)

CFCs are synthesized on polar stratospheric clouds.

d)

CFCs magnify ultraviolet light.

117.

Once in the atmosphere, CFCs

a)

quickly become harmless.

b)

destroy ozone for only a short time.

c)

persist but stop destroying ozone.

d)

persist and continue to destroy ozone for decades.

118.

Possible long-term effect of noise pollution

a)

nausea

b)

lung cancer

c)

deafness

d)

pollution control

119.

Which of the following is an example of a primary pollutant?

a)

ground level ozone

b)

soot from smoke

c)

radon

d)

all of these

120.

Which of the following would be a potential cause of sick-building syndrome?

a)

acid precipitation

b)

smog

c)

fungi

d)

all of these

121.

Catalytic converters, scrubbers, and electrostatic precipitators are examples of

a)

technologies used to treat sick-building syndrome.

b)

technologies used to counteract the effects of acid precipitation on aquatic ecosystems

c)

technologies used to capture radon gas.

d)

technologies used to control pollution emissions

122.

During a temperature inversion

a)

sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides combine with water in the atmosphere

b)

sulfur oxides and nitrogen oxides combine with water in the atmosphere

c)

levels of ground-level ozone decrease.

d)

pollutants are trapped near Earth’s surface

123.

What is not a consequence of acid precipitation?

a)

an increase in the pH of soil and water

b)

the death of aquatic plants and animals

c)

the destruction of calcium carbonate in building materials

d)

a change in the balance of soil chemistry

124.

High blood pressure and stress are both human health effects linked to

a)

smog

b)

air pollution

c)

light population

d)

noise pollution

125.

Oil refineries and gasoline stations are both sources of

a)

particulate matter

b)

volatile organic compounds

c)

smog

d)

all of these

126.

Uranium-bearing rocks underneath a house can be a source of

a)

ozone

b)

asbestos

c)

radon

d)

formaldehyde

127.

An increase in the pH of a lake would most likely indicate

a)

the lake suffers from acid shock.

b)

calcium carbonate has been released into the lake.

c)

the area in which the lake is located suffers from acid precipitation.

d)

higher than average sulfur oxide levels in the atmosphere.

128.

Acid precipitation is formed when

a)

sulfur oxides or nitrogen oxides combine with water.

b)

sulfur oxides combine with nitrogen oxides.

c)

ozone combines with automobile exhaust.

d)

nitric or sulfuric acids combine with ozone.

129.

Which is a secondary air pollulant

a)

ozone

b)

carbon monoxide

c)

particulate

d)

nitrogen oxides

130.

Volatile organic compounds

a)

are tiny particles of liquid or solid matter

b)

are produced by chemical interactions between sulfur and oxygen

c)

arean odorless colorless poisonous gas

d)

are organic chemicals that form toxic fumes

131.

Which device helps clean car exhaust

a)

electrostatic precipator

b)

scrubber

c)

catalytic converter

d)

ZEV

132.

Which pair below are the two main sources of air pollution in urban areas

a)

vehicles and volacanoes

b)

vehicles and industries

c)

industries and agriculture

d)

none of these

133.

Which is a natural indoor air pollutant

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

formaldehyde

c)

nitrogen oxides

d)

radon

134.

Which is not part of correcting sick building syndrome

a)

removing sources of indoor air pollution

b)

sealing cracks where air leaks into the building

c)

improving ventilation

d)

cleaning air ducts

135.

Which air pollutant scars the lungs

a)

asbestos

b)

radon

c)

fungi

d)

ozone

136.

How much of Earth’s water is fresh water?

a)

1 percent

b)

3 percent

c)

77 percent

d)

97 percent

137.

Which of the following does not make up part of Earth’s surface water?

a)

wetlands

b)

rivers

c)

aquifers

d)

lakes

138.

Which of the following statements helps to explain why fresh water is a limited resource?

a)

Most of Earth’s water is salt water.

b)

About 71 percent of Earth’s surface is covered by water.

c)

Most of Earth’s fresh water is not liquid water usable by humans.

d)

both (a) and (c)

139.

Surface water becomes groundwater when it

a)

moves below the water table.

b)

condenses to form drops of liquid water.

c)

percolates into the recharge zone.

d)

flows onto the ground through a spring.

140.

A rock’s ability to allow the flow of water through it is called

a)

permeability

b)

porosity

c)

recharge

d)

distribution

141.

Which of the following activities accounts for the greatest percentage of freshwater used worldwide?

a)

drinking

b)

washing

c)

manufacturing

d)

irrigating crops

142.

Water diversion projects may involve the movement of water to dry regions using

a)

canals

b)

dams

c)

reserviors

d)

sprinklers

143.

Which of the following would be the best way for a desert farmer to reduce water loss from evaporation and seepage and thus conserve water?

a)

recycle cooling water and wastewater

b)

install low-flow toilets

c)

install a drip irrigation system

d)

dig deeper wells

144.

Industrial water use includes which of the following activities?

a)

irrigation

b)

power generations

c)

drinking

d)

car washing

145.

Point-source pollution and nonpoint-source pollution differ in

a)

the kind of biological agents causing the pollution.

b)

whether the source of pollution is agricultural or industrial.

c)

the number of sources from which the pollution is discharged.

d)

whether the pollutants are chemical or physical agents.

146.

Fertilizers are classified as which kind of water pollutant?

a)

organic chemicals

b)

inorganic chemicals

c)

heavy metals

d)

physical agents

147.

One reason polluted groundwater pollution is difficult to clean is that

a)

the location of underground storage tanks is not always known.

b)

pollutants cling to the materials that make up aquifers.

c)

runoff contaminates the water supply.

d)

All of the above

148.

Sources of ocean pollution include

a)

oil spills

b)

direct dumping

c)

activities on land

d)

all of these

149.

Which Act strengthened the laws against dumping waste in U.S. waters?

a)

Marine protection research

b)

Ocean water act and sanctuaries act

c)

Water quality act

d)

both a and c

150.

Ninety-seven percent of the world’s water resources are found in

a)

fresh water

b)

salt water

c)

icecaps and glaciers

d)

groundwater

151.

Earth’s surface water is found in

a)

lakes

b)

rivers

c)

streams

d)

all of these

152.

Most of the oil that pollutes the ocean comes from

a)

operating boats and personal watercraft.

b)

spills from oil tankers.

c)

runoff from cities and towns.

d)

leaking underground storage facilities.

153.

The three major global uses of fresh water are

a)

manufacturing goods, wastewater disposal, and irrigation.

b)

drinking, bathing, and growing crops.

c)

drinking, manufacturing goods, and generating power.

d)

residential, agricultural, and industrial uses.

154.

What is the purpose of adding alum to water during the water treatment process?

a)

to filter and remove large organisms and trash

b)

to form flocs that bacteria and other impurities will cling to

c)

. to prevent bacterial growth

d)

to remove unwanted gases

155.

How is fresh water used in industry?

a)

in manufacturing processes

b)

in the disposal of waste products

c)

to generate power

d)

all of these

156.

Many areas of the world that do not have adequate fresh water have become habitable because

a)

rainfall patterns have changed.

b)

water management projects have diverted water to the areas.

c)

icebergs have been towed in to provide fresh water.

d)

people have practiced water conservation.

157.

A hole that is dug into the ground to obtain fresh water is called

a)

the exchange zone

b)

a well

c)

an aquifer

d)

a watershed

158.

Which of the following is one way that a person can conserve water?

a)

Take a bath instead of a shower.

b)

Wash laundry in small, partial loads.

c)

Use a low-flow shower head and take short showers.

d)

Water the lawn daily and at mid-day.

159.

Which of the following is a source of point-pollution?

a)

unlined landfill

b)

runoff from city streets

c)

precipitation containing air pollution

d)

runoff from farms

160.

Animal feces would be classified as which type of water pollutant?

a)

pathogens

b)

organic matter

c)

inorganic chemicals

d)

heavy metals

161.

Polluted groundwater is difficult to clean up because

a)

groundwater is deep in the ground and dispersed through large areas of rock.

b)

pollutants cling to the materials that make up the aquifer and contaminate the clean water

c)

the recycling process of groundwater can take hundreds or thousands of years.

d)

all of these