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Science 10 Final Exam Review

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 3hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select all organelles are involved in protein synthesis.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

e)

Golgi Apparatus

2.

Select all organelles involved in the secretory pathway

a)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

b)

Vesicle

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Cell Membrane

e)

Lysosomes

3.

What is the function of the mitochondria?

a)

Site of cellular respiration

b)

Converts glucose to ATP

c)

None of the above

d)

All of the above

4.

What organelle receives material from the ER for repacking and distribution?

(a)  

5.

Which organelle acts as the site for protein synthesis?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Nucleus

6.

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in (a)   synthesis.

7.

Which organelle is where photosynthesis occurs?

(a)  

8.

What is the name of the material suspending all organelles inside a cell?

(a)  

9.

What is the function of vesicles?

a)

Breaking down food in the cell

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Lipid synthesis

d)

Transport of materials through the cell

10.

True or False. DNA is found in the nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Select all of the organelles unique to plant cells

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Chloroplasts

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cell wall

12.

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a)

Protection

b)

It allows materials into the cell

c)

It allows materials out of the cell

d)

All are correct

13.

What is the name of the organelle responsible for protein synthesis?

(a)  

14.

Cholesterol is important in cell membranes for regulation of fluidity.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

The head of a phospholipid molecules is

a)

a phosphate

b)

a lipid

c)

hydrophobic

d)

hydrophilic

16.

Diffusion of water is known as

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

endocytosis

d)

exocytosis

17.

The cell membrane is also called a

a)

mosaic

b)

patchwork quilt

c)

phospholipid bilayer

d)

cell shield

18.

A protein embedded in the cell membrane is called a/an

a)

phospholipid bilayer

b)

peripheral protein

c)

integral protein

d)

cholesterol

19.

The movement of small particles from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration is known as (a)   .

20.

(a)   describes the movement of a substance across a cell membrane against its concentration gradient. This process requires ATP.

21.

The tail of a phospholipid molecule is

a)

hydrophilic

b)

hydrophobic

c)

amphoteric

d)

amphipathic

22.

A cell is (a)   to its environment if the concentration of the solute in the cell is equal to the concentration of the solute outside the cell.

23.

The cell structure that controls which substances can enter or leave the cell is the

a)

cell wall

b)

cholesterol

c)

cell membrane

d)

integral protein

24.

Type of active transport where the cell membrane forms a sac around a macromolecule.

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

endocytosis

25.

If a cell is hypertonic to its environment, the cell will likely

a)

shrivel up

b)

swell (and may burst)

c)

stay the same size

26.

Peripheral protein with a carbohydrate attached that is involved in cell recognition and identification.

a)

glycoprotein

b)

channel protein

c)

cholesterol

d)

phospholipid

27.

Type of passive transport where channel proteins in the cell membrane help move molecules.

a)

passive transport

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

diffusion

d)

osmosis

28.

Which organelle controls what goes in and out of the cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

nucleolus

c)

cell membrane

d)

nuclear membrane

29.

Which organelle digests dead cell parts and contains ensymes?

a)

lysosome

b)

Golgi apparatus

c)

smooth ER

d)

rough ER

30.

The jelly-like material inside the cell is called the

a)

cytoplasm

b)

lysosome

c)

granum

d)

ribosome

31.

Which organelle contains DNA and controls the cell?

a)

cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

nucleolus

d)

lysosome

32.

This organelle makes useable energy for the cell.

a)

vesicle

b)

mitochondrion

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleolus

33.

Which organelle is found only in plant cells?

a)

cytoplasm

b)

large central vacuole

c)

centriole

d)

ribosome

34.

Which TWO organelles are involved in the making of a protein?

a)

ribosome

b)

lysosome

c)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

d)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

35.

What organelle is represented by this image?

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

36.

What function does this organelle carry out in the cell?

a)

detoxification

b)

packaging materials for release from the cell

c)

breaking down old cellular components

d)

storing genetic material

37.

What is the function of this organelle?

a)

modify and build proteins

b)

break down proteins

c)

make lipids for the membrane

d)

store extra material, like water and food

38.

Which of the images below represents the cell membrane?

a)
b)
c)
d)
39.

Which organelle is this?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Chloroplast

40.

Betsy calculated the field of view to be 400 μm. What is the estimated width of the organisms body?

a)

500 μm

b)

400 μm

c)

200 μm

d)

100 μm

41.
The ________ of the microscope would show you the SMALLEST field of view.
a)
low power objective
b)
medium power objective
c)
high power objective
d)
ocular
42.

Bob calculated the field of view with an objective of 10x to be 2,000 μm. What would the estimated size of Green Goblin bacteria be when the objective was at 100x?

a)

200 μm

b)

50 μm

c)

100 μm

d)

1,000 μm

43.

Here are the settings on a microscope:

Low Power Objective Lens: 4x

Medium Power Objective Lens: 20x

This image shows the field of view under low power with each bar representing the mm line on a ruler.

Calculate the field of view that would appear on medium power.

a)

800 μm

b)

600 μm

c)

900 μm

d)

400 μm

44.

The part of the plants responsible for transporting water is called the

a)

xylem

b)

phloem

c)

bundle sheath

d)

chloroplast

45.

The function of palisade mesophyll is

a)

gas exchange

b)

protection

c)

photosynthesis

d)

structure

46.

The response of a plant to stimulus is called

a)

photosynthesis

b)

xylem

c)

tropism

d)

phloem

47.

The movements in a plant in response to light

a)

phototropism

b)

geotropism

c)

hydrotropism

d)

thigmotropism

48.

The growth of a plant toward its light source demonstrates

a)

positive thigmotropism

b)

positive thigmotropism

c)

negative phototropism

d)

positive phototropism

49.

When a seed germinates, the roots will grow downwards in the soil. This is an example of

a)

positive thigmotropism

b)

negative hydrotropism

c)

positive gravitropism

d)

negative phototropism

50.

Which of the following is an example of a negative tropism?

a)

a plant is leaning toward the window

b)

vines are growing around a fence post

c)

a seed sprouts and the shoot from the seed grows away from the earth

d)

a seed sprout and the shoot from the seed grows toward the sunshine

51.

What environmental triggers change the direction of plant growth

a)

Light

b)

Gravity

c)

Water

d)

Touch

e)

All

52.

What term describes the responses made by plants to environmental stimuli?

(a)  

53.

Identify the hormone that controls growth near the tips of shoots and roots

a)

gibberellin

b)

auxin

c)

ethene

d)

thyroxine

54.

What term describes plant growth in response to gravity?

(a)  

55.

Which part of the plant shows negative gravitropism?

a)

The roots

b)

The leaves and stem

56.

What is the function of a cuticle?

a)

Water Transport

b)

Sugar Transport

c)

Reduce Water Loss

d)

Increase Water Loss

57.

List the names for the structures A-G. You can do this!

4 lines
58.

Check off any characteristics that describe the xylem.

a)

Carries sugar

b)

Carries water and minerals

c)

Direction of transport is roots-to-leaves.

d)

Direction of transport is leaves-to-whole plant

59.

Check off any characteristics that describe the phloem

a)

Carries sugars

b)

Carries water and minerals

c)

Direction of transport is root-to-leaves

d)

Direction of transport is leaves-to-whole plant

60.

What are the levels of organization in plants?

a)

Plants have cells, but not tissues.

b)

Plants are made up of cells, tissues, organs, and organ systems

c)

Plants contain cells and tissues, but not organs.

61.

What is the vascular tissue that carries water throughout a plant?

a)

phloem

b)

seedling

c)

xylem

62.

_____________________ is a vascular tissue that carries sugars and other foods throughout a plant.

a)

stems

b)

phloem

c)

roots

d)

xylem

63.

Which of the following tissues whose role is to protect and cover the plant?

a)

Dermal tissue

b)

Epidurial tissue

c)

Ground tissue

d)

Vascular tissue

64.

Two main systems of a plant are the _________

a)

fruits and stems

b)

leaves and flowers

c)

roots and shoots

65.

Select all of the following conditions that would result in plant water loss.

a)

High Temperatures

b)

Low Temperatures

c)

Light

d)

No Light

66.

The cell responsible for opening and closing the stomata are called (a)   cells.

67.

Which mesophyll layer can be described as "column-shaped?"

a)

Palisade

b)

Spongy

68.

The openings which allow for gas exchange are called (a)   .

69.

The attraction of water molecules to the walls of xylem is known as _______________

a)

adhesion

b)

cohesion

c)

diffusion

d)

osmosis

70.

__________________ can push water up to a max height of 1m in plants

a)

Guttation

b)

Transpiration

c)

Osmosis

d)

Root pressure

71.

Transpiration is________________

a)

water moving from an area of high water concentration to an area of low water concentration through a semi permeable membrane

b)

water being moved with the use of energy

c)

the loss of water from the surface of leaves

72.

The force of attraction between the molecules of water is called (a)   .

73.

In which order does water pass through these structures in a plant?

a)

A mesophyll → root hair → xylem

b)

B mesophyll → xylem → root hair

c)

C root hair → mesophyll → xylem

d)

D root hair → xylem → mesophyll

74.

Which graph shows most clearly what will happen to the rate of transpiration as humidity increases?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

75.

Select the option below that is a vector quantity.

a)

time

b)

distance

c)

speed

d)

velocity

76.

The difference between a scalar and vector quantity is

a)

a scalar requires direction but a vector does not

b)

a vector requires direction but a scalar does not

77.

Acceleration due to gravity is always

a)

10 ms210\ \frac{m}{s^2} [down]

b)

10 ms210\ \frac{m}{s^2} [up]

c)

9 ms29\ \frac{m}{s^2} [down]

d)

9.81 ms29.81\ \frac{m}{s^2} [down]

78.

Kinetic energy can be defined as energy due to (a)   .

79.

Gravitational potential energy is (a)   energy due to relative position to Earth.

80.

Three position-time graphs are shown. Which graph shows uniform motion?

a)

left (horizontal line)

b)

middle (oblique line)

c)

right (curved line)

81.

Three position-time graphs are shown. Which graph shows non-uniform motion?

a)

left (horizontal line)

b)

middle (oblique line)

c)

right (curved line)

82.

Three position-time graphs are shown. Which graph shows no motion?

a)

left (horizontal line)

b)

middle (oblique line)

c)

right (curved line)

83.

Three velocity-time graphs are shown. How many of the graphs show acceleration?

a)

none

b)

one

c)

two

d)

three

84.

Three velocity-time graphs are shown. How many of the graphs show uniform motion?

a)

none

b)

one

c)

two

d)

three

85.

Three velocity-time graphs are shown. Which graph displays positive acceleration?

a)

left (horizontal line)

b)

middle (oblique line rising right)

c)

right (oblique line falling right)

86.

Three velocity-time graphs are shown. Which graph shows slowing down?

a)

left (horizontal line)

b)

middle (oblique line rising right)

c)

right (oblique line falling right)

87.

Uniform motion is defined as constant (a)   and constant direction.

88.

A 44.0 g stone is dropped from a bridge that is 11.20 m above a river.

What is the gravitational potential energy of the stone before it is dropped?

a)

48.3 J

b)

4834 J

c)

4.83 J

d)

483 J

89.

A 44.0 g stone is dropped from a bridge that is 11.20 m above a river.

What is the speed of the stone when it hits the water?

a)

148 m/s

b)

14.8 m/s

c)

1.48 m/s

d)

unsolvable

90.

A car accelerates from rest to 16.7 m/s [W] in 9.33 seconds. What is the acceleration of the car?

a)

1.79 ms2[W]1.79\ \frac{m}{s^2}\left[W\right]

b)

1.56×102 ms2[W]1.56\times10^2\ \frac{m}{s^2}\left[W\right]

c)

1.79 ms2[E]1.79\ \frac{m}{s^2}\left[E\right]

91.

If an object is traveling 14.5 m/s, how far will the object travel in 12.0 s?

a)

26.5 m

b)

1.21 m

c)

0.828 m

d)

174 m

92.

Identify the section(s) of the graph that display uniform motion. Record your response by typing the letter(s) of the section(s) in alphabetical order. Do not use spaces between the letters.

(a)  

93.

Identify the section(s) of the graph that display non-uniform motion. Record your response by typing the letter(s) of the section(s) in alphabetical order. Do not use spaces between the letters.

(a)  

94.

Identify the section(s) of the graph that display positive acceleration. Record your response by typing the letter(s) of the section(s) in alphabetical order. Do not use spaces between the letters.

(a)  

95.

Identify the section(s) of the graph that display negative acceleration. Record your response by typing the letter(s) of the section(s) in alphabetical order. Do not use spaces between the letters.

(a)  

96.

Identify the section(s) of the graph that display motion North of the starting position. Record your response by typing the letter(s) of the section(s) in alphabetical order. Do not use spaces between the letters.

(a)  

97.

A 68 kg human climbs 18.0 m to the top of a waterslide. The human goes down the waterslide. At the bottom of the slide, the human has a speed of 11.0 m/s. The efficiency of the waterslide in converting gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy is (a)   .

98.

What is the kinetic energy of a 5.2 kg bowling ball travelling at a speed of 2.87 m/s?

(a)  

99.

Flashlights are beginning to use LEDs to convert electrical energy to light energy. The efficiency of this process is approximately 90%. If the flashlight battery produces 15.3 J of energy (input), how much energy does the flashlight use (output)?

(a)  

100.

The figure shows the distance-time graph of a bus.

Which of the following is the best description of the speed of the bus?

a)

The bus travels at a constant speed (for 15 minutes) then stops (10 minutes)

b)

The bus has come to a complete stop for 10 minutes.

c)

The bus acceleration has been increasing.

d)

The bus was traveling at a constant velocity.

101.

A kettle uses 100 J of electrical energy to produce 7 J of sound energy and 93 J of thermal energy. What is the efficiency of the kettle?

a)

100%

b)

93%

c)

7%

d)

95%

102.

Assuming speed is constant, which of the following correctly describes how the mass of a moving object affects its kinetic energy?

a)

  If the mass of the object doubles, its kinetic energy will halve.

b)

If the mass of the object doubles, its kinetic energy will double.

c)

If the mass of the object halves, its kinetic energy will double

d)

  The mass of the object has no effect on its kinetic energy.

103.

A ball with a mass of 0.50 kg hits a house wall with a velocity of 10 m/s. Calculate the kinetic energy the ball has as it hits the wall.

a)

2.5 J

b)

5.0 J

c)

25 J

d)

50 J

104.

Which of the following has a greater gravitational potential energy?

A. a bag of salt that weighs 8 kg and is stored 5 meters above the ground

B. a bag of salt that weighs 4 kg and is stored 0.7 meters above the ground

a)

A

b)

B

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

105.

True or false? In naming ionic compounds,

the cation is always named first and the anion

second.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

The correct name for LiCl is _______.

a)

lithium monochloride

b)

lithium(I) chloride

c)

monolithium chloride

d)

lithium chloride

e)

monolithium monochloride

107.

The correct name for FeO is _____.

a)

iron oxide

b)

iron (II) oxide

c)

iron (III) oxide

d)

iron (IV) oxide

e)

iron (I) oxide

108.

The charge on a lithium ion in its ionic

compound is _____.

a)

+1

b)

+2

c)

+3

d)

-1

e)

Varies

109.

Which of the following is not the correct

combination of compound name and its formula?

a)

calcium sulfate; CaSO4

b)

beryllium oxide; BeO

c)

nickel(II) oxide; Ni2O

d)

ammonium chromate; (NH4)2CrO4

110.

Which of the following formulas is

incorrect?

a)

CaNO3

b)

MgS

c)

AlBr3

d)

Li2O

e)

NaOH

111.

Titanium(IV) oxide has the formula

a)

Ti4O

b)

TiO4

c)

Ti(IV)O

d)

TiO2

e)

Ti4O2

112.

The correct name for P2O5 is

a)

phosphorus(II) oxide

b)

phosphorus(V) oxide

c)

diphosphorus oxide

d)

diphosphorus pentoxide

e)

phosphorus pentoxide

113.

The correct name for Li2CO3 is __________.

a)

lithium (II) carbonate

b)

dilithium carbon trioxide

c)

lithium carbonate

114.

The carbonate ion has the formula CO32–.

Which of the following is the correct formula

for sodium carbonate?

a)

Na(CO3)2

b)

Na2(CO3)2

c)

Na2CO3

d)

Na3(CO)2

e)

NaCO3

115.

The substance ClO3– is best described as

a)

a molecule

b)

a polyatomic ion

c)

a polyatomic molecule

d)

a mixture

116.

The name for Al(OH)3 is

a)

aluminum(III) hydroxide

b)

aluminum trihydroxide

c)

aluminum hydroxide

d)

monaluminum trihydroxide

e)

aluminum(I) hydroxide

117.

Identify ONE piece of evidence for a chemical change.

(a)  

118.

Angela mixed 2 clear and colourless solutions together in a beaker. The beaker becomes hot and the solution becomes cloudy. What inference can you make from this information?

(a)  

119.

An ionic compound contains

a)

a metal

b)

only non-metals

c)

ions

120.

An element is defined by its atomic number, which indicates the number of ________ present in the element.

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

d)

protons & neutrons

121.

Which information below is incorrect?

a)

Ionic compounds have relatively high melting points and molecular compounds have relatively low melting points.

b)

Ionic compounds are malleable and molecular compounds are brittle.

c)

Ionic compounds high have lustre and molecular compounds have low lustre.

d)

Ionic compounds are solids are room temperature and molecular compounds can be solid, liquid or gas at room temperature.

122.

A shiny, white solid that dissolves in water and is conductive in solution would best be described as a/an

a)

ionic compound

b)

element

c)

molecular compound

d)

base

123.

What is a precipitate?

a)

a solid formed from the reaction of two aqueous solutions

b)

a gas formed from the reaction of two aqueous solutions

c)

a change in colour

d)

a change in temperature

124.

What type of reaction occurs when two substances react to produce a single substance?

a)

single replacement

b)

double replacement

c)

combustion

d)

formation

125.

Choose the statement below that is correct.

a)

Coefficients are whole numbers to the left of a chemical formula that are used to balance the reaction equation.

b)

Coefficients are any number used to balance a reaction equation.

c)

Coefficients are subscripts in a chemical formula that are used to communicate a neutral compound.

126.

Select the reaction equation below that is balanced.

a)

2Na + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H22Na\ +\ 2H_2O\ \rightarrow\ 2NaOH\ +\ H_2

b)

2SO2 + H2O → H2SO42SO_2\ +\ H_2O\ \rightarrow\ H_2SO_4

c)

PbO2 + 2H2 → 2Pb + H2OPbO_2\ +\ 2H_2\ \rightarrow\ 2Pb\ +\ H_2O

127.

Mg + Cl2 → MgCl2Mg\ +\ Cl_2\ \rightarrow\ MgCl_2

The coefficients required to balance the reaction equation above are:

a)

1 1 1

b)

1 1 2

c)

1 2 1

d)

2 1 1

e)

2 1 2

128.

B2H6 + O2 → HBO2 + H2OB_2H_6\ +\ O_2\ \rightarrow\ HBO_2\ +\ H_2O

The reaction above is not balanced. When balanced, the coefficient in from of oxygen is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

129.

CH4+O2→CH_4+O_2\rightarrow

The reactants shown would participate in a _______ reaction and the product(s) would be ________.

a)

single replacement; CO2 + H

b)

single replacement; H2O + C

c)

hydrocarbon combustion; CO2 + H2O

130.

NaBr+Cs→NaBr+Cs\rightarrow

The reactants shown would participate in a _______ reaction and the product(s) would be ________.

a)

single replacement; NaCs + Br

b)

single replacement; Na + CsBr

c)

formation; NaBrCs

131.

FeO+HCl→FeO+HCl\rightarrow

The reactants shown would participate in a _______ reaction and the product(s) would be ________.

a)

double replacement; HFe + ClO

b)

double replacement; FeCl2 + HO

c)

double replacement; FeCl3 + HO

d)

double replacement; FeCl2 + H2O

132.

Which of the following compounds is insoluble in solution?

a)

lithium sulfide

b)

potassium nitrate

c)

sodium chloride

d)

calcium carbonate

133.

Silver in insoluble with each of the following anions except

a)

acetate

b)

sulfate

c)

bromide

d)

fluoride

134.

In a neutral atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of electrons. In a cation, the number of protons is _____ the number of electrons because _____.

a)

greater than; the cation gained protons

b)

less than; the cation lost protons

c)

greater than; the cation lost electrons

d)

less than; the cation lost electrons

135.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
136.
Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be made from this graph?
a)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been decreasing since 1960
b)
Hawaii has a lot of carbon dioxide
c)
humans have been working hard to decrease carbon dioxide levels
d)
atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have increased steadily since 1960
137.

The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is

a)

using public transportation and there by reduce the affects of greenhouse gases.

b)

burning fossil fuels

c)

texting on cellphones

d)

eating meat

138.
What is the greenhouse effect?
a)
The warming of a planet due to trapped radiation.
b)
The cooling of Earth due to air pollution.
c)
The heating of a solid, such as a rock.
139.
Which of the following are greenhouse gases?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Methane
c)
Water vapor
d)
All answers are correct
140.

The greenhouse effect is a natural process

a)

true

b)

false

141.
Which of the following add carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?
a)
volcanoes
b)
combustion of fossil fuels
c)
animal and plant respiration
d)
all of these
142.
Carbon is stored in
a)
Trees and other living things
b)
Oceans
c)
underground in soil and fossil fuels
d)
All are correct
143.
Currently, about 10% of Earth is covered with ice year-round. If this ice melts, what could happen to Earth’s temperature?
a)
Increase
b)
Decrease
c)
Remain the Same
d)
Not enough information 
144.
True or False: All of the radiation from the Sun is absorbed by the Earth
a)
True
b)
False
145.
Melting of glaciers and polar ice caps....
a)
will result in cooler temperatures in the Arctic
b)
will result in sea-levels rising
c)
Will have no effect on ecosystems
d)
None of the above
146.
It was hot all week last week.  Is this a sign of climate change?
a)
Yes
b)
No
147.

The graph shown shoes CO2 emissions and temperatures from 1909 to 1949. Which conclusion is best supported by the graph?

a)

There is no relationship between carbon dioxide concentrations and temperatures

b)

As carbon dioxide concentrations increase, temperature decreases

c)

As carbon dioxide concentrations increase, temperature increases

d)

As carbon dioxide concentrations decrease, temperature increases

148.

What term is used for long-term averages of weather conditions?

a)

Climate

b)

Weather

c)

Temperature

d)

Ozone

149.

True or False:

Plants and trees absorb more energy and heat than clouds and ice?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

150.

The specific heat capacity of water is

a)

relatively high

b)

relatively low

c)

about the same as most other substances

151.

Deflection of hot and cold air masses is a result of the (a)   .

152.

Which of the following affects insolation of an area?

a)

angle of incidence

b)

latitude

c)

angle of inclination

d)

longitude

153.

Specific heat capacity is a measure of

a)

thermal energy

b)

the amount of energy required to heat any substance

c)

the amount of energy required to heat a specific substance

d)

the amount of energy required to heat 1 gram of a specific substance by 1 degree Celsius

154.

Which of the following best describes convection currents?

a)

The transfer of heat through direct contact between particles in a solid.

b)

The movement of charged particles within a magnetic field.

c)

The circular motion of fluids caused by temperature difference, leading to heat transfer.

d)

The transmission of energy in the form of electromagnetic waves.

155.

How does albedo affect Earth's climate?

a)

Albedo has no impact on climate; it is solely related to the reflection of visible light.

b)

Higher albedo leads to increased absorption of solar radiation, contributing to global warming.

c)

Lower albedo results in greater absorption of solar energy, contributing to warming of the Earth's surface.

d)

Albedo only affects the intensity of precipitation, not overall temperature changes.

156.

Choose the statement below that is most correct.

a)

Jet streams are responsible for high-altitude airplane travel.

b)

Jet streams act as barriers that prevent the mixing of air masses, leading to stable climate conditions.

c)

Jet streams play a crucial role in redistributing heat and moisture around the Earth, influencing weather patterns and climate.

d)

Jet streams affect local weather patterns but have minimal influence on broader climate patterns.

157.

How does the length of daylight influence regional climates?

a)

Longer daylight hours always result in warmer climates due to increased solar radiation.

b)

Daylight length has no significant impact on climate; it is solely determined by geographic location.

c)

Shorter daylight hours contribute to cooler climates as they reduce overall solar energy input.

d)

Daylight length only affects temperature in equatorial regions and has no impact elsewhere.

158.

(a)   is the measure of the ability of a surface to reflect solar radiation.

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