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Worksheets

Question Bank for Grade 12 Science

Total questions: 155

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The image shows a 100 m freestyle swimming race. What is the classification of motor skills for a competitor in this race?

a)

Interactive

b)

Discrete

c)

Fine

d)

Coactive

2.

Which feature of Welford’s model of information processing is directly linked to short-term memory?

a)

Sensation

b)

Perception

c)

Output

d)

Feedback

3.

The diagram shows a baseball player. What type of sensor is used by a hitter to gain information regarding the flight of a baseball?

a)

Exteroceptors

b)

Interoceptors

c)

Chemoreceptors

d)

Proprioceptors

4.

Which is an example of reaction time at the start of a 100 m swimming race?

a)

The time it takes to sense the sound of the starter pistol.

b)

The time from the sounding of the starter pistol to the initiation of movement.

c)

The time taken to hear the starter pistol and complete the movement off the block.

d)

The time taken to hear the starter pistol and enter the water.

5.

The diagram shows a gymnast performing a tuck somersault.

What type of transfer occurs when a gymnast learns that forming a tuck in a somersault will reduce the moment of inertia and allow them to spin faster?

a)

Skill to skill

b)

Practice to performance

c)

Stage to stage

d)

Principles to skills

6.

The diagram shows a field hockey player. What is the correct classification of motor skills for dribbling in hockey?

a)

Gross - Serial - Open

b)

Fine - Serial - Closed

c)

Gross - Discrete - Open

d)

Fine - Discrete - Closed

7.

Which phrase describes technique?

a)

Learned movements that are specific to a certain task

b)

The way in which a specific sports skill is performed

c)

The general capacity of an individual to perform well

d)

Characteristics that allow for effective learning

8.

What is the relationship between ability, skill and technique?

a)

Skill = ability + technique

b)

Technique = ability + skill

c)

Skill = ability x technique

d)

Technique = ability - skill

9.

What is response time?

a)

The amount of time between the stimulus and the initiation of the movement

b)

The amount of time between the stimulus and the completion of movement

c)

Response time = movement time - reaction time

d)

The amount of time from the initiation of a movement to the completion of a movement

10.

The graphs represent how reaction time changes when additional possible outcomes are introduced into a situation. Which graph Represents Hick's Law?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

Which type of transfer is best demonstrated when a baseball player learns to hit a ball both left handed and right handed?

a)

Skill to skill

b)

Stage to stage

c)

Bilateral

d)

Practice to performance

12.

Which is an example of perceptual skill?

a)

Knowledge of team tactics

b)

Shooting in basketball

c)

Assessing the putting green in golf

d)

Receiving a serve in tennis

13.

What does ability refer to?

a)

The production of goal-orientated movements

b)

The way in which a sports skill is performed

c)

A learned skill that is specific to the task

d)

The general trait or capacity of the individual

14.

Why are yellow balls used in tennis?

a)

To increase signal intensity

b)

To limit background noise

c)

To improve the efficiency of sense organs

d)

To improve memory retrieval

15.

What is the average capacity of short-term memory?

a)

1 bit of information

b)

2±7 bits of information

c)

7±2 bits of information

d)

Unlimited

16.

What is Hick’s Law?

a)

Increase in reaction time with increased number of choices

b)

Decrease in reaction time with increased number of choices

c)

Increase in movement time with increased number of choices

d)

Decrease in movement time with increased number of choices

17.

Which describes practice to performance transfer in tennis?

a)

Hitting against a ball machine

b)

Understanding the biomechanics of hitting

c)

Training for strength to improve hitting

d)

Hitting right-handed and left-handed

18.

What is an example of an open skill?

a)

A serve in tennis

b)

A free throw in basketball

c)

A javelin throw

d)

A pass in soccer

19.

What is an example of a perceptual motor ability?

a)

Strength

b)

Reaction Time

c)

Flexibility

d)

Endurance

20.

Which is an example of information received through proprioceptors?

a)

Recognition of a cool temperature

b)

Recognition of wind resistance

c)

Detection of blood glucose concentration

d)

Detection of the location of one’s body in space

21.

What is rehearsal in memory improvement?

a)

Grouping information into larger sets

b)

Storing information through repetition

c)

Associating information with prior experiences

d)

Remembering specific details

22.

What is movement time?

a)

Response time - reaction time

b)

Response time + reaction time

c)

Response time × reaction time

d)

Response time ÷ reaction time

23.

What is the role of selective attention?

a)

To filter relevant information from noise

b)

To hold all information for seconds

c)

To store relevant information for years

d)

To pass all information to the long-term memory

24.

Which graph shows a negatively accelerated learning curve?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

25.

Which type of presentation involves the repetitive practice of a single part of a skill?

a)

Whole

b)

Whole-part-whole

c)

Progressive part

d)

Part

26.

Which motor skill classifications apply when an athlete runs a 100 m race?

a)

Gross, interactive, externally paced

b)

Fine, individual, internally paced

c)

Gross, coactive, externally paced

d)

Fine, coactive, internally paced

27.

What is measured by the drop test?

a)

Reaction time

b)

Response time

c)

Movement time

d)

Coordination

28.

As a golfer hits the ball they feel a sharp pain in the right bicep; this is an example of which types of feedback?

a)

Knowledge of result, negative, terminal

b)

Knowledge of result, positive, concurrent

c)

Knowledge of performance, negative, concurrent

d)

Knowledge of performance, positive, terminal

29.

A teacher introduced fencing to a group of judo athletes. Actions in judo are initiated by the foot whereas fencing actions are initiated by the hand. The judo athletes were slow to master the fencing skills.

What learning transfer took place?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Bilateral

d)

Stage to Stage

30.

A coach is teaching a large group of students in a potentially dangerous situation, for example shot put training.

What is the safest teaching style to use?

a)

Command

b)

Reciprocal

c)

Problem-solving

d)

Mental

31.

What type of skill is used to decide and perform a pass in soccer?

a)

Cognitive skill

b)

Perceptual skill

c)

Motor skill

d)

Perceptual motor skill

32.

Which classifies the release of an arrow in archery?

a)

Fine-closed-continuous

b)

Fine-individual-discrete

c)

Gross-closed-discrete

d)

Gross-individual-continuous

33.

What is a characteristic of short-term sensory store?

a)

It contains motor programmes

b)

It can convert information into a knowledge structure

c)

It has a high capacity for storing information

d)

It is relatively permanent area for storing information

34.

Which describes the associative stage of learning?

a)

Performers' movements are regularly practiced and refined

b)

Performers consistently complete actions with fluency

c)

Performers' movements are erratic and lack fluency

d)

Performers regularly focus on irrelevant stimuli for movements that require perception.

35.

What type of transfer occurs from a 3 versus 3 training game to a 5 versus 5 competitive basketball game?

a)

Skill to skill

b)

Abilities to skill

c)

Practice to perfomance

d)

Stage to stage

36.

What is skill?

a)

A general trait or capacity of an individual

b)

A procedure for completing a task

c)

The way an action is learned

d)

The consistent production of goal-oriented movements

37.

What is an example of a serial skill?

a)

Riding a bicycle

b)

Playing tennis

c)

Hitting a golf ball

d)

Performing a gymnastics routine

38.

What is coding in memory improvement?

a)

Remembering short and specific details rather than long and vague information

b)

Presenting information in a clear and logical format

c)

Associating information with images

d)

Storing information through repetition

39.

Which describes knowledge of results feedback?

a)

The coach describing the quality of a performance

b)

The coach providing technique information after a performance

c)

A basketball player seeing that the ball went into the basket

d)

A basketball player analyzing their technique on replay

40.

When is massed practice most suitable?

a)

For performers with low motivation

b)

For performers with high motication

c)

For performers practicing open skills

d)

For performers practicing closed skills

41.

Where does salivary amylase break down food?

a)

Mouth

b)

Stomach

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

42.

What is the typical pH range in the stomach?

a)

1 - 4

b)

4 - 5

c)

5.5 - 7.5

d)

6.0 - 8.0

43.

Select the correct response for an enzyme

a)

It is a lipid

b)

They are non-specific (they target any molecules)

c)

They work optimally under any pH environment

d)

It is a catalyst that speeds up the breakdown of molecules

44.

In regards to enzymes, select the incorrect statement

a)

Enzymes aid in the breakdown of large food molecules into smaller more soluble substances that can be absorbed into the blood

b)

Slow down the rate of reaction

c)

Different enzymes with different functions are produced in particular areas of the digestive tract

d)

Most enzymes only catalyse one reaction

45.

The enzyme responsible for breaking down protein in the stomach is

a)

Salivary amylase

b)

Pancreatic amylase

c)

Pancreatic lipase

d)

Bile

e)

Pepsin

46.

Select the incorrect statement for the absorption from the intestinal lumen to the capillary network

a)

Proteins enter the lymphatic system

b)

Carbohydrates are absorbed as monosaccharides

c)

All substrates (CHO, fatty acids & protein) cross the brush border membrane and passes through the cytosol of the absorptive cell

d)

Lipids cross the basolateral membrane

47.

In regards to water, which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Water is essential for all metabolic processes in the body

b)

Water helps to regulate body temperature

c)

Water helps to lubricate joints

d)

Excess water helps to increase the concentration of sodium in the blood

48.

Which of the following is incorrect in terms of where extracellular fluid is found

a)

Blood plasma

b)

Lymph

c)

In cells

d)

Fluid secreted by glands

49.

The water distribution of trained athletes is lower than untrained individuals

a)

True

b)

False

50.

Which is correct for a simple negative feedback model?

a)

Sensor - controller - effector - feedback (then repeat)

b)

Sensor -feedback - controller - effector (then repeat)

c)

Sensor - controller - feedback - effector (then repeat)

51.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about ADH & Aldosterone?

a)

The permeability of the distal tubule and collecting duct is controlled by ADH

b)

ADH causes the urine to become more concentrated

c)

Aldolsterone is produced in the cortex of the adrenal glands which are located above the kidney

d)

Aldolsterone acts on the distal tubule and collecting duct to decrease Na+ ion reabsorption

52.

Which is not a method to monitor hydration status of athletes?

a)

Urine colour (urinalysis)

b)

Urine osmolarity (concentration of dissolved substances)

c)

Variation in body mass

d)

Using a biometer

e)

Urine volume

53.

Select the incorrect response in terms of why endurance athletes require greater water intake

a)

Due to greater energy demands

b)

Due to lower breathing rate

c)

The need to regulate body temperature

d)

Decrease in plasma volume

54.

What is NOT a risk of low electrolyte balance during chronic exercise

a)

It may improve cognition

b)

It may contribute to fatigue

c)

There may be a decline in performance

d)

The athlete may be at risk of hypoatremia

55.

Is this a correct definition of basal metabolic rate? The rate at which energy is used by basic bodily function

a)

Yes

b)

No

56.

Which components make up daily energy expenditure?

a)

All answers

b)

Basal metabolic rate

c)

Thermic effect of physical activity

d)

Thermic effect of feeding

57.

Which of the following is incorrect in regards to the relationship of energy intake and expenditure

a)

Weight loss results from intake below the daily energy requirements

b)

Weight loss results from a decrease in daily caloric intake and increase in energy expenditure

c)

Weight gain results in a decrease of caloric intake

d)

Weight gain results from maintaining a normal intake and decreasing energy expenditure

58.

In regards to body composition, what do athletes want?

a)

Increase fat mass to increase power to weight ratio

b)

Increase fat mass to decrease power to weight ratio

c)

Increase fat free mass to increase power to weight ratio

d)

Increase fat free mass to decrease power to weight ratio

59.

Which of the following are ways athletes manipulate their body composition?

a)

Fad diets

b)

Crash diets

c)

Macronutrient exclusion or reduction

d)

All answers

60.

Which of the following contains low levels of glycogen

a)

Fast twitch Ia

b)

Fast twitch IIb

c)

Slow twitch I

d)

Slow twitch II

61.

Which of the following events doesn't utilise high rates of muscle glycogen?

a)

1km swim

b)

400m sprint

c)

2 min max ergo

d)

Soccer defensive phase

62.

In regards to muscle fibres, which of the following statements is incorrect?

a)

Type I fibres are more frequently used during endurance events

b)

Type IIa are the first to be recruited during light exercise

c)

Type IIb fibres are employed during exercise that require levels of intensity approaching maximal levels

d)

As the intensity of exercise increases beyond moderate levels (and type I fibres become progressively glycogen depleted)

63.

Is this a correct definition of glycemic index, it is a ranking system for carbohydrates based on their immediate effect on blood glucose concentrations when compared with a reference food such as pure glucose

a)

Yes

b)

No

64.

Which is not a high GI food

a)

Baked potatoes

b)

Water melon

c)

White bread

d)

Green leafy vegetables

65.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement about GI foods?

a)

For general health consume low to med GI foods

b)

Pre exercise consume low GI foods

c)

Post exercise consume high GI foods for 15mins to 2 hrs

d)

Post exercise 2hrs plus consume high GI foods for 24 hrs

66.

Which of the following statement regarding carbohydrate loading is incorrect?

a)

Traditionally the carbo load was 3-4 days of low carbs then 3-4 days of high carb

b)

The taper method uses a reduction in intensity while carbo loading for 3 to 4 days

c)

Athletes should consume 20 g/kg-1 body weight during the carbo loading phase

d)

The goal of carbo loading is to stimulate glycogen synthase

67.

Which of the following statements is incorrect in regards to sodium?

a)

It is not an important electrolyte in extracellular fluid

b)

Important for transmembrane electrical and chemical gradients

c)

Plasma volume better maintained with sodium

d)

Stimulates glucose absorption via the active co-transport of glucose and sodium which creates an osmotic gradient that promotes net water absorption

68.

Which of the following are nutritional ergogenic aids

a)

All answers

b)

Caffeine

c)

Creatine

d)

Bicarbonate

e)

Sports drinks/gels and bars

69.

The recommended daily protein intake for non-athletes is

a)

0.2 g/kg-1 body weight

b)

0.8 g/kg-1 body weight

c)

1.6 g/kg-1 body weight

d)

> 2 g/kg-1 body weight

70.

Are all these foods vegetarian options for protein? Peanuts, beans, lentils, almonds, rice, wheat, tofu, whole grains, seeds

a)

Yes

b)

No

71.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement for recommended protein intake?

a)

Untrained - 0.8 g/kg-1 body weight

b)

Strength Athlete - 4.4 to 4.8 g/kg-1 body weight

c)

Endurance Athlete - 1.2 - 1.4 g/kg-1 body weight

d)

Female Athlete - approx 15% less protein than male counterpart

72.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the harmful effects of protein intake?

a)

Increase stress on the kidneys

b)

Decrease risk of cancers

c)

Increase water loss

d)

Increase body weight

73.

What is approximate recommended amount of carbohydrate per Kg of body weight when carbo loading with the taper method 3-4 days prior to a long endurance event?

a)

1g

b)

10g

c)

100g

d)

1000g

74.

What is vital capacity

a)

Inspiratory reserve volume plus total lung capacity

b)

Total lung capacity minus residual volume

c)

Tidal volume plus inspiratory reserve volume

d)

Residual volume minus expiratory reserve volume

75.

What are the principal structures of the ventilatory systems

a)

Mouth, trachea, ribs, intercostal muscles

b)

Nose, pharynx, aorta, diaphragm

c)

Nose, trachea, bronchioles, alveoli

d)

Mouth, larynx, diaphragm, lungs

76.

What are the functions of the nose during inspiration (can select more than one)

a)

To moisten the air

b)

To diffuse oxygen from the air

c)

To filter the air

d)

To stop us breathing through our mouth

77.

What is the of tidal volume?

a)

volume of air in the lungs after maximum inhalation

b)

maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation

c)

volume of air breathed in and out in a normal breath

d)

additional inspired air over and above the tidal volume

e)

volume of air still contained in the lungs after a maximal exhalation

78.

What is residual volume

a)

volume of air in the lungs after maximum inhalation

b)

maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation

c)

volume of air breathed in and out in a normal breath

d)

additional inspired air over and above the tidal volume

e)

volume of air still contained in the lungs after a maximal exhalation

79.

Which is a principal structure of the ventilatory system

a)

pulmonary artery

b)

trachea

c)

pulmonary valve

d)

capillary

80.

What is inspiratory reserve volume

a)

volume of air in the lungs after maximum inhalation

b)

maximum volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inhalation

c)

volume of air breathed in and out in a normal breath

d)

additional inspired air over and above the tidal volume

e)

volume of air still contained in the lungs after a maximal exhalation

81.

What is pulmonary ventilation

a)

Exchange of respiratory gases between the lungs and blood

b)

Diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli

c)

Volume of air breathed in and out in one breath

d)

Inflow and outflow of air between the atmosphere and the lungs

82.

Which structure is responsible for moistening the air entering the ventilatory system

a)

Bronchi

b)

Larynx

c)

Pharynx

d)

Nose

83.

What is the action of the diaphragm (D) and the external intercostal muscles (EIM) during exhalation?

a)

D & EIM - relaxes

b)

D & EIM - contract

c)

D - relaxes EIM - contracts

d)

D - contracts EIM - relaxes

84.

Which feedback mechanisms are associated with the chemical control of ventilation during exercise?

a)

Lung stretch receptors

b)

Muscle proprioreceptors

c)

Increases in blood acidity levels

d)

Increases in temperature

85.

Which are involved in neural control of ventilation?

a)

Sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes

b)

Lung stretch receptors and chemoreceptors

c)

Adrenaline and breathing rate

d)

Diaphragm and accessory muscles

86.

Which gases are exchanged at the alveoli

a)

oxygen and nitrogen

b)

oxygen, carbon dioxide and nitrogen

c)

Oxygen only

d)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

87.

What percentage of oxygen in the blood is transported by hemoglobin as oxyhemoglobin within red blood cells?

a)

68%

b)

95%

c)

98.5%

d)

99.5%

88.

Which best identifies the relationship between volume and pressure inside the lungs when exhaling

(breathing out)?

a)

Volume increases, Pressure increases

b)

Volume increases, Pressure decreases

c)

Volume decreases, Pressure decreases

d)

Volume decreases, Pressure increases

89.

Which component of blood is greatest by volume?

a)

Electrolytes

b)

Plasma

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Leucocytes

90.

How does an increased erythrocyte level benefit an athlete?

a)

By increasing the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood

b)

By decreasing the capacity of the blood to clot in case of an injury

c)

By increasing the ability of the body to fight infection

d)

By decreasing viscosity of the blood

91.

What is the function of the platelets

a)

clotting blood

b)

deliver oxygen

c)

produce antibodies

d)

carry carbon dioxide

92.

What is label 1

a)

aorta

b)

vena cava

c)

pulmonary artery

d)

pulmonary vein

93.

What is label 10

a)

right ventricle

b)

right atrium

c)

left atrium

d)

septum

94.

What is label 5

a)

tricuspid valve

b)

bicuspid valve

c)

aortic valve

d)

pulmonary valve

95.

Which heart valve separates the right ventricle from the right atrium

a)

aortic

b)

tricuspid

c)

bicuspid

d)

pulmonary

96.

Which is the main aspect responsible for regulation of heart rate?

a)

SA Node

b)

Autonomic nervous system

c)

Adrenaline

d)

veins

97.

Where in the heart is the electrical impulse generated for contraction?

a)

AV node

b)

Left atrium

c)

SA node

d)

Right ventricle

98.

Which of the following correctly describes the sequence of excitation of heart muscle?

a)

AV node → bundle of His → SA node

b)

SA node → AV node → bundle of His

c)

bundle of His → SA node → AV node

d)

AV node → SA node → bundle of His

99.

Which of the following is the correct order for carbon dioxide moving from the pulmonary artery to the atmosphere?

a)

trachea → larynx → nose

b)

alveoli → trachea → bronchi

c)

bronchi → trachea → bronchioles

d)

nose → trachea → bronchi

100.

Which of the following best explains the cardiovascular drift?

a)

During prolonged exercise there is a lower venous return to the heart and a small decrease in blood volume due to sweating. Therefore the heart rate increases to maintain cardiac output

b)

During prolonged exercise there is a higher venous return to the heart and a increase in blood volume. Therefore the heart rate increases to maintain cardiac output

c)

During prolonged exercise there is a lower venous return to the heart and a decrease in blood volume due to sweating. Therefore the heart rate decreases to maintain cardiac output

101.

What is cardiac output

a)

Stroke volume x heart rate

b)

the amount of blood that is pumped out of the heart each beat

c)

stroke volume x tidal volume

d)

the amount of blood that the heart can hold

102.

An athlete’s resting heart rate is 60 bpm and stroke volume is 70 ml. What is the cardiac output of the athlete?

a)

1300 ml min–1

b)

4200 ml min–1

c)

130 ml min–1

d)

420 ml min–1

103.

Which are the units when measuring an athlete’s blood pressure?

a)

ml kg–1 min–1

b)

L min–1

c)

ml min–1

d)

mmHg

104.

Where does blood exert the force measured as systolic blood pressure?

a)

On the arterial walls during ventricular relaxation

b)

On the venous walls during ventricular contraction

c)

On the arterial walls during ventricular contraction

d)

On the venous walls during ventricular relaxation

105.

What is transported in the pulmonary artery?

a)

Oxygenated blood to working muscles

b)

Deoxygenated blood to working muscles

c)

Deoxygenated blood to the lungs

d)

Oxygenated blood to the lungs

106.

What does diastolic blood pressure measure?

a)

The force exerted by blood on arterial walls during ventricular contraction

b)

The force exerted by blood on venous walls during ventricular relaxation

c)

The force exerted by blood on arterial walls during ventricular relaxation

d)

The force exerted by blood on venous walls during ventricular contraction

107.

How does the heart meet the demand for oxygenated blood during physical activity?

a)

Increasing cardiac output, decreasing stroke volume, increasing heart rate

b)

Decreasing cardiac output, decreasing stroke volume, decreasing heart rate

c)

Increasing cardiac output, increasing stroke volume, increasing heart rate

d)

Decreasing cardiac output, increasing stroke volume, increasing heart rate

108.

What happens to someones blood pressure during dynamic exercise

a)

Systolic blood pressure increases and diastolic blood pressure remains constant

b)

Systolic blood pressure decreases and diastolic blood pressure increases

c)

both systolic and diastolic blood pressure increase proportionally with exercise intensity

d)

blood pressure remains unchanged

109.

Which demonstrates how blood is redistributed to the working muscles during exercise? (select 2)

a)

blood is redirected towards the muscles

b)

blood is redirected away from the skin

c)

blood is redirected towards the intestines

d)

blood is redirected away from the kidneys

e)

blood is redirected away from the brain

110.

What is an adaptation of endurance exercise training?

a)

increased HR

b)

decrease in SV

c)

Decrease in arterio-venous oxygen difference

d)

increase in capillarisation around skeletal muscles

111.

Which of the following is correct for an athlete who is exercising at a steady pace on flat terrain for a prolonged period of time?

a)

Stroke volume gradually decreases and submaximal heart rate gradually increases

b)

Cardiac output gradually decreases as they get used to the exercise load

c)

Stroke volume and submaximal heart rate gradually decrease

d)

Stroke volume and submaximal heart rate gradually increase

112.

Which defines maximal oxygen consumption?

a)

Maximum volume of oxygen inhaled and used per minute

b)

Maximum volume of air exhaled after a maximum inhalation

c)

Maximum volume of oxygenated blood ejected per minute

d)

Maximum volume of oxygen breathed in or out per breath

113.

Which statement is false for the average population

a)

Trained athletes usually have a higher VO2max than untrained individuals

b)

Elderly usually have a lower VO2max than young adults

c)

Women usually have a higher VO2max than men

d)

People with more muscle have a higher VO2max

114.

What happens to blood pressure during submaximal excercise?

a)

Systolic increases, Diastolic has no change

b)

Systolic increases, Diastolic increases

c)

Systolic has no change, Diastolic increases

d)

Systolic increases, Diastolic decreases

115.

When we think about differences in athletes, who would a have a lower resting heart rate?

a)

A long distance runner

b)

A football player

c)

A fútbol player

d)

Your mom

116.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Pectorals
b)
Tricep
c)
Bicep
d)
Quadriceps
117.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Hamstring
b)
Pectorals
c)
Abdominals
d)
Quadriceps
118.
Identify the muscle.
a)
Obliques
b)
Trapezius
c)
Gluteus Maximus
d)
Latissimus Dorsi
119.

Name this muscle.

a)

deltoids

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

gluteus maximus

d)

gastrocnemius

120.
a)
Latissimius Dorsi
b)
Trapezius
c)
Triceps
d)
Erectors
121.

The point where two bones come together is known as a

a)

Ligament

b)

Joint

c)

Tendon

d)

Bursa

122.

Connective tissue responsible for connecting bone to bone:

a)

Cartilage

b)

Tendon

c)

Ligament

d)

Adipose

123.

Connective tissue that functions in securing muscle to bone

a)

Hyaline Cartilage

b)

Adipose

c)

Ligament

d)

Tendon

124.

Joint type with no movement, examples are sutures found in the skull.

a)

Fibrous

b)

Cartilagenous

c)

Synovial

125.

Joint type most important for mobility, also the most commonly occurring joint type.

a)

Fibrous

b)

Cartilagenous

c)

Synovial

126.

Joint type with limited movement, includes joints found in the vertebral column.

a)

Fibrous

b)

Cartilagenous

c)

Synovial

127.

Articular cartilage is show at number

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

128.

Small fluid filled sacs found where two structures rub against each other (seen on the diagram) and found in high stress areas are known as:

a)

Capsules

b)

Bursae

c)

Menisci

d)

Synovial Membranes

129.

Which are components of the axial skeleton?

a)

Ribs, Clavicle, Ilium

b)

Skull, Vertebrae, Sternum

c)

Ribs, Clavicle, Sternum

d)

Skull, Vertebrae, Ilium

130.

Which bones form part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Femur, radius, ribs, patella

b)

Coccyx, humerus, ulna, tibia

c)

Pelvic girdle, clavicle, fibula, carpals

d)

Sternum, phalanges, femur, tarsals

131.

Which are the four types of bones?

a)

Short, periosteum, long, regular

b)

Long, short, irregular, flat

c)

Compact, irregular, flat, long

d)

Flat, short, compact, regular

132.

Which bones are found within the axial skeleton?

a)

clavicle, ilium, skull

b)

ilium, skull, sternum

c)

vertebrate, ribs, ilium

d)

sternum, vertebrate, ribs

133.

Joint type with limited movement, includes joints found in the vertebral column.

a)

Fibrous

b)

Cartilagenous

c)

Synovial

134.
What is the name of the outermost layer of bone?
a)
Compact
b)
Marrow
c)
Spongy
d)
Periosteum 
135.
What are the 3 types of muscles?
a)
Cardiac, smooth and skeletal
b)
Cardiac, skeletal, prime
c)
Flexion, extension, smooth
d)
Skeletal, smooth, stringy
136.
Myofibrils are divided into lengthwise fragments called __________.
a)
Sarcomeres
b)
Epimysium
c)
Endomysium
d)
Perimysium
137.
connective tissue that extends inward from the epimysium separating muscle tissue into fascicles
a)
endomysium
b)
perimysyium
c)
aponeurosis
d)
tendon
138.
What muscle elevates and depresses the scapula?
a)
Serratus Anterior
b)
Latissimus Dorsi
c)
Trapesiuz
d)
Brachioradialis
139.

Select all that apply. In comparison to the metatarsals the humerus...

a)

inferior

b)

proximal

c)

distal

d)

medial

140.

Select all that apply. In comparison to the sternum the scapula...

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

lateral

d)

medial

141.

Connective tissue responsible for connecting bone to muscle:

a)

Cartilage

b)

Tendon

c)

Ligament

d)

Adipose

142.

Connective tissue responsible for cushioning the ends of bones in a joint:

a)

Cartilage

b)

Tendon

c)

Ligament

d)

Adipose

143.

Which one of these options does NOT list different types of synovial joints?

a)

Hinge, Ball & Socket, Condyloid

b)

Pivot, Rotating, Gliding

c)

Pivot, Saddle, Hinge

d)

Gliding, Hinge, Pivot

144.

The ability of muscle to shorten is known as....

a)

Contractility

b)

Extensibility

c)

Elasticity

d)

Hypertrophy

145.

The ability of muscle to return to normal size is known as....

a)

Contractility

b)

Extensibility

c)

Elasticity

d)

Hypertrophy

146.

The wasting of muscle tissue due to injury or disuse is known as...

a)

Atrophy

b)

Hypertrophy

c)

Hypotrophy

d)

Anatrophy

147.
What tissue type is this?
a)
Skeletal muscle
b)
Nervous tissue
c)
Adipose tissue
d)
'Specialised' connective tissue
148.

The tissue which is uninucleated and branched.

a)

Skeletal tissue

b)

Cardiac Tissue

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

Striated muscle

149.

Identify the tissue.

a)

Striated tissue

b)

Cardiac tissue

c)

Smooth tissue

d)

Skeletal tissue

150.

Which letter represents the ulna and cartilage respectively?

a)

E and C

b)

F and D

c)

F and C

d)

E and D

151.

Thick filament and thin filament in muscle respectively is called ...

a)

Actin and Myosin

b)

Myosin and Actin

c)

Myofibril and myofilament

d)

Myofilament and myofibril

152.

The entire muscle is encased by connective tissue called the

a)

sacromere

b)

sarcoplasm

c)

myosin

d)

epimysium

153.

The connective tissue coverings of a skeletal muscle, listed from superficial to deep, are:

a)

endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium

b)

endomysium, epimysium, and perimysium

c)

epimysium, endomysium, and perimysium

d)

epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

154.

Number 4 is pointing to a...

a)

Muscle

b)

Fascile

c)

Muscle Fiber

d)

Myofibril

155.

All muscles have at least two attachment points on the skeletal system. Which of the following is true regarding these attachments?

a)

The origin is the non-moveable attachment point.

b)

The insertion is the non-moveable attachment point.

c)

The origin is typically the inferior attachment point.

d)

The insertion is typically the medial attachment point.