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Government Midterm Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. The institution in which a society makes and enforces public policy is a

a)

state

b)

country

c)

government

d)

sovereignty

2.

Which are the three basic powers of a government?

a)

political power, public policy power, democratic power

b)

political power, legislative power, executive power

c)

legislative power, executive power, judicial power

d)

sovereign power, legislative power, executive power

3.

All of the following can create public policy EXCEPT:

a)

Congress

b)

The President

c)

Interest groups

d)

The Courts

4.

4. All of the following are examples of public policy EXCEPT:

a)

The president issues an executive order requiring corporations doing business with the government to have affirmative action hiring plans.

b)

Congress writes laws requiring lobbyists to disclose which interest groups employ them.

c)

The Supreme Court declared the law unconstitutional

d)

The American Association of Retired Person passed a rule giving access to their insurance policies only to due paying members.

5.

Which is a characteristic of every state?

a)

democracy

b)

a constitution

c)

population

d)

a legislature

6.

Which of the following is true about sovereignty?

a)

Sovereign states cannot decide their own foreign and domestic policies

b)

The United States is not a sovereign state.

c)

The States within the United States are not subordinate to the U.S. Constitution

d)

The States within the United States are not sovereign

7.

Which theory of the origin of the state BEST describes the United States?

a)

divine right

b)

social contract

c)

evolution

d)

force

8.

The purposes of the American government are found in what document?

a)

The Magna Carta

b)

Preamble to the Constitution

c)

The Declaration of Independence

d)

the Student Handbook

9.

Which is the way that the U.S. government is classified?

a)

unitary, presidential, and a parliamentary

b)

federal, presidential, and a democracy

c)

unitary, presidential, and a democracy.

d)

federal, presidential, and parliamentary

10.

A central notion of the American concept of democracy is that

a)

Each individual has complete and absolute freedom.

b)

the majority must be willing to listen to the views of the minority.

c)

all persons have a right to an equal share of worldly goods.

d)

the individual is of paramount importance

11.

Democracy is rooted in the belief of the worth of the individual, which of the following is the BEST explanation of this?

a)

a. all people have value and deserve to be treated with respect

b)

b. everybody must give and take to come to a decision

c)

c. all individuals may do as they like

d)

d. minority rules the majority

12.

Equality of all persons does NOT include:

a)

equality before the law

b)

equality of goods

c)

equal opportunity

13.

In a democracy, the will of the majority:

a)

cannot be changed or improved upon

b)

is not open to compromise

c)

rarely leads to satisfactory policy decisions.

d)

cannot be used to deprive rights to a member of a minority group.

14.

Which of the following is a duty of every American citizen?

a)

voting

b)

volunteering

c)

paying taxes

d)

donating to charity

15.

Which of the following is a responsibility of every American citizen?

a)

serving on a jury

b)

voting

c)

attending school

d)

respecting the rights of others

16.

What economic system does the United States have?

a)

democracy

b)

communism

c)

socialism

d)

mixed

17.

In a capitalist system, who decides what and how much to produce?

a)

the government

b)

tradition

c)

nobody

d)

individuals (sellers and buyers)

18.

The Early English settlers brought with them all of the following basic concepts of government except,

a)

limited government

b)

ordered government

c)

popular sovereignty

d)

representative government

19.

What do the Magna Carta, the Petition of Rights, and the English Bill of Rights have in common?

a)

They were the first documents of the United States.

b)

They established basic concepts of government and rights of individuals.

c)

They limited the rights of the people.

d)

None of the above, they have nothing in common

20.

The majority of the thirteen colonies were what kind of colony?

a)

royal

b)

charter

c)

proprietary

d)

unicameral

21.

What was the first national government of the U.S?

a)

New Albany Plan

b)

Declaration of Independence

c)

Stamp Act Congress

d)

Articles of Confederation

22.

Who was the primary author of the Declaration of Independence?

a)

Thomas Jefferson

b)

John Hancock

c)

George Washington

d)

James Madison

23.

Who was the King that was referred to in the Declaration of Independence?

a)

King James II

b)

King Louis IV

c)

King Henry

d)

King George III

24.

The structure of the government under the Articles of Confederation was

a)

bicameral legislature

b)

unicameral legislature

c)

bicameral executive

d)

unicameral judiciary

25.

The Federalist Paper were written to

a)

win support for the Constitution

b)

expose the lack of civil liberties protected in the Constitution.

c)

urge ratification of the Constitution in Virginia.

d)

condemn the Constitution for the absence of any mention of God.

26.

Which of the following can be said to have contributed the MOST toward the realization that the nation needed a stronger central government?

a)

political issues

b)

economic issues

c)

military issues

d)

social issues

27.

The objections of the Anti-Federalists can be BEST summed up as:

a)

a fear that the small States would not have a say in the new government

b)

a fear that the new government would be too weak to succeed

c)

a fear that the new government would have too much power and the people, too little power

d)

a fear that too few people had participated in the writing of the Constitution

28.

Look at the excerpt below Article 1 All human beings are born free and equal in dignity and rights. They are endowed with reason and conscience and should act towards one another in a spirit of brotherhood. Article 3 Everyone has the right to life, liberty, and security of person. —Universal Declaration of Human Rights The Declaration of Independence and the articles above are similar because both:

a)

describe the powers of government

b)

Are enforced in every country in the world

c)

describe personal freedoms to which every person is entitled

d)

are used by the World Court to resolve international disputes

29.

With the words, "We the People," the Constitution establishes its authority on the basis of

a)

popular sovereignty.

b)

the rule of law.

c)

the separation of powers.

d)

limited government.

30.

Which of the following best describes the concept of limited government?

a)

Powers are divided among three independent branches of government.

b)

All political power belongs to the people.

c)

Government must operate within the rule of law and the constitution.

d)

The people must behave according to rules set by the government.

31.

When there is a separation of powers,

a)

power is divided between the National Government and the States.

b)

power is distributed among three independent branches of government.

c)

the people grant the States the authority to govern.

d)

The basic powers of government are held by a single agency.

32.

Which of the following accounts for the ability of the Constitution to endure for more than 200 years?

a)

built-in provisions for accommodating change

b)

mandatory provisions every 10 years

c)

very specific language that limits reinterpretation

d)

inflexible provisions designed to resist change

33.

The most common method of formal amendment is:

a)

Proposal by Congress and ratification by state legislatures

b)

Initiative by the President and approval by the Supreme Court

c)

Direct vote by the people in a national referendum

d)

Proposal by state governors and ratification by Congress

34.

The basic constitutional rights of the people were FIRST set out in the

a)

13th, 14th, and 15th amendments.

b)

10th Amendment.

c)

Bill of Rights.

d)

Equal Rights Amendment.

35.

The informal amendment process

a)

involves changing the written words of the Constitution.

b)

has been used very little in the past 200 years.

c)

can occur only with the approval of the States.

d)

is the key to real constitutional change.

36.

Congress can effect changes to the Constitution by

a)

passing basic legislation.

b)

adding meaning to skeletal portions of the Constitution.

c)

simply exercising many of its powers.

d)

all of the above.

37.

Which branch of the Federal Government plays the largest role in the formal amendment process?

a)

executive branch

b)

judicial branch

c)

legislative branch

d)

all of the above

38.

Which of the following pairs of amendments places limitations on the national government?

a)

1st and 2nd

b)

3rd and 4th

c)

5th and 9th

d)

9th and 10th

39.

The Founding Fathers designed a system of checks and balances for the national government. Which of the following best illustrates that concept?

a)

Congress overrides a presidential veto

b)

The President sent troops to Iraq

c)

Congress passes the Federal Budget

d)

The Supreme Court decided to heard the case about immigration

40.

Which of the following describes the avenue by which the Supreme Court can shape the Constitution?

a)

by proposing a constitutional amendment

b)

by exerting influence on political parties

c)

by deciding what the words of the Constitution mean in practice

d)

by voting in federal elections

41.

Which type of Congressional powers are clearly spelled out in the Constitution?

a)

reserved powers

b)

implied powers

c)

expressed powers

d)

inherent powers

42.

The chief accomplishment of the Anti-Federalist debate over the Constitution was the:

a)

Bill of Rights

b)

Federalist Papers

c)

Constitutional Convention

d)

Separation of Powers

43.

The formal amendment process illustrates which two principles?

a)

limited government and checks and balances

b)

federalism and judicial review

c)

popular sovereignty and limited government

d)

popular sovereignty and federalism

44.

When the courts declare a law of an act of the government unconstitutional, it is known as

a)

limited government

b)

popular sovereignty

c)

checks and balances

d)

judicial review

45.

Which of the following is the basic characteristic of federalism?

a)

It divides power between a National Government and State governments.

b)

It gives most power to the National Government.

c)

It gives most power to local units of government.

d)

It encourages citizen participation in government.

46.

Concurrent powers are those that are

a)

exercised by the National and the State governments.

b)

exercised by State governments alone.

c)

exercised by the National Government alone.

d)

denied to both the National and the State governments.

47.

Which of the following powers can the National Government legally exercise?

a)

expressed powers only

b)

expressed, implied and inherent powers

48.

In the case of Marbury v Madison, what was the Supreme Court ruling based upon?

a)

reserved powers

b)

Full Faith and Credit Clause

c)

Necessary and Proper Clause

d)

interstate compacts

49.

The notion that when state and federal laws conflict, the national laws will prevail is the

a)

necessary and proper clause

b)

supremacy clause

c)

extradition

d)

full faith and immunities clause

50.

The system of federalism that allowed States and the federal government equal division of power

a)

home rule

b)

marble cake federalism

c)

dual federalism

d)

cooperative federalism

51.

States must honor the legality of one another's civil laws because of the

a)

Full faith and credit clause

b)

necessary and proper clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

Because Mrs. Clark said so

52.

A person robs a bank in Kentucky and drives to Ohio. The legal process by which Ohio police will return the person to Kentucky to stand trial is called

a)

grants in aid

b)

checks and balances

c)

federalism

d)

extradition

53.

Both the national and states’ government can establish court systems. This is an example of

a)

reserved powers

b)

a mandate

c)

concurrent powers

d)

full faith and credit

54.

Which of the following principle(s) of government was mentioned in the Federalist Papers?

a)

checks and balances

b)

popular sovereignty

c)

separation of powers

d)

all of the above

55.

What Constitutional Clause gives Congress implied powers?

a)

The 10th Amendment

b)

Necessary and Proper Clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

56.

The Tenth Amendment provides for

a)

States’ reserved powers

b)

States’ implied powers

c)

concurrent state and federal powers

57.

What is a political party’s core function?

a)

to field candidates for elected office

b)

to provide a voting cue to the electorate

c)

to try to control the government by winning elections

d)

to organize a national office

58.

What one function most clearly sets parties apart from other groups in the political process?

a)

informing and activating supporters

b)

governing

c)

acting as watchdog

d)

nominating

59.

America's two party systems is

a)

principle oriented

b)

election oriented

c)

issue oriented

60.

The era of one-party domination that began in 1968 was different from past eras of one-party domination because

a)

The Republican party gained no new members in Congress.

b)

The Democratic party gained no new members in Congress.

c)

one party controlled Congress while the other controlled the presidency.

d)

minor parties interfered with the power of the Republican party.

61.

Which of the following did George Washington NOT warn about in his Farewell Address?

a)

Slavery

b)

foreign entanglement

c)

debt

d)

political parties

62.

What type of party system does the United States have?

a)

Single Party System

b)

Multiparty System

c)

Two Party system

d)

Splinter Party system

63.

Who is in charge of voting qualifications

a)

state government

b)

federal government

c)

local government

d)

no one

64.

To prevent fraudulent voting, most States require voters to

a)

register.

b)

be able to read and write.

c)

pay a poll tax.

d)

be a natural-born citizen.

65.

Which of the following is NOT an acceptable form of ID to vote in OHIO?

a)

drivers’ license

b)

social security card

c)

military ID

d)

state ID

66.

Who is in charge of voting in the State?

a)

Governor

b)

Mayor

c)

Secretary of State

d)

State Board of Elections

67.

Gerrymandering

a)

The political branch of an interest group whose purpose is to raise money that can be spent to get their preferred candidate elected.

b)

Process of redrawing legislative boundaries for the purpose of benefiting the party or group in power.

c)

The official endorsement of a candidate for office by a political party.

d)

The votes submitted by the majority of the people, often phrased as "winning the popular vote."

68.

How you acquire your political attitudes and opinions

a)

political efficacy

b)

polls

c)

political socialization

d)

political science

69.

Non Voters tend to be

a)

Married and wealthy

b)

Urban and well educated

c)

Over 35 and wealthy

d)

Younger and unmarried

70.

If you don’t vote or participate in political life, according to the Greeks you are a/an

a)

donkey

b)

elephant

c)

idiot

d)

gerrymanderer

71.

“Grandfather clauses” in the late 19th Century and early 20th Century, which required all prospective voters either pay a tax or pass a test except for those whose grandfathers had been eligible to vote, had the effect of

a)

keeping the children of illiterates from voting

b)

preventing women from voting

c)

discriminating against the elderly

d)

keeping African Americans from voting

72.

How was the Voting Rights Act of 1965 different from the Civil Rights Acts?

a)

It allowed women to vote as well

b)

It applied to state elections, not federal elections

c)

It applied to all elections; federal, state, and local

d)

It gave Native Americans the right to vote

73.

How many electoral votes does it take to win the presidency?

a)

538

b)

438

c)

270

d)

17

74.

The first step in the election process where the field of candidate is narrowed

a)

general election

b)

nomination

c)

inauguration

d)

electoral vote

75.

The 2nd step in the election process?

a)

inauguration

b)

nomination

c)

general election

d)

primary

76.

Total number of Electoral votes

a)

270

b)

535

c)

538

d)

225

77.

What is the primary job of Congress

a)

spend the people’s money

b)

enforce public policy

c)

translate public will into public policy

d)

interpret the laws and decide constitutionality

78.

How often does the Constitution require Congress to reapportion (redistribute) seats in the House of Representatives?

a)
every 10 years
b)

every 2 years

c)

every 4 years

d)

never

79.

What is the purpose of the elastic clause?

a)

To prevent states from being too powerful

b)

to allow Congress to make laws to carry out its delegated powers

c)

to prevent any branch of government from exceeding its power

d)

to protect people's liberties from abuse by the government

80.

Identify the principle of government related to the amendment excerpt: “Congress shall make no law respecting the establishment of religion, or prohibiting the exercise thereof:....”

a)

popular sovereignty

b)

separation of power

c)

limited government

d)

federalism

81.

How did the 9th Amendment address Federalist concerns about including a bill of rights in the Constitution?

a)

It ensured that only the state government would be able to grant rights to citizens.

b)

It ensured that guaranteeing some rights would not lead to other rights being violated.

c)

It ensured that the federal government would have more power than state government

d)

It ensured that a proper balance of power among the three branches of government would be established.

82.

Which constitutional principle is identified with the “consent of the governed”?

a)

rule of law

b)

popular sovereignty

c)

checks and balance

d)

separation of powers

83.

The Supreme Court takes on a case about the constitutional merits of a law. After hearing arguments against the law, they issue a verdict that the law goes against certain provisions of the U.S. Constitution. Once determined unconstitutional, the law is struck down or voided. What kind of practice is exemplified in the situation described?

a)

judicial review

b)

federal appeal

c)

limited government

84.

What was the immediate impact of the 14th Amendment?

a)

it prohibited the use of poll taxes in the United States

b)

it guaranteed suffrage rights to African American citizens

c)

it granted citizenship to African Americans

d)

it abolished slavery

85.

Biden wants to send money to Ukraine. Congress must appropriate (authorize) the money. This is an example of which of the following Constitutional principles?

a)

Separation of Powers

b)

Judicial Review

c)

Popular sovereignty

d)

Checks and Balances

86.

Vote age changed from 21 to 18

a)

19th

b)

15th

c)

23rd

d)

26th

87.

Allowed African Americans to vote

a)

15th

b)

17

c)

19th

d)

23rd

e)

24th

88.

Direct Election of Senators instead of being elected by State legislatures

a)

19th

b)

15th

c)

23rd

d)

17

e)

24th

89.

Gave Electoral votes to Washington D.C.

a)

15th

b)

23rd

c)

24th

d)

17

e)

19th

90.

Women's Suffrage

a)

23rd

b)

19th

c)

15th

d)

17

e)

24th

91.

Abolished Poll tax

a)

19th

b)

15th

c)

23rd

d)

24th

e)

17

92.

Congressional pay raises do not take effect until the next term of Congress

a)

17

b)

26th

c)

19th

d)

27th

93.

Search and Seizure: People and their personal property cannot be searched without a warrant, issued by a judge

a)

2nd

b)

5th

c)

1st

d)

6th

e)

4th

94.

No excessive bails or fines, or cruel and unusual punishment

a)

1st

b)

8th

c)

2nd

d)

5th

e)

4th

95.

No person may be held to answer for a crime unless he/she has first been officially and legally charged. No double jeopardy. Persons cannot be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law. Power of eminent domain.

a)

5th

b)

1st

c)

6th

d)

4th

e)

2nd

96.

A person accused of a crime has the right to a fair and speedy trial by an impartial jury of his/her peers. Which amendment or constitutional principle is described here?

a)

6th Amendment

b)

1st Amendment

c)

8th Amendment

d)

5th Amendment

97.

Powers that are not specifically granted to the national government are reserved for the states. Which amendment or constitutional principle is described here?

a)

10th Amendment

b)

1st Amendment

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

Necessary and Proper Clause

98.

Guarantees freedom of speech, religion, and press and the right to assemble peacefully and petition. Which amendment or constitutional principle is described here?

a)

1st Amendment

b)

2nd Amendment

c)

4th Amendment

d)

5th Amendment

99.

Unenumerated rights; the people have rights not listed in the Constitution. Which amendment or constitutional principle is described here?

a)

9th Amendment

b)

1st Amendment

c)

5th Amendment

d)

10th Amendment

100.

Right to bear arms. Which amendment or constitutional principle is described here?

a)

2nd Amendment

b)

1st Amendment

c)

4th Amendment

d)

5th Amendment