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Fall 2025 Final Exam Reveiw A&P

Total questions: 76

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which body system includes the skin, hair, nails, and associated glands?

a)

Endocrine system

b)

Muscular system

c)

Integumentary system

d)

Skeletal system

2.

Match each integumentary structure to its primary function.

a)

Sebaceous glands

1.

Secrete oil to lubricate skin and hair

b)

Sweat glands

2.

Produce sweat for thermoregulation

c)

Epidermis

3.

Superficial barrier of stratified epithelial cells

d)

Dermis

4.

Deep connective tissue with nerves and vessels

3.

The main function of skin is to protect the body, regulate temperature, and prevent water loss.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Which receptor is specialized for deep pressure and vibration within the skin?

a)

Meissner corpuscle

b)

Pacini corpuscle

c)

Merkel disc

d)

Free nerve ending

5.

Identify the body system primarily responsible for structural support, protection of organs, and mineral storage.

a)

Integumentary system

b)

Skeletal system

c)

Muscular system

d)

Lymphatic system

6.

Match each skeletal subdivision with the regions it includes.

a)

Axial skeleton

1.

Skull, vertebral column, thoracic cage

b)

Appendicular skeleton

2.

Limbs and girdles

c)

Thoracic cage

3.

Ribs and sternum protecting thoracic organs

d)

Vertebrae

4.

Bones forming the spine

7.

Which bones collectively form the protective case around the brain?

a)

Facial bones

b)

Cranium bones

c)

Vertebral bones

d)

Pelvic bones

8.

Articulations are better known as which anatomical structures?

a)

Muscle bellies

b)

Ligament insertions

c)

Joints between bones

d)

Cartilage plates

9.

Cartilage in the skeletal system primarily functions to provide smooth surfaces at joints and support flexible structures.

a)

Agrees fully

b)

Disagrees fully

c)

Applies only to infants

d)

Applies only to long bones

10.

Which muscle type is striated, voluntary, and attached to bones by tendons?

a)

Fascia muscle

b)

Skeletal muscle

c)

Cardiac muscle

d)

Smooth muscle

11.

Match each muscle type to its location and control.

a)

Cardiac muscle

1.

Heart; involuntary, rhythmic

b)

Smooth muscle

2.

Walls of hollow organs; involuntary

c)

Skeletal muscle

3.

Attached to skeleton; voluntary

12.

Which structure connects muscle to bone to transmit force for movement?

a)

Cartilage

b)

Tendon

c)

Fascia

d)

Ligament

13.

The sarcomere is best defined as which functional unit?

a)

Unit of cartilage growth

b)

Unit of ligament tension

c)

Unit of neuronal signaling

d)

Unit of muscle contraction

14.

Which layer of the skin is avascular and primarily composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

Dermis

b)

Basement membrane

c)

Epidermis

d)

Hypodermis

15.

Match the following nervous system divisions and structures to their roles.

a)

Central nervous system

1.

Brain and spinal cord—processing center

b)

Peripheral nervous system

2.

Nerves outside CNS—communication lines

c)

Cranial nerves

3.

Nerves emerging from the brain

d)

Spinal cord

4.

Major conduit between brain and body

e)

Neuron

5.

Excitable cell transmitting signals

16.

Which brain region primarily coordinates balance and fine motor control?

a)

Medulla oblongata

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Cerebrum

17.

Fascia in the muscular system primarily functions to separate, support, and wrap muscle groups.

a)

Only true for deep fascia

b)

Incorrect statement

c)

Correct statement

d)

Only true for superficial fascia

18.

Which integumentary receptor is specialized for light touch near the skin surface?

a)

Tactile corpuscle

b)

Golgi tendon organ

c)

Pacinian corpuscle

d)

Ruffini ending

19.

Which statement best explains how sweat glands contribute to homeostasis during exercise?

a)

They produce sweat that cools by evaporation

b)

They secrete oil to reduce friction

c)

They dilate arteries to increase flow

d)

They thicken the epidermis against abrasion

20.

A ligament connects bone to bone at a joint, while a tendon connects muscle to bone. Which pairing is correct for movement production?

a)

Ligament creates force for movement

b)

Tendon transmits muscle force

c)

Cartilage pulls bones together

d)

Fascia directly moves joints

21.

Which blood vessel type primarily returns deoxygenated blood to the heart?

a)

Lymphatics drain interstitial fluid

b)

Veins return blood to the heart

c)

Arteries carry blood away from heart

d)

Capillaries exchange gases with tissues

22.

Identify the function of capillaries within the cardiovascular system.

a)

Regulate heart rhythm electrically

b)

Exchange gases, nutrients, and wastes

c)

Prevent backflow through large veins

d)

Store red blood cells temporarily

23.

In hemostasis, what forms when platelets aggregate at an injury site?

a)

Coagulation cascade end

b)

Scar tissue patch

c)

Platelet plug forms

d)

Fibrin clot matrix

24.

Name the chamber that receives blood returning to the heart from veins.

a)

Left atrium ejects to aorta

b)

Right ventricle sends to lungs

c)

Right atrium receives venous blood

d)

Left ventricle pumps systemically

25.

Which cardiac chamber primarily generates systemic arterial pressure?

a)

Right atrium fills passively

b)

Left ventricle pumps to aorta

c)

Left atrium drives pulmonary

d)

Right ventricle supplies coronary

26.

The tricuspid valve separates which two structures?

a)

Left atrium and left ventricle

b)

Right atrium and right ventricle

c)

Right ventricle and pulmonary trunk

d)

Left ventricle and aorta

27.

Which valve prevents backflow from the pulmonary trunk into the right ventricle?

a)

Bicuspid valve

b)

Aortic valve

c)

Pulmonary valve

d)

Tricuspid valve

28.

The bicuspid (mitral) valve controls flow between which chambers?

a)

Left ventricle and aorta

b)

Right ventricle and pulmonary trunk

c)

Left atrium and left ventricle

d)

Right atrium and right ventricle

29.

Which urinary structure filters blood to form filtrate?

a)

Renal pyramid stores filtrate

b)

Ureters transport urine

c)

Urethra expels urine

d)

Glomerulus filters plasma

30.

Identify the functional unit of the kidney responsible for urine formation.

a)

Renal pyramid is nephron

b)

Ureter is filtrate maker

c)

Glomerulus is whole kidney

d)

Nephron is functional unit

31.

Which paired structures carry urine from kidneys to the bladder?

a)

Nephrons expel urine

b)

Renal pyramids drain externally

c)

Ureters conduct urine

d)

Urethra stores urine

32.

Which digestive structure begins mechanical digestion by mastication?

a)

Pharynx moves bolus

b)

Teeth perform chewing

c)

Tongue mixes bolus

d)

Esophagus transports bolus

33.

Which sphincter prevents gastric contents from refluxing into the esophagus?

a)

Anal sphincter

b)

Pyloric sphincter

c)

Cardiac sphincter

d)

Ileocecal sphincter

34.

Which organ chemically digests proteins with pepsin and churns food?

a)

Stomach digests proteins

b)

Small intestine absorbs bile

c)

Liver secretes amylase

d)

Gallbladder makes enzymes

35.

Which gland secretes insulin and digestive enzymes into the duodenum?

a)

Liver stores glycogen

b)

Pancreas secretes insulin

c)

Stomach releases bile acids

d)

Gallbladder produces insulin

36.

Which organ produces bile to aid lipid digestion?

a)

Liver produces bile

b)

Stomach forms bile

c)

Pancreas produces bile

d)

Gallbladder synthesizes bile

37.

Which muscle sheet drives ventilation by changing thoracic volume?

a)

Larynx opens vocal cords

b)

Diaphragm changes volume

c)

Alveoli contract actively

d)

Trachea expands robustly

38.

Which female structure produces gametes and ovarian hormones?

a)

Uterus produces gametes

b)

Fallopian tubes produce gametes

c)

Ovaries produce gametes

d)

Vagina produces gametes

39.

Which statement best defines mitosis in human cells?

a)

Programmed cell death removing damaged cells

b)

Division producing four genetically unique cells

c)

Division producing two identical daughter cells

d)

DNA replication without any cell division occurring

40.

Homeostasis refers to the body’s ability to

a)

Maintain a stable internal environment

b)

Increase heart rate during exercise

c)

Eliminate metabolic wastes via kidneys

d)

Store excess glucose in adipose tissue

41.

Movement in physiology primarily describes

a)

Muscle contraction generating body motion

b)

Oxygen binding to hemoglobin molecules

c)

Neuron depolarization along axons

d)

Enzyme catalysis within mitochondria

42.

Neuron communication involves

a)

Only hormonal messaging via endocrine glands

b)

Passive diffusion of ions without channels

c)

Purely mechanical transmission through dendrites

d)

Electrical and chemical signaling across synapses

43.

Systemic circulation is the pathway that

a)

Sends oxygenated blood from heart to body

b)

Moves deoxygenated blood from body to lungs

c)

Filters blood through renal capillaries

d)

Transfers nutrients from gut to the liver

44.

Micturition is best defined as

a)

Filtration of blood in the kidneys

b)

Defecation regulated by colon motility

c)

Urination controlled by bladder reflexes

d)

Reabsorption of water in nephron loops

45.

Digestion primarily refers to

a)

Mechanical and chemical breakdown of food

b)

Transport of nutrients in bloodstream

c)

Metabolic oxidation of glucose in cells

d)

Excretion of waste through the rectum

46.

Peristalsis is the

a)

Rapid enzyme reactions that digest proteins

b)

Valve opening events in the heart during systole

c)

Random skeletal muscle twitches generating heat

d)

Wave-like smooth muscle contractions moving contents

47.

Excretion is the process of

a)

Removing metabolic wastes from the body

b)

Absorbing nutrients across intestinal villi

c)

Producing ATP inside mitochondria

d)

Neutralizing pathogens using antibodies

48.

Match each circulation term with its description.

a)

Pulmonary circulation

1.

Heart–lungs–heart pathway for gas exchange

b)

Systemic circulation

2.

Heart–body tissues–heart distribution loop

c)

Hepatic portal circulation

3.

Gut capillaries to liver for nutrient processing

d)

Coronary circulation

4.

Blood supply dedicated to cardiac muscle

49.

Place the FIRST 4 steps of the typical blood flow pathway in order from the body back to the lungs.

a)

Right ventricle → pulmonary veins → left atrium → aorta

b)

Pulmonary veins → right atrium → right ventricle → aorta

c)

Aorta → systemic veins → pulmonary arteries → left ventricle

d)

Vena Cava → right atrium → right ventricle → pulmonary arteries

50.

Which structure directly receives blood from the right ventricle?

a)

Pulmonary Artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Left atrium

51.

Which vessel returns oxygenated blood to the heart from the lungs?

a)

Coronary sinus

b)

Superior vena cava

c)

Pulmonary arteries

d)

Pulmonary veins

52.

Arrange these structures to show the flow of oxygenated blood to the body.

a)

Left atrium → right ventricle → aorta → systemic veins

b)

Pulmonary veins → left atrium → left ventricle → aorta valve → aorta

c)

Pulmonary arteries → right atrium → left ventricle → aorta

d)

Left ventricle → pulmonary trunk → aorta → systemic capillaries

53.

During inhalation, air first passes through which structure?

a)

External nose or oral cavity

b)

Bronchioles before bronchi

c)

Alveolar ducts initially

d)

Trachea directly at the carina

54.
Question Image

Order the major airway structures during normal breathing from upper to lower.

a)

Pharynx

1.

Throat passage behind nasal and oral cavities

b)

Larynx

2.

Voice box guarding the airway entrance

c)

Trachea

3.

Windpipe conducting air to thorax

d)

Primary bronchi

4.

First branching airways entering lungs

55.

Gas exchange occurs primarily at the

a)

Primary bronchi

b)

Alveoli

c)

Trachea

d)

Larynx

56.

Which muscular action drives ventilation at rest?

a)

Vocal cords contracting to open the glottis

b)

Abdominal muscles forcefully decreasing lung volume

c)

Diaphragm contraction increasing thoracic volume

d)

Intercostals relaxing to collapse the rib cage

57.

Match each digestive process term with its best example.

a)

Mechanical digestion

1.

Chewing and churning of food

b)

Chemical digestion

2.

Enzymatic breakdown of macromolecules

c)

Peristalsis

3.

Propulsive waves moving contents forward

d)

Absorption

4.

Transport of nutrients into blood or lymph

58.

Predict the immediate effect if pulmonary arteries were blocked.

a)

Increased oxygen delivery to systemic tissues

b)

Enhanced venous return to right atrium

c)

Direct shunting of blood into pulmonary veins

d)

Reduced blood flow to lungs impairs oxygenation

59.

Which event most directly triggers micturition?

a)

Activation of digestive peristalsis in colon

b)

Stretch receptors in the bladder wall firing

c)

Increased aldosterone release from adrenal cortex

d)

Arteriolar constriction in renal medulla

60.

During exhalation at rest, the diaphragm

a)

Contracts, lowering intrapulmonary pressure

b)

Contracts, increasing thoracic pressure

c)

Relaxes, increasing alveolar oxygen

d)

Relaxes, decreasing thoracic volume

61.

Match neuron communication components to their role.

a)

Axon

1.

Conducts action potentials away from soma

b)

Synapse

2.

Junction where signaling occurs between cells

c)

Neurotransmitter

3.

Chemical messenger released into synaptic cleft

d)

Myelin

4.

Insulating material speeding impulse conduction

62.

Which structure receives food immediately after it passes through the esophagus?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Mouth

c)

Pharynx

d)

Stomach

63.

Place these digestive structures in order for the food pathway: mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine.

a)

1st

1.

Mouth

b)

2nd

2.

Esophagus

c)

3rd

3.

Stomach

d)

4th

4.

Small intestine

64.

During digestion, nutrient absorption primarily occurs in the small intestine rather than the stomach. What is the main reason?

a)

More acidic lumen pH

b)

Presence of bile only

c)

Stronger muscular contractions

d)

Large surface area from villi

65.

In spermatogenesis, sperm travel from the epididymis into which structure next during ejaculation?

a)

Urethra

b)

Seminiferous tubules

c)

Prostate gland

d)

Vas deferens

66.

Match each male reproductive structure to its role in the sperm pathway.

a)

Seminiferous tubules

1.

Sperm production

b)

Epididymis

2.

Sperm maturation and storage

c)

Vas deferens

3.

Sperm transport to ejaculatory ducts

d)

Urethra

4.

Exit pathway through penis

67.

During oogenesis, after ovulation the egg typically enters which structure first?

a)

Cervical canal

b)

Ovary cortex

c)

Uterus

d)

Fallopian tube

68.

Match each female reproductive structure to the egg’s sequential pathway following ovulation.

a)

Fimbriae

1.

Sweep oocyte from ovary

b)

Fallopian tube

2.

Site of fertilization and transport

c)

Uterus

3.

Implantation or shedding

69.

Which is the correct next step: After the stomach, chyme moves into the (a)   for further digestion and absorption.

70.

Which accessory organ delivers bile to aid fat digestion in the small intestine?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Appendix

71.

Identify the correct sequence for sperm from production to exit: seminiferous tubules → (a)   → vas deferens → urethra.

72.

Which event occurs just before an oocyte can implant in the uterine lining?

a)

Cervical dilation

b)

Ovulation from ovary

c)

Fertilization in tube

d)

Arrival in uterus

73.

Match each digestive step to its function.

a)

Mouth

1.

Mechanical breakdown and saliva

b)

Stomach

2.

Acidic protein digestion

c)

Small intestine

3.

Most nutrient absorption

d)

Large intestine

4.

Water and electrolyte absorption

74.

During ejaculation, which gland contributes alkaline fluid to protect sperm from acidic environments?

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Bulbourethral glands

c)

Seminal vesicles

d)

Prostate gland

75.

Which structure captures the ovulated oocyte from the ovary surface?

a)

Endometrium

b)

Cervix

c)

Fimbriae

d)

Labia minora

76.

Which pathway correctly lists major digestive organs from ingestion to absorption focus?

a)

Mouth → esophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → anus

b)

Esophagus → mouth → stomach → small intestine → colon → rectum

c)

Mouth → stomach → esophagus → large intestine → small intestine → anus

d)

Stomach → mouth → small intestine → large intestine → rectum