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APES Semester 1 Final

Total questions: 165

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Environmental indicators

a)

enable scientists to accurately predict the future of an environment.

b)

describe what is causing a change in the environment.

c)

do not always describe what is causing a change in the environment.

d)

do not provide information that is considered valuable in creating public policy.

e)

BOTH enable scientists to accurately predict the future of an environment and do not always describe what is causing a change in the environment.

2.

Evidence of biodiversity is seen in the

a)

genetic variation among human populations.

b)

number of species in a region.

c)

number of ecosystems and habitats in a region.

d)

variety of nutrients available in a region.

e)

All of these answers are correct.

3.

The population with the greatest ability to respond to environmental change most likely is the one with

a)

high genetic diversity.

b)

low genetic diversity.

c)

one type of dominant organism.

d)

two types of dominant organisms.

e)

more animals than plants.

4.

Total world grain production has

a)

increased fairly steadily since 1950.

b)

dropped dramatically since 1950.

c)

leveled off recently.

d)

increased recently.

e)

gone up and down with no overall trend.

5.

Use Figure 1-1. According to the figure above, which of the following statements about the overall trends in per capita wheat production is correct?

a)

Per capita wheat production increased from 1950 through the mid-1980’s and then started to decrease.

b)

There is no discernible trend.

c)

Between 1950 and 1960, per capita wheat production was stable and then decreased through 2005.

d)

Per capita wheat production has not changed since the 1950’s.

e)

Per capita wheat production has steadily increased since the 1950’s through today.

6.

The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

a)

is increasing in part due to fossil fuel use.

b)

has not significantly changed in the past 200 years.

c)

is increasing in part due to deforestation.

d)

has been decreasing since the 1800’s.

e)

BOTH is increasing in part due to fossil fuel use and is increasing in part due to deforestation.

7.

Human population today is closest to

a)

3 billion.

b)

5 billion.

c)

6 billion.

d)

7 billion.

e)

12 billion.

8.

The concept of ecological footprint is measured in terms of the amount of

a)

resource an individual consumes daily.

b)

land area.

c)

resources an individual consumes over the course of a lifetime.

d)

resources an entire nation consumes yearly.

e)

resources an individual consumes yearly.

9.

If every person on Earth today lived with the average lifestyle of people in the United States, the land of _____ earths would be required.

a)

2

b)

5

c)

8

d)

10

e)

20

10.

An experiment uses two groups of mice with 20 individuals in each group. Both groups are fed the same amount of water and food every day. They are kept in similar cages in a climate-controlled room. The experimental group is given five doses of a pesticide every day. After two months, the amount of an enzyme in the brains of the mice was measured.


The independent variable in this experiment is the

a)

climate control of the room.

b)

enzyme in the brain.

c)

pesticide fed to the mice.

d)

time of the experiment.

e)

food.

11.

An experiment uses two groups of mice with 20 individuals in each group. Both groups are fed the same amount of water and food every day. They are kept in similar cages in a climate-controlled room. The experimental group is given five doses of a pesticide every day. After two months, the amount of an enzyme in the brains of the mice was measured.


The climate controlled room is important to establish

a)

constants.

b)

controls.

c)

variables.

d)

Doses given to the mice.

e)

none of the above.

12.

An experiment uses two groups of mice with 20 individuals in each group. Both groups are fed the same amount of water and food every day. They are kept in similar cages in a climate-controlled room. The experimental group is given five doses of a pesticide every day. After two months, the amount of an enzyme in the brains of the mice was measured.


The dependent variable in this experiment is the

a)

climate control of the room.

b)

enzyme in the brain of the mice.

c)

pesticide fed to the mice.

d)

time of the experiment.

e)

climate.

13.

Natural experiments can be done when a

a)

natural event changes an ecosystem.

b)

volcanic eruption destroys a forest.

c)

fire sweeps through a prairie.

d)

tornado uproots a section of a forest.

e)

All of these answers are correct.

14.

Natural experiments lack

a)

any basis for comparison.

b)

an exact replication of the experiment.

c)

similar constants.

d)

a dependent variable.

e)

All of these answers are correct.

15.

A positive feedback loop

a)

is when feedback into a system increases a rate of response.

b)

is when feedback into a system decreases a rate of response.

c)

may be seen in some examples of population growth.

d)

is when a system responds to a change by returning it to its original state.

e)

BOTH is when feedback into a system increases a rate of response and may be seen in some examples of population growth.

16.

A negative feedback loop is

a)

when feed back into the system increases the rate of progress.

b)

seen in the example of increased greenhouse gases leading to global warming.

c)

seen in the example of world population growth.

d)

when a system responds to a change by returning it to its original state.

e)

BOTH seen in the example of increased greenhouse gases leading to global warming and when a system responds to a change by returning it to its original state.

17.

An example of a positive feedback loop is

I. warmer temperatures of Earth’s surface decreasing the evaporation of water.

II. water evaporation creating low-altitude clouds reflecting sunlight back into clouds.

III. water evaporation creating high-altitude clouds absorbing terrestrial energy that would have escaped the atmosphere.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II and III

18.

Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?

a)

Sunlight

b)

Bacteria

c)

pH

d)

water

e)

soil composition

19.

Which of the following is a biotic factor?

a)

Producers

b)

pH

c)

water

d)

humidity

e)

energy

20.

Which of the following are biotic?

I. Decomposers

II. Energy flow

III. Producers

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III

e)

I, II and III

21.

Which of the following best describes an ecosystem?

a)

Populations interacting

b)

All biotic factors interacting

c)

Inter-species relationships

d)

Intra-species relationships

e)

All biotic and abiotic factors

22.

Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem

a)

Herbivores --> producers --> carnivores --> scavengers

b)

Producers --> herbivores --> carnivores --> scavengers

c)

Producers --> carnivores--> herbivores --> carnivores

d)

Scavengers --> producers --> herbivores --> carnivores

e)

Carnivores --> scavengers --> producers --> herbivores

23.

Which of the following are needed for photosynthesis?

a)

Water, solar energy and carbon dioxide

b)

Water, solar energy and glucose

c)

Carbon dioxide, energy and glucose

d)

Oxygen, water and energy

e)

Oxygen and glucose

24.

Which group of organisms performs photosynthesis?

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Scavengers

c)

Heterotrophs

d)

Consumers

e)

Decomposers

25.

Which of the following organisms performs cellular respiration?

I. Autotrophs

II. Heterotrophs

III. Decomposers

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II and III

26.

Which of the following shows the complex interactions between species within an ecosystem?

a)

Food chain

b)

Food web

c)

Food pyramid

d)

Energy pyramid

e)

Trophic level diagram

27.

The sun is the ultimate source of energy for terrestrial ecosystems. Approximately how much of the potential energy available from the sun’s rays hitting the earth is used in photosynthesis?

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

90%

28.

Which of the following is the approximate efficiency of the energy transfer as energy flows through the food chain?

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

25%

d)

50%

e)

90%

29.

How is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost?

a)

Heat loss

b)

Energy used to grow biomass

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Cellular metabolism

e)

Energy used to capture prey

30.

Which of the following statements best describes the concept of GPP (Gross Primary Production)?

a)

Total amount of energy available to primary consumers

b)

Total amount of energy available from the sun

c)

Total amount of solar energy that producers capture via photosynthesis

d)

Total amount of energy available within an ecosystem

e)

Total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

31.

Which of the following statements best describes the concept of NPP (Net Primary Production)

a)

Energy captured minus energy lost

b)

Total amount of energy available for the sun

c)

Total amount of energy produced from photosynthesis

d)

Total amount of energy available within an ecosystem

e)

Total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

32.

Which of the organisms illustrated above would be considered autotrophs?

a)

Beetle

b)

Bacteria

c)

Grass

d)

Cheetah

e)

Giraffe

33.

Which of the organisms illustrated above would be considered primary consumers?

a)

Rabbit

b)

Cheetah

c)

Lion

d)

Vulture

e)

Beetle

34.

Which of the organisms illustrated above would be considered a decomposer?

a)

Vulture

b)

Zebra

c)

Hyena

d)

Bacteria

e)

Hare

35.

Which of the organisms illustrated above would be the top predator?

a)

Zebra

b)

Hyena

c)

Lion

d)

Cheetah

e)

Giraffe

36.

Which of the organisms above would occupy the lowest trophic level?

a)

Hyena

b)

Cheetah

c)

Vulture

d)

Giraffe

e)

Lion

37.

Which ecosystem is the most productive?

a)

Tundra

b)

Tropical rainforest

c)

Coral reefs

d)

Swamps and marshes

e)

Desert scrub

38.

How productive are tropical seasonal forests as compared to lakes and streams?

a)

100% as productive

b)

50% as productive

c)

200% as productive

d)

300% as productive

e)

30% as productive

39.

How would you describe the relationship between temperature of a continental ecosystem and net primary productivity based on the data provided?

a)

There is no clear relationship between temperature and productivity

b)

The warmer the ecosystem, the higher the productivity

c)

The colder the ecosystem, the higher the productivity

d)

Continental ecosystems are more productive than marine ecosystems

e)

The warmer the ecosystem, the lower the productivity

40.

During what stage of the hydrologic cycle is water released to the atmosphere from plants?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Transpiration

c)

Precipitation

d)

Infiltration

e)

Condensation

41.

Humans have a considerable effect on the hydrologic cycle. Which of the following has a direct effect on this cycle?

I. Deforestation

II. Urbanization

III. Mining of fossil fuels

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II and III

42.

Which stage of the hydrologic cycle can be the most direct cause of algal blooms?

a)

Evaporation

b)

Precipitation

c)

Transpiration

d)

Infiltration

e)

Runoff

43.

Which of the following is considered to be the most important element in living organisms?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Phosphorus

e)

Nitrogen

44.

Which element is the primary component of fossil fuels?

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Phosphorus

e)

Nitrogen

45.

What relatively recent development is greatly impacting the carbon cycle?

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration

c)

Formation of fossil fuels

d)

Combustion of fossil fuels

e)

Formation of carbonate rocks

46.

What impact does deforestation have on the carbon cycle?

a)

Increase in amount of CO2 in the atmosphere

b)

Decrease in the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere

c)

Increase in the amount of photosynthesis

d)

Increase in the amount of cellular respiration performed by autotrophs

e)

Deforestation has no impact on the carbon cycle

47.

Which element is the most abundant in the atmosphere?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Phosphorus

d)

Sulfur

e)

Hydrogen

48.

What group of organisms is primarily responsible for the processes that occur in the nitrogen cycle?

a)

Autotrophs

b)

Heterotrophs

c)

Bacteria

d)

Detritivores

e)

Scavengers

49.

When nutrients are transported through soil with water, this process is known as

a)

Infiltration

b)

Percolation

c)

Decomposition

d)

Leaching

e)

Nitrification

50.

Which nutrient is most often limiting in aquatic ecosystems?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Phosphorus

c)

Carbon

d)

Hydrogen

e)

Sulfur

51.

Another name for a producer is a(n):

a)

Heterotroph

b)

Auotroph

c)

Decomposer

d)

Nutrient

e)

Scavenger

52.

In the hydrologic cycle, evaporation:

a)

Generally occurs immediately after condensation

b)

Can only be initiated in the ocean

c)

Is essentially the same process as transpiration

d)

Is caused by heat from the Sun

e)

Cannot be affected by human activities

53.

In which step of the nitrogen cycle do plants absorb nitrogen compounds?

a)

Nitrification

b)

Denitrification

c)

Assimilation

d)

Ammonification

e)

Nitrogen Fixation

54.

Which of the following is the best description of a region’s climate?

a)

The average temperature and precipitation over several decades

b)

The average precipitation over a 1-2 year time period

c)

The average high temperature of a region

d)

The amount of rainfall that an area receives over a period of 1 year

e)

The average temperature and rainfall over a period of 1-2 years

55.

In which level of the atmosphere does weather occur?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

56.

Which level of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

57.

What is the importance of the ozone layer?

a)

It plays an important role in the greenhouse effect

b)

It reflects solar gamma radiation that would otherwise reach the Earth’s surface

c)

It acts as an insulator for the earth and helps to maintain a livable temperature

d)

It absorbs incoming UV rays

e)

It reflects incoming heat back into space.

58.

Which of the following is the best description of albedo?

a)

The ability of an object to reflect light

b)

The ability of an object to absorb light

c)

The ability of an object to absorb gases

d)

The ability of an object to reflect gases

e)

The color of an object.

59.

What region of the earth does the sun hit at the most direct angle?

a)

North Pole (90o N)

b)

South Pole (90o S)

c)

30o-60o N

d)

30o-60o S

e)

Equator (0o)

60.

What level of the atmosphere contains charged gas molecules that glow, producing what is known as the northern lights or aurora borealis?

a)

Troposphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Thermosphere

e)

Exosphere

61.

Using the diagram above, indicate which of the following has the highest albedo:

a)

Asphalt

b)

Fresh snow

c)

Forest

d)

Croplands

e)

Water

62.

What is the overall direction of global air currents at the equator?

a)

Air rises at the equator

b)

Air sinks at the equator

c)

Air moves horizontally to the north at the equator

d)

Air moves horizontally to the south at the equator

e)

Air is relatively stable at the equator.

63.

What is the best explanation for the high amounts of rain that occur at the equator?

a)

This area experiences a high amount of wind, which leads to storms and rain

b)

This area has a large amount of water, leading to more rain

c)

The warm air rises at the equator which condenses at a high altitude, leading to rain

d)

The low pressure system that develops here causes warm air to sink, leading to rain

e)

As the air rises, it becomes warmer, leading to more rain

64.

What type of weather would you expect to find at the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)?

a)

Dry and warm weather

b)

Dry and cool weather

c)

Warm and rainy weather

d)

Cool and rainy weather

e)

Warm in the summer and cool in the winter

65.

At what latitude is the surface of the Earth moving at the highest velocity?

a)

90o N and S

b)

60o N and S

c)

30o N and S

d)

0o

e)

The surface moves at a constant rate

66.

What is the cause of the differing seasons of the Earth?

a)

The different distances of the Earth to the sun based on the elliptical orbit

b)

The different lengths of the day during summer and winter

c)

The Coriolis Effect

d)

The tilt of the Earth on its axis

e)

The speed of the orbit of the Earth around the sun

67.

The Coriolis Effect and prevailing winds contribute to the formation of gyres in the oceans. Which direction do these gyres flow in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

North to South

b)

South to North

c)

Clockwise

d)

Counterclockwise

e)

East to West

68.

What is one major role that these gyres play in global climate?

a)

Currents redistribute heat from the North to the South

b)

Currents redistribute heat from the Equator to Northern latitudes

c)

Drive global wind patterns in the Northern hemisphere

d)

Contribute to the Coriolis Effect

e)

Currents redistribute tropical moisture

69.

What is a positive effect of upwelling?

a)

Creates an area of high precipitation

b)

Creates an area of high nutrient levels along the coast

c)

Creates an area of high nutrients in the center of the ocean basin

d)

Creates an area of low precipitation

e)

Brings warm water to the surface of the ocean

70.

Where is upwelling most likely to occur?

a)

Along the west coasts of continents

b)

Along the east coasts of continents

c)

In the center of most ocean basins

d)

At the equator

e)

In the polar oceans

71.

As water freezes or evaporates, what happens to the salinity of the remaining ocean water?

a)

Salinity decreases

b)

Salinity increases

c)

There is no change to salinity

d)

Increases as water freezes, decreases as water evaporates

e)

Increases as water evaporates, decreases as water freezes

72.

In the diagram above, at what locations is water sinking?

I. 1

II. 2

III. 4

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III

e)

I and II

73.

In the diagram above, if Northern glaciers melt near location 2, what consequence may occur?

a)

Water in the northern hemisphere would become more salty, causing it to sink

b)

Water would become less salty, preventing sinking

c)

Water would become warmer, preventing sinking

d)

Water would become more dense and sink to a lower depth

e)

Water would sink faster, speeding up the current

74.

Why is the global current in the diagram above significant?

a)

It distributes nutrients around the globe

b)

It provides a mechanism to track water flow around the globe

c)

It contributes to the Coriolis effect

d)

It helps to regulate climate by transporting heat from the equator

e)

It helps to redistribute salty water from the equator north to the polar seas

75.

Which of the following is true about El Niño-Southern Oscillation (ENSO)?

I. Upwelling is suppressed off the coast of South America

II. This phenomenon is human caused and related to global warming

III. The tradewinds weaken, allowing warm water to move eastward

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III

e)

I, II and III

76.

In what location does El Niño occur?

a)

Tropical Atlantic Ocean

b)

Northern Atlantic Ocean

c)

Tropical Pacific Ocean

d)

Northern Pacific Ocean

e)

Indian Ocean

77.

According to the graph above, what biome would you expect to find in an area with an average temperature of 10o C and 100 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate rainforest

d)

Temperate grassland

e)

Temperate seasonal forest

78.

According to the diagram above, what biome would you expect to find in an area with an average temperature of 25o C and 200 cm of precipitation annually?

a)

Tropical rainforest

b)

Tropical seasonal forest/savanna

c)

Temperate seasonal forest

d)

Woodland/shrubland

e)

Temperate rainforest

79.

What factors are used to classify a biome?

I. Average temperature

II. Average precipitation

III. Distinctive plants adapted to area

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II and III

80.

Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost?

a)

Tundra

b)

Boreal forest

c)

Temperate grassland/cold desert

d)

Temperate seasonal forest

e)

Woodland/shrubland

81.

Which of the following is the Earth’s most diverse biome?

a)

Wetlands

b)

Tropical Rainforest

c)

Temperate seasonal forest

d)

Coral reefs

e)

Grasslands

82.

Which biome has plants with adaptations that prevent water loss, such as smaller leaves with few pores for gas exchange?

a)

Temperate rain forest

b)

Woodland/shrubland

c)

Temperate seasonal forest

d)

Tropical rainforest

e)

Subtropical desert

83.

Which of the zones in the diagram above is the stratosphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

84.

In the diagram above, which zone contains the majority of the atmosphere’s nitrogen, oxygen, and water vapor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

85.

The northern lights are caused by solar radiation hitting charged gas molecules in which layer?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

86.

Which of the zones in the diagram above is the exosphere?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

87.

What is most significant when determining the diversity of an ecosystem?

a)

The number of organisms present

b)

The number of species present

c)

The amount of land the ecosystem covers

d)

The amount of precipitation an ecosystem receives

e)

The interactions between producers and consumers

88.

What factors are used to determine what constitutes a species?

I. Physically distinct from other groups of organisms

II. Can interbreed with others from the same group

III. Shares the same habitat as other groups of organisms

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II

e)

I, II and III

89.

Which of the following are measurements used to measure diversity within an ecosystem?

I. Species wealth

II. Species richness

III. Species evenness

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I, II and III

e)

II and III

90.

Which of the following is the best description of species evenness?

a)

How evenly spread out a particular species is within an ecosystem

b)

The number of species within an ecosystem

c)

The number of organisms present within an ecosystem

d)

The relative dominance of each species within an ecosystem

e)

The ratio of consumers to producers

91.

Which of the following is the best description of the two communities shown?

a)

Community 1 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 2

b)

Community 1 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 2

c)

Community 1 has a higher evenness and equal richness to Community 2

d)

Community 2 has a higher evenness and higher richness than Community 1

e)

Community 2 has a higher evenness but lower richness than Community 1

92.

Which of the following is a true statement about the comparison between Communities 1 and 2 shown?

a)

Communities 1 and 2 have the same species richness

b)

Communities 1 and 2 have the same species evenness

c)

Community 2 is more diverse than community 1

d)

Community 2 has a higher species evenness than Community 1

e)

Community 1 has a higher species richness than Community 2

93.

If a bird that normally has green feathers produces offspring with blue, this is most likely the result of:

a)

A genetic mutation

b)

Evolution

c)

Natural selection

d)

Natural variation

e)

Genotypic variation

94.

Which of the following are processes in which evolution occurs?

I. Artificial selection

II. Natural selection

III. Genetic Drift

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

II and III

e)

I, II and III

95.

Which process can be controlled most directly by humans?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Mutation

e)

Genetic Bottleneck

96.

Which of the following is the best example of artificial selection?

a)

Bees pollinating different species of flowers

b)

Adaptation of finches to different sources of food on different islands

c)

An isolated population of frogs develops a phenotype distinct from the original population

d)

Breeding of horses for speed

e)

A small population has an unusually high percentage of an rare phenotype

97.

When natural selection occurs, what is the key factor that will determine which individuals will survive and pass on the beneficial traits?

a)

The traits that are more useful to humans will be passed on

b)

Size; the larger the animal or plant, the more likely it will survive

c)

How large the initial population is

d)

The environment will determine which traits are most beneficial

e)

Natural selection is random and occurs by chance

98.

When a population suddenly reduces in size either from habitat loss, natural disaster or other changes in the environment, its genetic variation is affected. When this occurs, this is known as:

a)

Founder effect

b)

Geographic isolation

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Bottleneck effect

e)

Mutation

99.

The table lists the number of individuals of each species found within four field communities. Which of the communities listed is most diverse overall?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

Community 3

d)

Community 4

e)

All are equally diverse

100.

Which of the communities listed has the highest species evenness?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

Community 3

d)

Community 4

e)

Both Communities 3 and 4

101.

Which of the communities listed most clearly represents a community with low species evenness?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

Community 3

d)

Community 4

e)

All communities show relatively equal evenness

102.

Which of the communities listed would be least vulnerable to the effects of environmental disturbances?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

Community 3

d)

Community 4

e)

All communities are equally vulnerable

103.

The variety of genes within a species is called its

a)

Species evenness

b)

Genetic diversity

c)

Species diversity

d)

Ecosystem diversity

e)

Species richness

104.

The change in genetic composition of a population over time is called

a)

Evolution

b)

Phenotype

c)

Genotype

d)

Artificial selection

e)

Mutation

105.

Which term refers to the variety of ecosystems within a region?

a)

Species evenness

b)

Genetic diversity

c)

Species diversity

d)

Ecosystem diversity

e)

Species richness

106.

In a small population, when genotypes are lost by chance it is called

a)

Genetic diversity

b)

Founder effect

c)

Allopatric speciation

d)

Genetic drift

e)

Artificial selection

107.

Which of the following decreases genetic variation?

I. Bottleneck effect

II. Mutation

III. Genetic drift

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III

d)

II and III

e)

I, II and III

108.

The organisms that represent all of the different interacting species within an ecosystem make up a

a)

population

b)

community

c)

trophic level

d)

biosphere

e)

genus

109.

Which type of population distribution can enhance protection from predators?

a)

Random distribution

b)

Uniform distribution

c)

Clumped distribution

d)

BOTH random and clumped distribution

e)

None of the above are correct.

110.

When individuals are found to be distributed evenly throughout an ecosystem it is often because

a)

they form hierarchical social groups.

b)

they are interbreeding

c)

resources are not limiting

d)

they mate for life

e)

they are territorial.

111.

An ecosystem’s carrying capacity for a population is determined by all of the following factors EXCEPT

a)

space

b)

energy

c)

water

d)

food

e)

climatic events, such as tornadoes.

112.

A population of rabbits, introduced to an island, has rapid growth for a few years; then its growth slows. The population becomes stable because

a)

the carrying capacity has been reached.

b)

environmental resistance declines.

c)

immigration is reduced.

d)

r declines.

e)

Bergman’s Principle takes effect.

113.

A species that plays a major role in determining the structure of its ecological community is

a)

a predator.

b)

a dominator species.

c)

the most abundant species in the community.

d)

a keystone species.

e)

the largest species.

114.

If the growth rate r of a population is positive and remains constant, the number of people added to the population

a)

remains constant.

b)

fluctuates randomly.

c)

decreases each year.

d)

reaches carrying capacity.

e)

increases each year.

115.

Which factor would NOT influence the size a population reaches over time?

a)

immigration and emigration

b)

number of deaths

c)

age of females at reproduction

d)

distance traveled by migrants

e)

number of births

116.

Under which of the following conditions would a population grow?

a)

the birth rate and the death rate are equal.

b)

the birth rate exceeds the death rate and there is no immigration or emigration.

c)

emigration exceeds immigration and the birth rate equals the death rate.

d)

the birth rate equals the death rate and immigration is equal to emigration.

e)

the carrying capacity is exceeded.

117.

A population’s growth rate depends upon

a)

the age at which it first reproduces.

b)

the average number of offspring produced.

c)

the reproductive lifespan.

d)

the post reproductive lifespan.

e)

all of the above.

118.

If a country’s death rate increases,

a)

growth becomes linear, not exponential.

b)

the time required to reach a given population increases.

c)

the birth rate must decrease.

d)

the population always decreases.

e)

there is not enough information to tell

119.

The human population is currently following roughly a J-shaped curve. This means that the population is growing

a)

arithmetically.

b)

sigmoidally.

c)

at a decreasing rate.

d)

by a boom and bust cycle.

e)

exponentially.

120.

Developing countries tend to have a(n) ____ age structure diagram.

a)

rectangular-shaped

b)

inverted triangle

c)

pyramid-shaped

d)

square

e)

round

121.

If a population’s age structure diagram looks like a pyramid, the population

a)

is expanding.

b)

is shrinking.

c)

is remaining the same.

d)

will expand for at least a generation.

e)

is showing continuous exponential growth.

122.

Populations with a relatively rectangular-shaped age structure diagram have ____.

a)

high death rates

b)

a similar number of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

123.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

124.

Population growth rates are high in developing countries because

a)

infant mortality rates are low.

b)

women tend to have children late in life.

c)

family planning is common.

d)

children are often an important economic advantage.

e)

All of the above.

125.

The population of the United States continues to grow as a result of

a)

immigration.

b)

babies born to baby boom generation parents.

c)

the birth rate being above replacement level fertility during the 1940s through 1960s.

d)

population momentum.

e)

All of the above.

126.

U.S. citizens have a large ecological footprint because of their high consumption of

a)

food

b)

lumber

c)

energy resources

d)

space

e)

all of the above

127.

The agricultural revolution led to an increase in the human population because it

a)

provided humans with a larger food supply.

b)

provided humans with a more dependable food supply.

c)

further increased the Earth’s carrying capacity for humans.

d)

resulted in a longer life span and more childbearing years.

e)

all of the above

128.

A country’s impact on the environment is influenced by

I. Population

II. Technology

III. Affluence

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and III

d)

II and III

e)

I, II, and III

129.

Population size can be estimated using the formula

a)

CBR + Immigration + CDR + Emigration

b)

CBR + Immigration – CDR – Emigration

c)

CBR + Immigration + CDR – Emigration

d)

CBR – Immigration – CDR – Emigration

e)

CBR – Immigration + CDR – Emigration

130.

Which factor is NOT considered when estimating world population?

a)

CBR

b)

CDR

c)

Total fertility rates

d)

Immigration

e)

Existing population

131.

According to the theory of demographic transition, rapid growth occurs during phase

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

132.

According to the theory of demographic transition, the highest birth rates and death rates are likely to occur during phase

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

133.

According to the theory of demographic transition, birth rates decline during phase

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

134.

According to the theory of demographic transition, birth rates may drop below death rates during phase

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

135.

Which population is larger?

a)

Population A

b)

Population B

c)

Currently, the populations are roughly the same size, but population B will soon be larger.

d)

Currently, the populations are roughly the same size, but population A will soon be larger.

e)

There is not enough information to tell.

136.

Population A is most likely

a)

rapidly growing.

b)

growing, but very slowly.

c)

stable.

d)

going to decline in a few decades.

e)

There is not enough information to tell.

137.

Population B is most likely

a)

rapidly growing.

b)

rapidly declining.

c)

stable or close to stable.

d)

going to decline in a few decades.

e)

There is not enough information to tell.

138.

Approximately how many females in population B are between the ages of 50 and 59?

a)

500,000

b)

5,000,000

c)

20,000,000

d)

30,000,000

e)

50,000,000

139.

Approximately how many males in population A are under the age of 10?

a)

130,000,000

b)

110,000,000

c)

20,000,000

d)

15,000,000

e)

450,000

140.

Population B would most likely be in which stage of demographic transition?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

141.

Population A would most likely be in which stage of demographic transition?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

142.

Population A

I. Is likely to have a higher level of education than population B

II. Is likely to have had a recent decline in infant mortality

III. Is likely to be poorer than population B

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

II and III

e)

I, II and III

143.

The elements of Earth are separated such that the

a)

most dense elements are in the center, called the mantle.

b)

most dense elements are at the surface, called the crust.

c)

least dense elements are at the surface, called the mantle.

d)

most dense elements are in the center, called the core.

e)

least dense elements are in the center, called the core.

144.

The Earth is about ____ billion years old.

a)

1.6

b)

2.6

c)

3.6

d)

4.6

e)

8.6

145.

The lithosphere includes

a)

part of the core.

b)

all of the crust.

c)

the entire mantle.

d)

all of the core.

e)

both part of the core and the entire mantle

146.

Magma circulates in convection cells in the

a)

crust.

b)

asthenosphere.

c)

core.

d)

lithosphere.

e)

mid-ocean ridge.

147.

The layer of soil on the surface of the earth is at the top of the

a)

crust.

b)

mantle.

c)

core.

d)

asthenosphere.

e)

none of these answers are correct.

148.

At a hot spot,

a)

water rises.

b)

earthquakes are rare.

c)

magma rises.

d)

plates are stationary.

e)

magma sinks.

149.

The theory of plate tectonics states the following:

a)

Earth’s asthenosphere is divided into plates, which move.

b)

Earth’s mantle is divided into plates, which move.

c)

Earth’s lithosphere is divided into plates, which move.

d)

Earth’s core is divided into plates, which move.

e)

The crust of the earth is molten.

150.

Volcanoes may be found at or near plate boundaries where ____ is happening.

a)

subduction

b)

divergence

c)

convergence

d)

seafloor spreading

e)

all of these answers are correct.

151.

A subduction zone is shown at

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

152.

A subduction zone is shown at

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

153.

Asthenosphere is shown at

a)

B

b)

C

c)

E

d)

G

e)

I

154.

The rock cycle operates in the following order:

a)

sedimentary-metamorphic-igneous

b)

igneous-metamorphic-sedimentary

c)

sedimentary-igneous-metamorphic

d)

metamorphic-igneous-sedimentary

e)

all of these answers are correct.

155.

Select the correct rock type connected with its mode of origin.

a)

Igneous-liquid magma.

b)

Sedimentary-exposure to high temperatures and pressures.

c)

Metamorphic-compression of mud by overlying sediments.

d)

Sedimentary-compression of magma.

e)

All of the above are correct.

156.

The difference between weathering and erosion is that

a)

weathering is a chemical process; erosion is strictly physical.

b)

weathering refers to the breakdown of the rock; erosion refers to the removal of the rock from its landscape.

c)

erosion refers to the breakdown of the rock; weathering refers to the removal of the rock from its landscape.

d)

Weathering happens in the tropics; erosion happens in temperate environments.

e)

There is no difference between weathering and erosion.

157.

Erosion of soil can be accelerated by which of the following practices?

a)

road building

b)

logging

c)

construction

d)

agriculture

e)

all of these answers are correct.

158.

The function(s) of soil is/are the following:

a)

filter of water and atmospheric chemical compounds.

b)

habitat for organisms.

c)

anchor for plants.

d)

location for recycling of organic matter.

e)

all of these answers are correct.

159.

Select the correct order of physical size of sediment particles from largest to smallest.

a)

sand-silt-clay

b)

silt-sand-clay

c)

loam-silt-clay

d)

loam-sand-silt

e)

clay-silt-sand

160.

The porosity of soil is a measure of

a)

its cation exchange capacity.

b)

how deep its topsoil layer is.

c)

how much biological material it contains.

d)

how quickly it drains.

e)

none of these answers are correct.

161.

The soil that is best for growing most plants is composed of

a)

clay, because it retains nutrients and water tightly.

b)

sand, because water drains most easily.

c)

silt, because it is a medium sized particle.

d)

a mixture of sand to drain well and clay to hold nutrients.

e)

a mixture of sand, silt, and clay that promotes water drainage and retention.

162.

Using the soil triangle above, what is the percentage of sand, silt, and clay at Point A?

a)

40% sand, 20% silt, 40% clay

b)

40% sand, 30% silt, 10% clay

c)

30% sand, 40% silt, 30% clay

d)

40% sand, 40% silt, 20% clay

e)

35% sand, 35% silt, 30% clay

163.

Using the soil triangle above, what is the percentage of sand, silt, and clay at Point B?

a)

20% sand, 40% silt, 40% clay

b)

20% sand, 50% silt, 30% clay

c)

30% sand, 50% silt, 20% clay

d)

40% sand, 10% silt, 50% clay

e)

40% sand, 30% silt, 30% clay

164.

A good liner for a landfill is made of

a)

clay

b)

sand

c)

silt

d)

basalt

e)

loam

165.

Topsoil is the

a)

O horizon.

b)

A horizon.

c)

B horizon.

d)

C horizon.

e)

Both B and C Horizon

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