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Epilepsy Quiz Dec 25'

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the generic name for Fycompa?

a)

Eslicarbazepine

b)

Fenfluramine

c)

Perampanel

d)

Phenytoin

e)

Cenobamate

2.

Who dat?

a)

Benbadis

b)

Van Loveren

c)

Bezchlibnyk

d)

Tim Lewis

3.

The US headquarters of LivaNova is in which city?

(a)  

4.

A patient with VNS can have a cervical spine (neck) MRI.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

(Video 1) What is shaking?

a)

Seizure

b)

Hemifacial spasm

c)

Tic

d)

Psychogenic event

e)

Fasciculations

6.

Which is not a side effect during vagus nerve stimulation?

a)

Voice change

b)

Headache

c)

Cough

d)

Shortness of breath

e)

Tingling in the throat

7.

(Video 2) What is shaking?

a)

Focal seizure

b)

Hemifacial spasm

c)

Tic

d)

Myokymia

e)

Fasciculations

8.

What is the newest and oldest ASM for focal epilepsy?

a)

Xcopri

b)

Fycompa

c)

Fintepla

d)

Aptiom

e)

Phenobarb

9.

Which is the Visual Evoked Potential?

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

10.

This test is part of the pre-surgery w/u and looks for areas of hypometabolism.

a)

PET scan

b)

SPECT scan

c)

FMRI

d)

MEG

e)

Colonoscopy

11.

Which is false regarding the Wada test?

a)

A. It is named after Dr. Wada

b)

B. It tests language and memory

c)

C. It includes a cerebral angiogram

d)

D. It involved injecting a barbiturate into the internal carotid artery

e)

E. It is an acronym so it should be all caps (WADA)

12.

What year was VNS approved in the US?

(a)  

13.

Which is false about the ketogenic diet as a treatment of Epilepsy?

a)

Consist mainly of fat, with limited amounts of carbs and protein

b)

It works primarily in children

c)

Can treat all types of epilepsies

d)

Is usually used in combination with antiseizure medications

e)

Can be challenging to adhere to

14.

What does this MRI show?

a)

Lacunar Stroke

b)

Mesiotemporal sclerosis

c)

Temporal Tumor

d)

AVM

e)

Pulmonary embolism

15.

A patient with VNS is coming for an MRI. He must come to clinic first to have it turned off.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What does this page show?

a)

Artifacts

b)

Focal spikes

c)

Sleep spindles

d)

Generalized spikes and polyspike

17.

This structure is called the

(a)  

18.

What percent of patients with epilepsy are drug-resistant?

a)

1-5%

b)

5-20%

c)

20-40%

d)

Over 50%

19.

Which is true of VNS for depression?

a)

Approved as first-line treatment (before antidepressant medications)

b)

Efficacy has been shown to be 96.3%

c)

Stimulates a different nerve adjacent to the vagus nerve

d)

Is poorly reimbursed by insurance

20.

Which ASM is chemically related to Keppra?

a)

Aptiom (eslicarbazepine)

b)

Epidiolex (CBD)

c)

Briviact (brivaracetam)

d)

Vimpat (lacosamide)

e)

Xcopri (cenobamate)

21.

How many beds are at TGH?

a)

200

b)

500

c)

1,000

d)

3,000

22.

Which is false of intellectual disability?

a)

Is defined as IQ<70

b)

Is classified as severe when IQ is 20-34 and profound when IQ<20

c)

Has multiple causes

d)

Is always associated with an abnormal MRI

e)

Can be associated with epilepsy and cerebral palsy

23.

(Video 3) What is shaking?

a)

Seizure

b)

Dystonia

c)

Syncope

d)

Psychogenic event

e)

Tic

24.

In which stage(s) of sleep would you expect to see vertex waves and POST?

a)

N1

b)

N2

c)

N3

d)

REM

25.

24-year-old with convulsive episodes 5 times over the last 2 years. Routine EEG, 3-day ambulatory EEG and MRI are normal. Lives alone and wants a diagnosis before taking medications. What is your next step?

a)

Repeat ambulatory EEG

b)

Repeat MRI

c)

Admit to EMU

d)

Home camera or cellphone videos

e)

Blood work (including liver enzymes)

26.

Which is not part of the brainstem?

a)

Medulla

b)

Pons

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Midbrain

27.

Which are the two best choices for rescue medication in patient with seizure clusters? Choose the best answer.

a)

Intra-rectal diazepam (Diastat)

b)

Intranasal diazepam (Valtoco)

c)

Intranasal midazolam (Nayzilam)

d)

Disintegrating Clonazepam (Klonopin)

28.

What is the prevalence of epilepsy?

a)

20%

b)

0.1%

c)

1%

d)

10%

29.

Which of these is not an FDA-approved neurostimulation modality for epilepsy?

a)

Vagus nerve stimulation

b)

Deep Brain Stimulation

c)

Trigeminal nerve stimulation

d)

Responsive Neurostimulation

30.

Which would not be considered as static encephalopathy or developmental disability?

a)

Down syndrome with intellectual disability

b)

Perinatal anoxic injury with cerebral palsy

c)

Rett Syndrome

d)

Dravet Syndrome

e)

Left MCA stroke with residual aphasia and R hemiparesis

31.

A wave seen on the EEG tracing that does not originate from the brain is referred to as:

(a)  

32.

Which of our attendings did both residency and fellowship here?

a)

Dr. Amin

b)

Dr. Rivera-Cruz

c)

Dr. Benbadis

d)

Dr. Zemina

33.

Which is the main advantage of inpatient EEG-video vs ambulatory?

a)

It is safer and patients prefer it

b)

It can be done for >3 days

c)

It allows for safe medication reduction

d)

EEG has better quality

34.

(Video 4) What is shaking?

a)

Automatisms

b)

Focal Seizure

c)

Psychogenic Event

d)

Dystonia

e)

Tremor

35.

This ASM only treats typical absence seizures.

a)

Keppra

b)

Dilantin

c)

Depakote

d)

Zarontin

36.

When should VNS be turned on once implanted?

a)

In the OR

b)

In the next day

c)

1-2 weeks later in clinic

d)

All of the above

37.

Which of these ASMs requires periodic echocardiograms?

a)

Cenobamate (Xcopri)

b)

Fenfluramine (Fintepla)

c)

Vigabatrin (Sabril)

d)

All ASMs need an echo once a year.

38.

About how many IOM cases do we do in a year?

a)

10

b)

100

c)

1,000

d)

10,000

39.

How many patients per year are in the adult EMU (9A)?

a)

<100

b)

100-200

c)

200-300

d)

300-400

40.

Epilepsy is deemed medically intractable (drug-resistant) is defined as failure of at least (a)   (number) ASMs.

41.

How many cEEGs (“bedsides”) do we do per year (adults)?

a)

<100

b)

100-200

c)

200-300

d)

>500

42.

(Video 4) What is shaking?

a)

Seizure

b)

PNES

c)

Tic

d)

Fasciculation

43.

Saw-tooth waves are seen in which stage?

a)

Wakefulness

b)

N1

c)

N2

d)

N3

e)

REM

44.

Which of these syndromes is not a genetic disease?

a)

Dravet Syndrome

b)

Lenox-Gastaut Sydrome

c)

Angelman Syndrome

d)

Rett Syndrome

45.

What duration does an EEG have to be for the physician to be able to code and bill the video?

a)

30 minutes

b)

2 hours

c)

6 hours

d)

24 hours

46.

What does this show?

a)

Sleep Spindles

b)

Artifact

c)

GPFA

d)

Polyspike

e)

Arousal

47.

Which is true of a “phase reversal” on EEG?

a)

Is only meaningful on a referential montage

b)

Is indicative of an abnormality

c)

Is never seen with normal rhythms

d)

Only indicates localization

e)

Is never seen with artifacts

48.

Which of the following is intracranial and records EEG?

a)

DBS

b)

RNS

c)

VNS

d)

A.Cerebellar stimulation

49.

(Video 5) What is shaking?

a)

Focal Seizure

b)

Tic

c)

Leg Stereotypies

d)

Annoying