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Enterprise Systems and e‑Business Worksheet Questions

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of an Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system?

a)

To manage customer data only

b)

To integrate all key business functions into one system

c)

To generate marketing content

d)

To replace all employees with automation

2.

What is one major challenge of ERP implementation?

a)

It requires no training

b)

It is cheap and easy to install

c)

It is complex and costly to implement

d)

It removes the need for secure databases

3.

Which of the following best describes Supply Chain Management (SCM)?

a)

Managing the customer lifecycle exclusively

b)

Managing flows of goods, information, and money across partners

c)

Managing only internal HR data

d)

Analyzing social media interactions

4.

Effective SCM reduces which of Porter’s Five Forces?

a)

Buyer power

b)

Threat of substitutes

c)

Supplier power

d)

Threat of new entrants

5.

CRM systems primarily help organizations:

a)

Track and store customer interactions to increase revenue

b)

Replace financial reporting

c)

Monitor employee attendance

d)

Encrypt internal data

6.

Which CRM strategy increases revenue?

a)

Decreasing communication with customers

b)

Removing customer data

c)

Personalizing outreach and upselling

d)

Ignoring customer feedback

7.

Human Resource Management systems typically include:

a)

Payroll, training, and performance data

b)

Internet browser history

c)

Supply chain logistics

d)

Social media advertisements

8.

An extended ERP system includes:

a)

Only core financial modules

b)

CRM, SCM, BI, and e-commerce tools

c)

Only HR functions

d)

Only marketing dashboards

9.

B2C e-business refers to:

a)

Government delivering services to citizens

b)

Businesses selling to individual consumers

c)

Consumers selling to each other

d)

Consumers submitting feedback to businesses

10.

G2C transactions occur when:

a)

Businesses sell products to consumers

b)

Government provides digital services to citizens

c)

Citizens sell to other citizens

d)

Businesses sell to other businesses

11.

C2C interactions commonly occur on platforms like:

a)

Government tax websites

b)

Employer job portals

c)

eBay and Facebook Marketplace

d)

CRM dashboards

12.

C2B represents situations where:

a)

A business hires another business

b)

A consumer provides value to a business

c)

Government buys from citizens

d)

Employees submit HR paperwork

13.

Social networking systems are useful for:

a)

Isolating teams from each other

b)

Increasing collaboration and communication

c)

Replacing all email systems

d)

Removing digital records

14.

Disruptive technology is best defined as:

a)

Technology that slightly improves current tools

b)

Technology that fundamentally changes an industry

c)

A broken technology

d)

A training manual

15.

Tacit knowledge refers to:

a)

Knowledge that is easy to document

b)

Knowledge stored in a manual

c)

Personal expertise or intuition

d)

A company email archive

16.

Explicit knowledge refers to:

a)

Skills that cannot be written down

b)

Internal undocumented habits

c)

Knowledge that can be captured and shared

d)

Employee gossip

17.

The Internet increases buyer power because:

a)

Customers can compare prices easily

b)

Customers cannot access product reviews

c)

Customers have fewer alternatives

d)

Buying online is illegal

18.

Network effects occur when:

a)

A product becomes less valuable as more people use it

b)

Value increases as more people use it

c)

Internet goes offline

d)

Networks restrict user growth

19.

Open-source software allows users to:

a)

Access the source code freely

b)

Pay licensing fees

c)

Hide the software code

d)

Prevent collaboration

20.

Web 2.0 can best be described as:

a)

A read-only web

b)

A user-generated, interactive web

c)

A disconnected web

d)

A fully AI-driven web

21.

Web 3.0 is characterized by:

a)

Only static pages

b)

AI-enhanced, semantic, and decentralized environments

c)

No search engines

d)

Randomized browsing

22.

Social engineering involves:

a)

Encrypting data

b)

Tricking people into giving confidential information

c)

Building secure firewalls

d)

Writing code for databases

23.

Digital rights management (DRM) is used to:

a)

Encourage software piracy

b)

Protect copyrighted material from unauthorized use

24.

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines:

a)

How employees may use organizational technology

b)

How customers receive refunds

c)

How supply chain logistics operate

d)

How patents are filed

25.

People act as a line of defense against security threats by:

a)

Ignoring suspicious emails

b)

Practicing awareness and proper security behaviors

c)

Disabling antivirus tools

d)

Sharing passwords

26.

Data is best defined as:

a)

Raw facts without context

b)

Insights derived from reports

c)

Knowledge applied to decisions

d)

Predictions of future trends

27.

Information is created when:

a)

Data is organized and meaningful

b)

Insights are ignored

c)

Patterns are removed

d)

Forecasting is unavailable

28.

Business intelligence refers to:

a)

Random data sets

b)

Patterns and insights that support decisions

c)

Employee gossip

d)

Legal copyright reports

29.

Knowledge refers to:

a)

Facts unrelated to decisions

b)

Insights without action

c)

Applying BI to make informed decisions

d)

Random guesses

30.

Descriptive analytics answers the question:

a)

What will happen next?

b)

What should we do?

c)

What has already happened?

d)

Why analytics is unnecessary

31.

Predictive analytics answers:

a)

What happened last quarter?

b)

What will likely happen?

c)

What data is irrelevant?

d)

Which rules should be ignored?

32.

Prescriptive analytics answers:

a)

What is the best action to take?

b)

What happened last year?

c)

How to delete data

d)

How to slow decision-making

33.

Systems thinking helps organizations:

a)

View individual tasks separately

b)

Understand how all processes interact

c)

Avoid analyzing workflows

d)

Increase redundancy

34.

Primary value activities include:

a)

HR and infrastructure

b)

Technology development

c)

Marketing, operations, and logistics

d)

Employee benefits

35.

Support value activities include:

a)

Logistics

b)

Operations

c)

HR, procurement, and technology management

d)

Delivery trucks

36.

Porter’s Five Forces is used to:

a)

Develop marketing slogans

b)

Measure industry competitiveness

c)

Predict employee turnover

d)

Determine payroll

37.

A characteristic of big data is:

a)

Low volume

b)

High structure only

c)

Volume, variety, velocity, veracity, value

d)

Minimal complexity

38.

OLAP slice-and-dice is used to:

a)

Break apart data to view it from different angles

b)

Delete irrelevant rows

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Combine employee profiles

39.

Drill-down analysis allows analysts to:

a)

View summary data only

b)

View more detailed levels of data

c)

Remove metadata

d)

Hide unwanted data

40.

Consolidation in OLAP refers to:

a)

Summarizing data

b)

Visualizing forecasts

c)

Removing rows

d)

Extracting individual records

41.

The data mining process model helps organizations:

a)

Randomly assign values

b)

Identify patterns in large data sets

c)

Replace analytics

d)

Ensure copyright compliance

42.

Data mining techniques can identify:

a)

Random noise

b)

Patterns and relationships

c)

Incorrect file paths

d)

Waterfall phases

43.

Transactional information refers to:

a)

High-level insights

b)

Day-to-day operational data

c)

Predictions

d)

Historical trend graphs

44.

Analytical information refers to:

a)

Data used for higher-level decision-making

b)

Daily operational tasks

c)

File storage

d)

Password resets

45.

High-quality information must be:

a)

Accurate, complete, timely, consistent, and unique

b)

Redundant and outdated

c)

Slow to access

d)

Confusing and duplicated

46.

A relational database stores data in:

a)

Unrelated spreadsheets

b)

Tables with rows and columns

c)

Random PDF documents

d)

AI-based voice notes

47.

A primary key:

a)

Links tables together

b)

Uniquely identifies each record

c)

Stores text only

d)

Creates duplicate values

48.

A foreign key:

a)

Prevents linking tables

b)

Creates isolated records

c)

Is a field that connects tables

d)

Deletes unwanted data

49.

A 1-to-many (1-M) relationship exists when:

a)

One record is linked to many records

b)

Many records link to many

c)

Records link randomly

d)

No linkage exists

50.

Tangible IS benefits include:

a)

Improved morale only

b)

Reduced labor costs and increased speed

c)

Feelings of satisfaction

d)

Community engagement

51.

Non-tangible IS benefits include:

a)

Faster hardware

b)

Improved communication and decision-making

c)

Cash refunds

d)

Immediate revenue spikes

52.

Parallel IS implementation means:

a)

Only the new system runs

b)

Only the old system runs

c)

Both old and new systems run together

d)

Systems run randomly

53.

Direct cutover means:

a)

Systems overlap

b)

Implementation occurs gradually

c)

Old system is shut off immediately and replaced

d)

System is tested but not launched

54.

The triple constraint includes:

a)

Security, privacy, access

b)

Scope, time, and cost

c)

Hiring, training, firing

d)

Storage, backups, networks

55.

The SDLC includes which phase first?

a)

Design

b)

Implementation

c)

Planning

d)

Testing

56.

Unit testing checks:

a)

Individual system components

b)

Entire workflows

c)

User acceptance

d)

Network protocols

57.

System testing checks:

a)

Whether the entire system functions together

b)

Employee productivity

c)

Training quality

d)

Website speed

58.

Waterfall methodology is:

a)

Flexible and iterative

b)

Sequential and structured

c)

No documentation required

d)

Not used in IS projects

59.

A project differs from a process because:

a)

Projects are temporary and unique

b)

Processes end immediately

c)

Processes are unpredictable

d)

Projects never end

60.

Identity theft involves:

a)

Unauthorized use of personal information

b)

Slow internet

c)

AI replacing employees

d)

System updates

61.

Phishing involves:

a)

Fake emails designed to steal information

b)

Strong encryption

c)

Aggregating analytics

d)

VoIP communication

62.

A worm is defined as:

a)

Software that replicates itself across networks

b)

Harmless code

c)

Encryption software

d)

Hardware repair tool

63.

A DDoS attack aims to:

a)

Improve server speed

b)

Overwhelm a system with traffic

c)

Encrypt data

d)

Protect packets

64.

Multifactor authentication requires:

a)

Only a password

b)

Two or more verification methods

c)

No login credentials

d)

Offline access

65.

ePolicies include:

a)

Marketing plans

b)

Guidelines on digital behavior and security

c)

Software pricing

d)

Password resets

66.

Goal-seeking analysis:

a)

Works backward from a target outcome

b)

Predicts future profit

c)

Cleans databases

d)

Deletes unused data

67.

What-if analysis is used to:

a)

Test outcomes based on variable changes

b)

Replace missing data

c)

Encrypt spreadsheets

d)

Create dashboards

68.

Pivot tables help users:

a)

Summarize and analyze large datasets efficiently

b)

Create social media posts

69.

Efficiency metrics measure:

a)

Achieving goals

b)

Optimal use of resources

c)

Employee happiness

d)

Social media engagement

70.

Effectiveness metrics measure:

a)

Whether goals are achieved

b)

Server speed

c)

File sizes

d)

Password policies

71.

Strategic decision-making focuses on:

a)

Daily tasks

b)

Mid-level decisions

c)

Long-term, organization-wide direction

d)

Formatting spreadsheets

72.

Artificial intelligence supports decisions by:

a)

Randomizing outcomes

b)

Identifying patterns and generating insights

c)

Ignoring data

d)

Replacing all employees

73.

Privacy issues relate to:

a)

Protecting personal data

b)

Ignoring user information

c)

Designing video games

d)

Removing encryption

74.

Pirated software is best described as:

a)

Legally purchased software

b)

Unauthorized copies of software

c)

Hardware malfunction

d)

Cloud-based storage

75.

A packet is:

a)

A bundle of data transmitted across networks

b)

A large server

c)

A firewall rule

d)

A wireless router

76.

A proxy server:

a)

Blocks all users

b)

Acts as an intermediary between users and the internet

c)

Deletes cookies

d)

Encrypts hard drives

77.

FTP is used for:

a)

File transfers

b)

Video streaming

c)

Malware detection

d)

Password resets

78.

TCP/IP defines:

a)

How data is transmitted over networks

b)

How employees log hours

c)

How routers are physically built

d)

How to install software

79.

VoIP allows users to:

a)

View cloud dashboards

b)

Make voice calls over the internet

c)

Block advertisements

d)

Transfer photos securely

80.

Grid computing involves:

a)

A single computer doing all the work

b)

Multiple computers sharing processing tasks

c)

No networking

d)

Hardware storage only

81.

Cloud computing allows organizations to:

a)

Store data only on personal devices

b)

Access computing resources over the internet

c)

Avoid all software updates

d)

Remove cybersecurity needs

82.

SaaS refers to:

a)

Software delivered over the internet

b)

Hardware installation

c)

Custom wiring

d)

Physical data centers

83.

Incident management involves:

a)

Responding to and resolving IT disruptions

b)

Writing code only

c)

Increasing downtime

d)

Filing patents

84.

E-waste refers to:

a)

Paper recycling

b)

Discarded electronic devices

c)

CPU overheating

d)

System updates

85.

Agile MIS infrastructure is designed to be:

a)

Inflexible

b)

Slow and centralized

c)

Scalable, flexible, and accessible

d)

Fully manual

86.

Disaster recovery includes:

a)

Backup systems and recovery plans

b)

Social media management

c)

Daily emails

d)

Hard-coding passwords