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11k1 quiz

Total questions: 156

Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Radiotherapy is

a)

Irradiation

b)

Contamination

2.

Eating Radioactive material is

a)

Irradiation

b)

Contamination

3.

Sterilizing surgical instruments is

a)

Irradiation

b)

Contamination

4.

Alexander Litvinenko was poisoned when he drank tea containing Polonium-210. He was

a)

Irradiated

b)

Contaminated

5.

Why might irradiation be hazardous?

a)

Irradiated bodies will become radioactive.

b)

Can cause damage to living cells

c)

It kills bacteria and other organisms.

6.

Why might contamination be hazardous?

a)

You could become The Hulk.

b)

Can cause damage to living cells by mutating them.

c)

Can cause damage to living cells by ionising them.

7.

How can people protect themselves from irradiation? (Choose as many as you believe to be correct)

a)

Stand further away from the source.

b)

Wear protective equipment.

c)

Remove contamination.

d)

Reduce the amount of time being irradiated.

8.

How can people protect themselves from contamination? (Choose as many as you believe to be correct)

a)

Stand further away from the source.

b)

Wear protective equipment.

c)

Remove contamination.

d)

Reduce the amount of time being irradiated.

9.

For the last ............. .......... ........... the proportion of gases in the atmosphere has been much the same

a)

200 million years

b)

800 million years

c)

1 billion years

d)

200 billion years

10.

The current proportion of gases is approximately

a)

20% nitrogen, 80% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

b)

80% nitrogen, 20% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

c)

70% nitrogen, 30% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

d)

30% nitrogen, 70% oxygen and small proportions of various other gases.

11.

The early atmosphere of Earth contained gases due to ...

a)

Plant life

b)

Algae

c)

Volcanic activity

d)

Dinosaurs

12.

The Early atmosphere of Earth was similar to that of ................... .... .............. today

a)

Mars and Venus

b)

Neptune and Mercury

c)

Uranus and Mars

d)

Venus and Jupiter

13.

What was the composition of Earth's early atmosphere?

a)

Mostly methane, little to no carbon dioxide

b)

Mostly oxygen, little to no carbon dioxide

c)

Mostly nitrogen, some oxygen

d)

Mostly carbon dioxide, little to no oxygen

14.

True or false. Volcanoes produced carbon dioxide, water vapour, methane and ammonia.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Oceans could only form when............

a)

the boiling point of water changed

b)

the melting point of water changed

c)

the Earth cooled enough

d)

photosynthesis began

16.

The carbon dioxide in the early atmosphere reduced due to it .........

a)

dissolving in oceans

b)

forming carbonates in water

c)

forming sedimentary rocks such as limestone

d)

photosynthesising plants

e)

All of the previous points

17.

Oxygen in the atmosphere increased due to .....

a)

Respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Distillation

d)

Evaporation

18.

Which is the correct equation for photosynthesis?

a)

carbon dioxide + oxygen → glucose + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water→ glucose + oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide + glucose → water + oxygen

19.

How did the evolution of plants change the composition of the atmosphere?

a)

Increase carbon dioxide and decrease oxygen

b)

Decrease carbon dioxide and increase oxygen

20.

Why are greenhouse gases important?

a)

They maintain temperature to support life

b)

They maintain atmospheric pressure to support life

c)

They maintain oxygen concentration to support life

d)

All of the previous answers.

21.

Which of the following are greenhouse gases?

a)

Water vapour, oxygen and methane.

b)

Oxygen, carbon dioxide and methane.

c)

Water vapour, carbon dioxide and oxygen.

d)

Water vapour, carbon dioxide and methane.

22.

As humans, we contribute to global warming by burning fossil fuels and deforestation which releases ..............

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

23.

As humans, we contribute to global warming by over farming cattle and growing rice in paddy fields which releases ..............

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Methane

24.

Greenhouse gases warm up the lower atmosphere by.......

a)

Absorbing infrared radiation

b)

Reflecting infrared radiation into space

c)

Passing radiation of almost all wavelengths down to Earth

25.

Define carbon footprint.

a)

The carbon footprint is the total amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases emitted over a person's lifetime.

b)

The carbon footprint is the total amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases emitted over a company's lifetime.

c)

The carbon footprint is the total amount of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases emitted over the full life cycle of a product, service or event.

26.

What two products are produced in incomplete combustion but not complete combustion?

a)

Water and carbon dioxide

b)

Carbon and carbon monoxide

c)

Water and carbon monoxide

d)

Water and carbon

27.

The element ............... can be found as an impurity in fuels which can contribute to acid rain.

a)

Carbon

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Sulfur

28.

Which of the following are properties of carbon monoxide?

a)

Odourless, colourless and toxic

b)

Odourless, black and toxic

c)

Odourless, colourless and non-toxic

d)

Odourless, black and non-toxic

29.

Sulfur dioxides and nitrogen oxides

a)

Cause respiratory problems

b)

Cause acid rain

c)

Both

30.

Particulates cause ..............

a)

Global warming

b)

Global dimming

c)

Global epidemics

31.

What are the levels of living organisms from smallest to largest?

a)

Tissue - Organ Systems - Cells - Organs - Organism

b)

Cells - Tissue - Organs - Organ Systems - Organisms

c)

Organs - Organ Systems - Organisms - Cells - Tissue

d)

Cells - Tissue - Organisms - Organ Systems - Organs

32.

Which part of the digestive system had a low pH to help the enzymes with low optimum pH level

a)

Mouth

b)

Large Intesine

c)

Small Intestine

d)

Stomach

33.

Which one of these statements about enzymes isn't true.

a)

The active site on the enzyme has a specfic shape to only fit one substrate.

b)

When the temperature around the enzyme is above it's optimum temperature, the enzyme will start to denature.

c)

Enzymes can speed up reactions. Examples can be breaking down molecules, or putting molecules together.

d)

When a enzyme is in a pH that is not in it's optimum pH range, it will die.

e)

Denaturing is when the enzyme, and it's active site, change shape.

34.

Protease breaks down (a)   molecules.

35.

Lipase breaks down (a)   molecules.

36.

Amylase breaks down (a)   molecules.

37.

What does Bile do in digestion?

a)

Protects the cells in the stomach lining from the acid inside it.

b)

Allows the lock and key model of the enzymes to work more efficently.

c)

Creates better conditions for good bacteria to grow in digestive system.

d)

Emulsifise (break down) fats.

38.

Bile is made in the ______ and released from the_____.

a)

Liver, Gall Bladder

b)

Kidneys, Small Intestine

c)

Pancrease, Stomach

d)

Saliva Glands, Mouth

39.

The reagents for testing for the following food; Fats, Sugars, Proteins, Starch

a)

Ethanol, Benedict's, Biuret, Iodine

b)

Benedict's, Biuret, Iodine, Ethanol

c)

Biuret, Iodine, Benedict's, Ethanol

d)

Iodine, Benedict's, Ethanol, Biuret

40.

What are the two different names of heart chambers?

a)

Anodes

b)

Atriums

c)

Lumens

d)

Ventricles

41.

The Valves in the heart and veins prevent ________.

a)

Forward Flow

b)

Cardiac Flow

c)

Lateral Flow

d)

Back Flow

42.

Why do arteries have very thick and elastic walls.

a)

The protect the blood inside.

b)

To prevent coronary heart disease,

c)

So substance like oxygen can't move through the walls.

d)

To withstand the large amount of pressure in the blood they carry.

43.

Capillaries are really thin so substances like oxygen, carbon dioxide and glucose can move in and out of the vessel. How thick are they?

a)

Roughly the same thickness of a hair

b)

One cell thick

c)

1 Micrometres

d)

5 Micrometres

44.

Which of these are not found in blood

a)

Red Blood Cell

b)

White Blood Cell

c)

Bile

d)

Platetes

45.

Cornary heart disease (CHD) is when arteries on the heart become blocked with fatty deposits. What isn't a signifcant factor that increases the chance CHD.

a)

Blood Chloesterol Levels

b)

Genetics

c)

Diet and Exercise

d)

Testerone Levels

46.

What treatment for Coronary Heart Disease does this picture show?

a)

Stent

b)

Statin

c)

Heart Transplant

d)

By-Pass

47.

What part of the heart has been replaced in the picture?

a)

Atrium

b)

Ventricle

c)

Valve

d)

Septum

48.

Algae can photosynthesise.

Complete the word equation for photosynthesis.

water + ______1._________ --------> ________2._______ + oxygen

a)

1 Carbon Dioxide

b)

1 Glucose

c)

2 Carbon Dioxide

d)

2 Glucose

49.

What is the tiny openings that let in the carbon dioxide needed for photosynthesis?

a)

stomata

b)

xylem

c)

phloem

d)

chloroplast

50.
Unlike the cells of eukaryotes, the cells of bacteria do not have
a)
a nucleus
b)
cell walls
c)
flagellum
d)
cells
51.

The goal of mitosis is to

a)

make a new parent cell

b)

make two new daughter cells with the same DNA

c)

make two new daughter cells with different DNA

d)

to grow a larger toe

52.
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
6
53.
The middle part that holds the two chromatids together is called the
a)
Chromatin
b)
Centriole
c)
Centromere
d)
Nucleus
54.
Humans have 46 chromosomes, which means we have _______ of chromosomes.
a)
46 pairs 
b)
23 pairs
c)
20 pairs
d)
56 pairs
55.

What are the names of the two types of WHITE BLOOD CELL we have learnt about:

a)

phagocytes and lymphocytes

b)

lymphocytes and platelets

c)

platelets and phagocytes

d)

phagocytes and plasma

56.

What is on the surface of pathogens that allows white blood cells to detect and recognise them?

a)

antibiotics

b)

antigens

c)

anticlockwise

d)

antihistamine

57.

What are produced by white blood cells to neutralise poisons released by pathogens?

a)

antihystamines

b)

antigens

c)

antitoxins

d)

antibiotics

58.

What is the name of the proteins that are made to fight of pathogens. They can be produced quickly when the pathogen enters the body a second time.

a)

antitoxins

b)

antibiotics

c)

antibodies

d)

anticlockwise

59.

What is the name of the process where white blood cells surround, engulf and digest pathogens?

a)

protein synthesis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

vaccination

d)

phagocytosis

60.

What process is being shown shown in the diagram?

a)

production of antibodies

b)

production of antigens

c)

phagocytosis

d)

production of antitoxins

61.

What process is being shown shown in the diagram?

a)

production of antibodies

b)

production of antigens

c)

phagocytosis

d)

production of antitoxins

62.

What process is being shown shown in the diagram?

a)

production of antibodies

b)

production of antigens

c)

phagocytosis

d)

production of antitoxins

63.

What is it called when a large proportion of the population are immune to a disease?

a)

resistance

b)

herd immunity

c)

immunisation

d)

peer review

64.

Who invented the first vaccination?

a)

Edward Jenner

b)

Alexander Fleming

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Stephen Hawking

65.

What is a vaccine?

a)

when a live pathogen is injected into the body

b)

when a medicine is injected into the body

c)

when a dead or inactive pathogen is injected into the body

d)

when a dead or inactive pathogen put on the skin

66.

What do the white blood cells produce when a vaccine is given?

a)

antibiotics

b)

antitoxins

c)

antibodies

d)

antigens

67.

How does a vaccine prevent getting a disease a second time and increase herd immunity?

4 lines
68.
What is  a communicable disease?
a)
A disease that cannot be spread person to person.
b)
A disease that can be spread from person to person.
69.

Mosquitoes and houseflies are examples of organisms that can spread disease. These types of organisms are refereed to as?

a)

Vectors

b)

Fungi

c)

Pathogens

70.
Athlete's foot is an example of this pathogen
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protozoan
71.

What are two viral diseases that do have a vaccine?

a)

Measles and typhoid

b)

Measles and malaria

c)

Measles and chicken pox

72.

Which of the following is not caused by bacteria.

a)

Cholera

b)

Typhoid

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Malaria

73.
_______ Is any condition that interferes with the proper functioning of the body or mind
a)
disease
b)
infection
c)
pathogen
74.
What pathogen causes influenza (the Flu)
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Protozoa
d)
Fungi
75.

Cocci bacteria are what shape?

a)

rod

b)

sphere

c)

spiral

d)

corkscrew

76.

Bacteriaphages are ...

a)

viruses that infect fungi

b)

bacteria that infect viruses

c)

viruses that infect bacteria

d)

bacteria that duplicate

77.

Transmission of pathogens between animals include ...

a)

direct contact

b)

inoculation (break in the skin)

c)

droplet infection

d)

ingestion

e)

all of the above

78.

Ring rot is caused by ...

a)

bacteria

b)

virus

c)

fungi

d)

Protista

79.

TMV (tobacco mosaic virus) is caused by ....

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

c)

Fungi

80.

Potato blight is caused by ...

a)

fungi

b)

bacteria

c)

fun guy

d)

virus

81.

Tuberculosis is caused by ...

a)

bacteria

b)

virus

c)

fungi

d)

Prostista

82.

Black sigatoka is caused by ...

a)

Protista

b)

bacteria

c)

fungi

d)

virus

83.

Communicable or Infectious Diseases are diseases that do not transfer from one person to another

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Infectious Diseases are also called Communicable Diseases

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Bacteria, Fungi & Virus are pathogens which causes diseases to the host.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

The most common reservoir of pathogens is the human body.

a)

True

b)

False

87.

The links of the chain of infection are cannot be broken

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Coughing and sneezing are direct modes of transmission that causes infection

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Tiredness, slight fever, and runny nose are some of the indications of Illness stage.

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The diseases or infection is still communicable in the recovery stage.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

COVID-19 is caused by the SARS-CoV-2 virus, which spreads between people, mainly when an infected person is in close contact with another person.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Some people can catch COVID-19 when the virus gets into their mouth, nose or eyes, which is more likely to happen when people are in direct or close contact (less than 1 metre apart) with an infected person.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Energy is measured in.....

a)

kilograms

b)

metres per second

c)

Joules

d)

metres

94.

Which energy store is missing? Magnetic, electrostatic, nuclear, gravitational, elastic, thermal, chemical and....

a)

heating

b)

lighting

c)

kinetic

d)

sounding

95.

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only be _________ between the stores

a)

removed

b)

dissipated

c)

transferred

d)

stored

96.

Which of these is NOT a store of energy?

a)

Light

b)

Elastic Potential

c)

Nuclear

d)

Chemical

97.

A ball rolling down a hill is a good example of which energy transfer?

a)

Elastic Potential to KE

b)

Chemical to KE

c)

KE to GPE

d)

GPE to KE

98.

Unit of Spring Constant:

a)

N

b)

N/m

c)

N/m2

d)

m

99.

Using the equation for Gravitational potential energy, mass =

a)

GPE/gh

b)

GPE x gh

c)

gh/GPE

100.

What is the equation linking kinetic energy, mass and velocity?

a)

Energy = mass x velocity2

b)

Energy = mass / velocity

c)

Energy = 0.5 x mass x velocity2

d)

Energy = mass x velocity

101.

What are the units for energy?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

102.

What are the units of mass?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

103.

What are the units for velocity?

a)

mph

b)

m/s

c)

m/s2

d)

km/h

104.

What is the equation linking gravitational field strength, gravitational potential energy and height?

a)

Gravitational field strength = mass x gravitational potential energy x height

b)

Gravitational potential energy = mass x gravitational field strength x height

c)

Height = mass x gravitational field strength

105.

What are the units of gravitational field strength?

a)

Newtons (N)

b)

Kilograms (kg)

c)

Kilograms per newton (kg/N)

d)

Newtons per kilo (N/kg)

106.

What is the equation linking energy transferred, power and time?​

a)

Power = energy x time

b)

Power = energy / time

c)

Energy = time / power

107.

What are the units of work done?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

108.

Food, batteries, fuel and muscles store which energy type?

a)

Elastic potential energy

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Thermal energy

d)

Chemical energy

109.

Which energy store changes as height of an object changes?

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Gravitational potential energy

c)

Elastic potential energy

d)

Sound energy

110.

Which energy store is linked with springs and catapults?

a)

Nuclear energy

b)

Light energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Elastic potential energy

111.

Which two energy stores change depending on the position of an object?

a)

Electrical energy

b)

Elastic potential energy

c)

Gravitational potential energy

d)

Chemical energy

112.

What is the specific heat capacity of a material?

a)

The amount of energy required to heat up a material.

b)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of material.

c)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of a material.

d)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of a material by 1⁰C.

113.

Which equation is used to calculate specific heat capacity?

a)

Change in thermal energy = mass x specific heat capacity x change in temperature

b)

Change in temperature = mass x specific heat capacity x change in thermal energy

c)

Change in thermal energy = mass x specific heat capacity x temperature of a material

114.

Which type of energy is stored in an inflated balloon

a)

Gravitational potential energy

b)

Elastic potential energy

c)

Strain energy

d)

Chemical energy

115.

When measuring the specific heat capacity of a metal block, how can we increase the accuracy of our results?

a)

Insulate the metal block

b)

Add water to the hole with the thermometer

c)

Place the metal block on a heat proof mat

d)

All of the above

116.

Change in thermal energy = mass x specific heat capacity x change in temperature


Calculate the energy transferred to a metal block that has a specific heat capacity of 380J/kg⁰C, has a temperature change of 15⁰C and a mass of 2.7kg

a)

68.4J

b)

68,400J

c)

15,390J

d)

15.39J

117.

What is the definition of efficiency?

a)

A measure of how much energy is wasted by an appliance

b)

A measure of how quickly energy is transferred to an appliance

c)

A measure of the energy transferred usefully to an appliance

d)

A measure of the energy given off to the surroundings by an appliance

118.

What is the equation used to calculate efficiency?

a)

Efficiency = total energy input / total energy output

b)

Efficiency = useful energy output / total energy input

c)

Efficiency = useful energy input / useful energy output

d)

Efficiency = total energy input / useful energy output

119.

Which of the following can also be used to calculate efficiency?

a)

Current

b)

Voltage

c)

Mass

d)

Power

120.

Which key term is used to describe energy being spread out or wasted?

a)

Efficient

b)

Deficient

c)

Dissipate

d)

Elevate

121.

What term is used to describe a method for reducing unwanted energy transfers by reducing friction?

a)

Insulation

b)

Titration

c)

Lubrication

d)

Dissipation

122.

What is a thermal insulator?

a)

A non-conductive material

b)

A conductive material

123.

What is the name of the method of reducing unwanted energy transfers by the use of non-conductive materials?

a)

Insulation

b)

Titration

c)

Lubrication

d)

Dissipation

124.

What is the law of conservation of energy?

a)

Energy is created and transferred

b)

Energy is created and stored

c)

Energy is stored and destroyed

d)

Energy is stored and transferred

125.

How does thermal conductivity of a material affect the rate of conduction across that material?

a)

The higher the conductivity, the faster the rate of conduction

b)

The higher the conductivity, the slower the rate of conduction

c)

The lower the conductivity the faster the rate of conduction

126.

What are the units of power?

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Watts (W)

c)

Kilograms (kg)

d)

Newtons (N)

127.

What is the definition of power?

a)

How much electricity passes through an appliance

b)

The amount of energy wasted by an appliance

c)

The rate of energy transfer or the rate of doing work

d)

The rate of electron transfer

128.

What is the equation linking power, time and work done?​

a)

Power = work done / time

b)

Power = work done x time

c)

Work done = power / time

129.

Which energy transfers relate to a vehicle accelerating?

a)

Increase chemical, increase elastic, increase sound

b)

Decrease chemical, decrease KE, increase thermal

c)

Decrease chemical, increase KE, increase thermal

130.

Which energy transfers relate to a vehicle decelerating?

a)

Increase chemical, increase elastic, increase sound

b)

Decrease chemical, decrease KE, increase thermal

c)

Decrease chemical, increase KE, increase thermal

131.

When investigating insulation properties of different materials the independent variable is:

a)

Type of material

b)

Temperature of water

c)

Volume of water

d)

Number of layers of material

132.

Why do we use a digital stop clock to measure time?

a)

To reduce random error

b)

To increase repeatability

c)

To reduce direct proportion

133.

The digital stop clock measures to 1/100th of a second, a regular clock can only measure to the nearest 1 second. Which feature is better on the stop clock?

a)

Repeatability

b)

Resolution

c)

Dissipation

d)

Insulation

134.

The digital stop clock measures to 1/100th of a second, a regular clock can only measure to the nearest 1 second. Does the stop clock have a higher or lower resolution?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

135.

Adding more layers of material to the beaker reduces which feature?

a)

Thermal energy

b)

Thermal insulation

c)

Thermal conductivity

d)

Thermal temperature

136.
What is an object or group of objects?
a)
systematic
b)
system
c)
suspect
d)
suspicious 
137.
What is an energy transfer?
a)
Dancing 
b)
Movement of energy
c)
Movement of energy from one store to another
d)
something moving
138.
What is a store of energy in an object due to chemical reactions in it?
a)
gravitational store of energy 
b)
chemical store of energy
c)
gravitational potential energy
d)
chemicals
139.
Heating is....
a)
the movement of energy from a colder object to a hotter object
b)
the movement of energy from a hotter object to a colder object
140.

What is the Equation for Kinetic Energy?

a)

Kinetic Energy = 0.5 x Mass x Speed²

b)

Kinetic Energy = 0.5 x Mass² x Speed

c)

Kinetic Energy = 0.5 x Mass² / Speed

141.

The formula for calculating kinetic energy (Ek) is...

a)

2 x speed x mass2

b)

1/2 x speed x mass2

c)

2 x mass x speed

d)

1/2 x mass x velocity2

142.
In the equation for kinetic energy, 'm' stands for...
a)
metres
b)
miles
c)
mass
d)
millimetres
143.

What is the formula for elastic potential energy?

a)

Ee=1/2ke2

b)

Ep=1/2ke2

c)

Ee=2ke2

d)

Ep=2ke2

144.

substance that increases reaction rate by lowering the activation energy of a reaction

a)

catalyst

b)

molecule

c)

endothermic

d)

synthesis reaction

145.

a reaction in which a single compound breaks down to form two or more simpler substances

a)

decomposition reaction

b)

molecule

c)

double replacement reaction

d)

catalyst

146.

a change to a substance that happens without forming a new substance

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

c)

double replacement reaction

d)

combustion

147.

A number in a chemical formula that tells the number of atoms in a molecule or the ratio of elements in a compound.

a)

coefficient

b)

molecule

c)

subscript

d)

reciprocal

148.

Type of chemical reaction in which one element replaces another element in a compound. In this type of reaction an element and a compound react and form a different element and a different compound.

a)

combustion reaction

b)

double replacement reaction

c)

single replacement reaction

d)

sythesis reaction

149.

a reaction in which the negative ions in 2 compounds switch places, forming 2 new compounds. (In this type of reaction two compounds react and form two new compounds.)

a)

single replacement reaction

b)

combustion reaction

c)

synthesis reaction

d)

double replacement reaction

150.

more energy is required to break the bonds of the reactants than is released when the products form, so energy must be absorbed.

a)

exothermic reaction

b)

endothermic reaction

c)

synthesis reaction

d)

decomposition reaction

151.

more energy is released when the products form than is required to break the bonds in the reactants. The overall reaction releases energy.

a)

endothermic reaction

b)

exothermic reaction

c)

decomposition reaction

d)

synthesis reaction

152.

the minimum amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction

a)

catalyst

b)

enzyme

c)

activation energy

d)

inhibitor

153.

a change that alters the identity of a substance resulting in a new substance or substances with different properties.

a)

physical change

b)

chemical change

c)

activation energy

d)

catalyst

154.

The total mass of the reactants before a chemical reaction is the same as the total mass of the products after the reaction, because matter cannot be created or destroyed

a)

Law of Conservation of Mass

b)

Law of Gravity

c)

Newton's First Law

d)

Chemical formula

155.

A number placed in front of an element symbol or chemical formula in an equation. It tells how many of that molecule are needed.

a)

Subscript

b)

Coefficient

c)

Inhibitor

d)

Catalyst

156.

starting substances in a chemical reaction (left side of arrow)

a)

products

b)

coefficients

c)

reactants

d)

enzymes

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