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Worksheets

SHS Economics – Semester Review

Total questions: 128

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define ECONOMICS.

a)

The study of using resources to address scarcity

b)

The practice of setting prices for goods

c)

The process of voting on public policies

d)

The measurement of national population growth

2.

What is an ECONOMIC SYSTEM?

a)

How a community or government uses its available resources or services

b)

A set of rules for electing government officials

c)

A plan for raising taxes to fund public programs

d)

A list of goods and services produced by a nation

3.

Select the three big economic questions.

a)

What to produce

b)

How is it being produced

c)

Who is it being produced for

d)

Where will it be sold

e)

How much profit should be kept

4.

How do TRADITIONAL economies answer the big economic questions?

a)

A barter system determined by community needs

b)

Central planning with government price-setting

c)

Market prices based on supply and demand

d)

Private firms guided by profit maximization only

5.

How do COMMAND economies answer the big economic questions?

a)

Complete control by the government to set prices and manage distribution

b)

Decentralized decisions by households and firms

c)

Tradition-based exchanges with minimal monetary pricing

d)

Consumer preferences determining all production choices

6.

How do MARKET economies answer the big economic questions?

a)

Limited government involvement with outcomes based on supply and demand

b)

Government ministries assign production quotas and prices

c)

Elders allocate resources through customary rules

d)

Prices are fixed by law to stabilize markets

7.

Match each Five Pillar of Free Enterprise with its definition.

a)

Private Enterprise

1.

Owned by an individual or business

b)

Competition

2.

More than one company offering a similar service or good in the market

c)

Private Property

3.

Citizens’ right to own property

d)

Profit Motive

4.

Operation focused on earning money

e)

Consumer Sovereignty

5.

Consumers have freedom of choice in the market

8.
Question Image

Label each of the parts of the Circular Flow Model by matching each boxed component label to the correct sector or market using the word bank.

a)

A

1.

Households

b)

B

2.

Resource Markets

c)

C

3.

Business

d)

D

4.

Product Market

e)

E

5.

Gov’t

9.
Question Image

Use the word bank to match each flow label to the correct term shown on the circular flow diagram.

a)

F

1.

Land Labor Capital

b)

G

2.

Wages

c)

H

3.

Buy Productive Resources

d)

I

4.

Price Payments

10.
Question Image

Match each label to the correct goods or income term from the word bank.

a)

J

1.

Goods and Services

b)

K

2.

Business Income

c)

L

3.

Consumer good and services

11.
Question Image

Match each spending or tax label to the correct term from the word bank.

a)

M

1.

Consumer Spending

b)

N

2.

Taxes

c)

O

3.

Goods and Services

d)

P

4.

Taxes

e)

Q

5.

Goods and Services

12.

Match each market or sector to its description as listed in the prompt: List and describe the 4 market structures.

a)

Produce Market

1.

The marketplace where final goods or services are sold to households

b)

Resource Market

2.

A market where factors of production are bought and sold

c)

Business Sector

3.

Comprises various companies that produce goods and services in the economy

d)

Household Sector

4.

Comprises individuals or groups of individuals as consumers and workers

13.

For SOLE PROPRIETORSHIP, select the correct advantage from the list provided in the prompt on business organizations.

a)

Makes all decisions, gets all profits, least regulated, easy to start up

b)

Limited liability and easy to raise capital

c)

Shares decisions, easy start up, little regulation

d)

Most regulated and difficult to start up

14.

For SOLE PROPRIETORSHIP, select the correct disadvantage from the list provided in the prompt on business organizations.

a)

Unlimited liability and difficult to raise capital

b)

Limited liability and easy to raise capital

c)

Conflict among owners and higher taxes

d)

Expensive to start up

15.

For PARTNERSHIP, select the correct advantage from the list provided in the prompt on business organizations.

a)

Share decisions, easy start up, little regulation

b)

Limited liability and easy to raise capital

c)

Makes all decisions and gets all profits

d)

Most regulated and difficult to start up

16.

For PARTNERSHIP, select the correct disadvantage from the list provided in the prompt on business organizations.

a)

Unlimited liability, difficult to raise capital, conflict, taxes

b)

Limited liability and easy to raise capital

c)

Least regulated and easy to start up

d)

Expensive to start up

17.

For CORPORATION, select the correct advantage from the list provided in the prompt on business organizations.

a)

Limited liability and easy to raise capital

b)

Makes all decisions and gets all profits

c)

Shares decisions and is lightly regulated

d)

Least regulated and easy to start up

18.

For CORPORATION, select the correct disadvantage from the list provided in the prompt on business organizations.

a)

Most regulated, difficult to start up, expensive to start up

b)

Unlimited liability and difficult to raise capital

c)

Conflict among owners and higher taxes

d)

Least regulated and easy to start up

19.

Match each stage in the PRODUCTION PROCESS to its description as listed in the prompt: Describe each of the 4 stages in the production process.

a)

Raw Goods Producer

1.

Provides natural resources and raw materials to manufacturers

b)

Manufacturer

2.

Takes raw goods through the production process

c)

Wholesaler

3.

Middleman who distributes goods and services from manufacturers to retailers

d)

Retailer

4.

Sells goods/services to a consumer

20.

Match each type of MERGER to its definition as listed in the prompt: Define and provide examples of the types of mergers.

a)

Horizontal Merger

1.

The combination of two or more businesses (firms) competing in the same market with the same good or service

b)

Vertical Merger

2.

Two or more businesses (firms) involved in different stages of the production process of a product or line of products

c)

Conglomerate

3.

Occur between businesses (firms) that are seemingly unrelated and at different stages in the production process

21.

Select the example that best illustrates a HORIZONTAL MERGER from the examples provided in the prompt on mergers.

a)

Chili’s and Applebees (retailers) competing in the same market with the same good or service

b)

Lululemon (manufacturer) and Macy’s (retailer) involved in different stages of production

c)

Disney acquiring a firm in an unrelated industry

d)

A wholesaler buying raw materials from a producer

22.

Select the example that best illustrates a VERTICAL MERGER from the examples provided in the prompt on mergers.

a)

Lululemon (manufacturer) and Macy’s (retailer) involved in different stages of production

b)

Chili’s and Applebees (retailers) competing in the same market

c)

Disney acquiring a firm in an unrelated industry

d)

Two retailers opening stores in the same mall

23.

Select the example that best illustrates a CONGLOMERATE MERGER from the examples provided in the prompt on mergers.

a)

Disney acquiring a firm in an unrelated industry

b)

Chili’s combining with Applebees

c)

Lululemon combining with Macy’s

d)

A manufacturer purchasing additional raw materials

24.

Using the definitions provided in the prompt for Opportunity Cost and Trade-Off, select the correct definition of Opportunity Cost.

a)

The value of your next best choice

b)

Any option not chosen

c)

The total cost of producing a good

d)

The price paid for the chosen option

25.

Using the definitions provided in the prompt for Opportunity Cost and Trade-Off, select the correct definition of a Trade-Off.

a)

Any option not chosen

b)

The value of your next best choice

c)

A cost paid in money only

d)

A choice that always results in efficiency

26.

Based on the prompt explanation, select the statement that correctly explains the difference between an opportunity cost and trade-offs.

a)

There is only one opportunity cost in a decision, but there can be many trade-offs

b)

There can be many opportunity costs and only one trade-off

c)

Both opportunity cost and trade-offs are always the same number

d)

Trade-offs are always monetary, opportunity costs are not

27.

Use the Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) diagram to answer: What do Points A, B, and C on the PPC represent?

a)

The most efficient use of technology and resources resulting in maximum output along the production process

b)

Underutilization of resources and technology

c)

Combinations beyond the maximum output of current technology and resources

d)

A shift of the curve due to increased resources

28.

Use the Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) diagram to answer: What does any point inside the PPC represent?

a)

Resources and technology are underutilized, or not efficient

b)

The most efficient use of technology and resources

c)

Combinations unattainable with current technology and resources

d)

A change in technology shifting the curve outward

29.

Use the Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) diagram to answer: Why is Point E considered “unattainable”?

a)

It is beyond the maximum output of the current technology and resources

b)

It lies inside the PPC where resources are underutilized

c)

It represents specialization in one good only

d)

It is on the curve and therefore efficient

30.

Use the Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) diagram to answer: What is the opportunity cost of moving from Point B to Point C?

a)

1.251.25 oranges

b)

0.750.75 oranges

c)

22 oranges

d)

0.250.25 oranges

31.

Define Quantity Demanded as listed in the prompt under Demand/Supply.

a)

The quantity of a good or service consumers are willing and able to purchase at a specific price

b)

The total amount producers are willing to supply at any price

c)

The number of goods produced in a market

d)

The change in quantity supplied when price changes

32.

What is the “Law of Demand”?

a)

As price increases, quantity demanded increases.

b)

As price decreases, quantity demanded decreases.

c)

As price increases, quantity demanded decreases, and as price decreases, quantity demanded increases.

d)

Price changes do not affect quantity demanded.

33.

What type of relationship does demand have with price?

a)

Direct relationship

b)

Inverse relationship

c)

No relationship

d)

Proportional relationship only at low prices

34.

Label the type of curve shown: a downward-sloping line of plotted points where price on the vertical axis decreases from 5to5 to 1 as quantity on the horizontal axis increases from 1 to 5.

a)

Demand curve

b)

Supply curve

c)

Production possibilities frontier

d)

Average total cost curve

35.

Describe the difference: Movement along the demand curve is caused by which change?

a)

A change in price

b)

A change in income

c)

A change in tastes and preferences

d)

A change in the number of consumers

36.

A shift of the demand curve is caused by what?

a)

A change in price only

b)

A change in any factor other than price

c)

Random market noise

d)

Government cannot cause shifts

37.

List the non-price determinants of demand by matching each letter to its determinant.

a)

T

1.

taste and preferences

b)

I

2.

income

c)

M

3.

market size (number of consumers in a market)

d)

E

4.

expectation of consumers

e)

R

5.

related goods (substitute goods / complementary goods)

38.

What is the “Law of Supply”?

a)

As price increases, quantity supplied decreases.

b)

As price increases, quantity supplied increases, and as price decreases, quantity supplied decreases.

c)

Price changes do not affect quantity supplied.

d)

As price decreases, quantity supplied increases.

39.

What type of relationship does supply have with price?

a)

Inverse relationship

b)

Direct relationship

c)

No relationship

d)

Variable relationship only at high prices

40.

Label the type of curve shown: an upward-sloping line of plotted points where price on the vertical axis increases with quantity on the horizontal axis.

a)

Demand curve

b)

Supply curve

c)

Laffer curve

d)

Indifference curve

41.

Describe the difference: Movement along the supply curve is caused by which change?

a)

A change in price

b)

A change in technology

c)

A change in input costs

d)

A change in the number of producers

42.

A shift of the supply curve is caused by what?

a)

A change in price only

b)

A change in any factor other than price

c)

Seasonal variation in demand

d)

Government cannot cause shifts

43.

Match each letter code with the non‑price determinant of supply.

a)

P

1.

Producer expectations

b)

R

2.

Regulations

c)

O

3.

Input costs

44.

What happens when Quantity Supplied ( QsQ_s ) equals Quantity Demanded ( QdQ_d )?

a)

A surplus occurs

b)

A shortage occurs

45.

What is EpE_p ?

a)

The quantity at which Qs=QdQ_s = Q_d

b)

The price at which Qs=QdQ_s = Q_d

46.

What is EqE_q ?

a)

The quantity at which Qs=QdQ_s = Q_d

b)

The price at which Qs=QdQ_s = Q_d

47.

What is the relationship between QsQ_s and QdQ_d when there is a surplus?

a)

Qs>QdQ_s > Q_d

b)

Qs<QdQ_s < Q_d

48.

In order to return to equilibrium, what happens to prices when there is a surplus?

a)

Prices need to increase

b)

Prices need to decrease

49.

What is the relationship between QsQ_s and QdQ_d when there is a shortage?

a)

Qs>QdQ_s > Q_d

b)

Qs<QdQ_s < Q_d

50.

In order to return to equilibrium, what happens to prices when there is a shortage?

a)

Prices need to increase

b)

Prices need to decrease

51.

Show the relationship between Demand ( DD ), price equilibrium ( EpE_p ), and quantity equilibrium ( EqE_q ) when Demand increases or decreases. Select the option that correctly summarizes both cases.

a)

When DD increases: EpE_p increases, EqE_q increases; when DD decreases: EpE_p decreases, EqE_q decreases

b)

When DD increases: EpE_p decreases, EqE_q decreases

52.

What is a price floor?

a)

A legal minimum price below which the price of a good may not fall

b)

A legal maximum price above which the price may not rise

53.

What is traded in international trade? Select all that apply.

a)

Raw materials

b)

Technology

c)

Ideas

d)

Personal chores

54.

According to the table labeled INTERNATIONAL TRADE, which item is listed as a pro of international trade?

a)

Increase in domestic unemployment

b)

Specialization

c)

Political retaliation

d)

Embargoes

55.

Which item is listed as a con of international trade in the INTERNATIONAL TRADE table?

a)

Lower prices for consumers

b)

Increased standard of living

c)

Increase in domestic unemployment

d)

Specialization

56.

What are exports in international trade?

a)

Goods and services bought from other countries

b)

Goods and services sold to other countries

c)

Money sent abroad as aid

d)

Foreign investments made domestically

57.

What are imports in international trade?

a)

Goods and services sold to other countries

b)

Goods and services bought from other countries

c)

Taxes collected on foreign goods

d)

Limits on the amount of goods traded

58.

Why do countries trade goods, according to the worksheet?

a)

To reduce the number of available resources

b)

Because no country has all the resources necessary to efficiently produce everything its people need

c)

To eliminate domestic jobs

d)

Because imports always cost less than exports

59.

Which inequality describes a trade surplus?

a)

Imports > Exports

b)

Exports > Imports

c)

Imports = Exports

d)

Exports + Imports = 00

60.

Which inequality describes a trade deficit?

a)

Exports > Imports

b)

Imports > Exports

c)

Imports = Exports

d)

Exports − Imports = 00

61.

Given U.S. exports 1.81.8 quadrillion and U.S. imports 2.82.8 quadrillion, what is the U.S. trade status?

a)

Trade surplus

b)

Balanced trade

c)

Trade deficit

d)

No trade

62.

Trade barriers are described as government policies designed to do what?

a)

Make trade between countries easier

b)

Make trade between countries more difficult

c)

Eliminate domestic taxes

d)

Increase foreign investment

63.

Which item is listed as a pro of trade barriers in the TRADE BARRIERS table?

a)

Leads to higher prices

b)

Less innovation

c)

Protects domestic jobs

d)

Political retaliation

64.

Which item is listed as a con of trade barriers in the TRADE BARRIERS table?

a)

Protects new industries

b)

Improve the balance of trade

c)

Leads to higher prices

d)

Protects domestic jobs

65.

What is a tariff?

a)

A tax on imported goods

b)

A subsidy for domestic companies

c)

A limit on the amount of a good that can be imported

d)

A complete cutoff of trade with a nation

66.

What is a primary price effect of tariffs on foreign products?

a)

They become cheaper

b)

Prices remain unchanged

c)

They become more expensive

d)

They become illegal

67.

Tariffs are designed to protect which kind of domestic industries?

a)

Export-competing

b)

Import-competing

c)

Service-only

d)

Embargoed

68.

Which statement about tariffs is noted as a possible downside?

a)

Some domestic industries can be hurt by tariffs

b)

Tariffs always lower consumer prices

c)

Tariffs eliminate imports entirely

d)

Tariffs increase innovation

69.

What is an import quota?

a)

A tax on imported goods

b)

A limit on the amount of a good that can be imported

c)

A policy to decrease the cost of production for domestic companies

d)

A law that cuts off all trade with a nation

70.

Which example illustrates a U.S. import quota from the worksheet?

a)

A tariff on automobiles

b)

The U.S. limits the amount of imported sugar

c)

A subsidy to green energy companies

d)

An embargo on North Korea

71.

According to the worksheet, who benefits from a sugar import quota?

a)

Domestic sugar producers

b)

U.S. food companies such as Coca Cola

c)

Foreign sugar exporters

d)

Consumers of sugary drinks

72.

According to the worksheet, who is hurt by the sugar import quota example?

a)

Domestic sugar producers

b)

U.S. food companies such as Coca Cola

c)

Foreign sugar exporters only

d)

Consumers of leafy greens

73.

What is an embargo?

a)

A limit on the quantity of imports

b)

A tax on imported goods

c)

Law(s) that cuts off all trade with a nation—no imports and no exports

d)

A subsidy to reduce production costs

74.

Which examples on the worksheet are embargoes? Select all that apply.

a)

1985 embargo against South Africa helped end apartheid

b)

Current embargo with North Korea

c)

Domestic tariff on sugar

d)

Energy production subsidy

75.

What are domestic subsidies intended to do, according to the worksheet?

a)

Increase the price of foreign goods

b)

Decrease the cost of production for domestic companies

c)

Cut off all trade with a nation

d)

Limit the quantity of imports

76.

Domestic subsidies are designed to protect which companies?

a)

Export-competing companies

b)

Import-competing companies

c)

Foreign-owned companies

d)

Only service-sector companies

77.

Which amount is noted as energy production subsidies to fossil fuel (oil/natural gas/etc.) companies?

a)

11.311.3 billion

b)

2.82.8 billion

c)

1.81.8 billion

d)

2.82.8 quadrillion

78.

Which amount is noted as subsidies to green energy (solar/wind/etc.) companies?

a)

2.82.8 billion

b)

11.311.3 billion

c)

1.31.3 billion

d)

2828 billion

79.

Business Cycle — Define the Business Cycle.

a)

The long-run trend of economic growth over decades

b)

The short-run fluctuation between economic recession and expansion

c)

Government planning of production and prices

d)

Seasonal changes in consumer spending

80.

Business Cycle — Using the provided diagram of the business cycle, identify which phase is at the highest point of the curve.

a)

Expansion

b)

Peak

c)

Recession

d)

Trough

81.

Business Cycle — Place the phases of the business cycle in the correct order starting at a trough.

a)

Recession → Peak → Expansion → Trough

b)

Expansion → Peak → Recession → Trough

c)

Peak → Expansion → Recession → Trough

d)

Expansion → Recession → Peak → Trough

82.

Business Cycle — What happens during a recession (contraction)?

a)

Upturn in the cycle

b)

Downturn in the cycle

c)

Prices stabilize at the peak

d)

Government increases money supply automatically

83.

Business Cycle — What happens during an expansion (recovery)?

a)

Downturn in the cycle

b)

Upturn in the cycle

c)

Permanent peak in GDP

d)

Automatic rise in unemployment

84.

Business Cycle — Why is it important to control strong expansions?

a)

To ensure prices will not rise out of control

b)

To keep unemployment permanently high

c)

To reduce government spending only

d)

To eliminate recessions entirely

85.

Business Cycle — Why is it important to control the severity of recessions?

a)

So prices will rise quickly

b)

So people have jobs and money to spend

c)

So expansion phases are shorter

d)

So inflation is always zero

86.

Business Cycle — During an expansion, what typically happens to GDP?

a)

GDP goes up

b)

GDP goes down

c)

GDP stays fixed at the trend line

d)

GDP becomes unpredictable

87.

Business Cycle — During an expansion, what typically happens to unemployment?

a)

Unemployment goes up

b)

Unemployment goes down

c)

Unemployment is unchanged

d)

Unemployment becomes highly volatile

88.

Business Cycle — During an expansion, what typically happens to inflation?

a)

Inflation goes down

b)

Inflation goes up

c)

Inflation stays at zero

d)

Inflation is unrelated to the cycle

89.

Business Cycle — During a recession, what typically happens to GDP?

a)

GDP goes up

b)

GDP goes down

c)

GDP is unaffected

d)

GDP doubles

90.

Business Cycle — During a recession, what typically happens to unemployment?

a)

Unemployment goes up

b)

Unemployment goes down

c)

Unemployment is unchanged

d)

Unemployment disappears

91.

Business Cycle — During a recession, what typically happens to inflation?

a)

Inflation goes up

b)

Inflation goes down

c)

Inflation becomes infinite

d)

Inflation is unrelated to GDP

92.

Economic Indicators — Which description best defines Leading Indicators?

a)

Metrics that change after the economy has already shifted

b)

Measures that move at the same time as overall economic activity

c)

Statistics that tend to change before the broader economy does

d)

Historical averages that never change with the cycle

93.

Economic Indicators — Which description best defines Coincident Indicators?

a)

Measures that tend to change before the broader economy does

b)

Metrics that change after the economy has already shifted

c)

Measures that move at the same time as overall economic activity

d)

Indicators that are unrelated to GDP, unemployment, or inflation

94.

Economic Indicators — Which description best defines Lagging Indicators?

a)

Measures that tend to change before the broader economy does

b)

Metrics that change after the economy has already shifted

c)

Indicators that move exactly with current conditions

d)

Statistics that never change

95.

Match each type of economic indicator to when it changes relative to the overall economy.

a)

Leading indicator

1.

Becomes weak before a recession and strong before an expansion

b)

Coincident indicator

2.

Changes at roughly the same time as the economy

c)

Lagging indicator

3.

Does not change until after the economy has already begun to enter a recession or an expansion

96.

What does Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure and why is it important?

a)

The value of all final goods and services produced within a country, used to track the health and growth of the economy

b)

Total sales of intermediate goods used in production processes

c)

Daily changes in stock market prices as an indicator of national wealth

d)

The amount of money in circulation regardless of production

97.

Select all items that are excluded from the calculation of GDP.

a)

Used goods

b)

Financial assets such as stocks and bonds

c)

Household production or subsistence farming

d)

Underground markets

e)

Goods and services produced within the country’s borders during the current period

98.

Match each approach to calculating GDP with what it sums.

a)

Production approach

1.

Sales price minus the price of inputs

b)

Income approach

2.

Wages + Interest + Rent + Profit

c)

Expenditure approach

3.

Consumer Spending + Investment + Government Spending + Net Exports

99.

Which combination of unemployment types is included in the Natural Rate of Unemployment (NRU)?

a)

Frictional + Structural + Seasonal

b)

Frictional + Cyclical

c)

Structural + Cyclical + Seasonal

d)

Frictional + Structural + Cyclical + Seasonal

100.

Match each type of unemployment to its description.

a)

Frictional

1.

People who are fired, laid off, or quit

b)

Structural

2.

Too many laborers for a market (mismatch between workers’ skills and available jobs)

c)

Cyclical

3.

Fluctuation in the business cycle

d)

Seasonal

4.

Short-term job based on a season

101.

Who is counted as employed for labor statistics?

a)

Worked in the last week or were on vacation or sick, and are at least 16 years old

b)

Worked less than an hour last week and were actively looking for work for four weeks

c)

Are available for work but not actively seeking work and under 16 years old

d)

Are serving in the military or are in an institution

102.

Who is counted as unemployed for labor statistics?

a)

Worked less than an hour last week, have been actively looking for work for four weeks, are available for work, and are not in the military or an institution

b)

Worked full time last week but are looking for a second job

c)

Are retired and not seeking employment

d)

Are students not seeking work

103.

What is the correct formula for the unemployment rate?

a)

Unemployed workers ÷ (employed workers + unemployed workers)

b)

Employed workers ÷ total population

c)

Unemployed workers ÷ employed workers

d)

(Employed workers + unemployed workers) ÷ unemployed workers

104.

What is the “market basket,” and how is it used in relation to inflation (for example, the CPI)?

a)

It consists of items the average family of four would purchase in a city; the percentage change in the CPI based on this basket is the inflation rate

b)

It is a list of items for luxury households; its price level alone is the inflation rate

c)

It is the set of goods purchased by businesses; the change in business spending defines inflation

d)

It is a collection of government purchases; its change determines inflation

105.

Which equation is used to calculate the inflation rate?

a)

(New CPI − Old CPI) ÷ Old CPI × 100

b)

(Old CPI − New CPI) ÷ New CPI × 100

c)

New CPI ÷ Old CPI × 100

d)

(New CPI − Old CPI) × 100

106.

Select all causes of inflation listed.

a)

Money supply increases, which raises demand and prices

b)

Money demand decreases

c)

Aggregate demand increases (demand-pull inflation)

d)

Aggregate supply decreases (cost-push inflation)

e)

Aggregate supply increases, reducing costs

107.

Select all recognized costs of inflation listed.

a)

Unexpected inflation can positively or negatively affect lenders and borrowers

b)

Shoe-leather costs due to people avoiding holding money

c)

Menu costs of changing prices, which occur more frequently with high inflation

d)

Lower transaction costs resulting from inflation

e)

Automatic reduction in interest rates

108.

What is the optimal inflation rate, and what does the optimal rate avoid?

a)

An inflation rate of 0%; it avoids any change in purchasing power

b)

An inflation rate between 2% and 3%; it avoids the negative costs of inflation

c)

An inflation rate between 5% and 6%; it avoids deflation

d)

An inflation rate above 10%; it avoids unemployment

109.

Which tools do lawmakers use for fiscal policy? Select all that apply.

a)

Taxes

b)

Government spending

c)

Setting bank reserve requirements

d)

Managing exchange rates

110.

How can the fiscal policy tools be used to increase GDP and improve the economy?

a)

Increase taxes and decrease government spending

b)

Decrease taxes and increase government spending

c)

Increase taxes and increase government spending

d)

Decrease taxes and decrease government spending

111.

How can the fiscal policy tools be used to slow down inflation and keep the economy from going into a recession?

a)

Increase taxes and decrease government spending

b)

Decrease taxes and increase government spending

c)

Decrease taxes and decrease government spending

d)

Increase taxes and increase government spending

112.

How is aggregate demand affected by an expansionary fiscal policy?

a)

Aggregate demand decreases because taxes are raised and government spending is cut

b)

Aggregate demand increases because taxes are lowered and government spending rises, putting more money into individuals’ hands and boosting purchases, including social welfare programs

c)

Aggregate demand is unchanged because fiscal policy only affects interest rates

d)

Aggregate demand decreases because social welfare programs reduce consumer purchases

113.
Question Image

Match each tax structure to its typical example based on the table.

a)

Proportional tax

1.

“Flat” income tax

b)

Progressive tax

2.

U.S. income tax

c)

Regressive tax

3.

Sales taxes

114.

Which of the following are ways the government can fix a budget deficit? Select all that apply.

a)

Raise taxes

b)

Lower government spending

c)

Print money

d)

Borrow money

115.

Using the options for fixing a budget deficit, which choice is least politically harmful for lawmakers?

a)

Raise taxes

b)

Lower government spending

c)

Print money

d)

Borrow money

116.

What does Keynesian Economics advocate?

a)

Passive government with no intervention in the economy

b)

Active policy responses by policymakers (monetary and fiscal policy) to stabilize the business cycle

c)

Eliminating all taxes to maximize private investment

d)

Strict price controls to eliminate inflation

117.

During which periods of American history has Keynesian Economics been the primary economic model? Select all that apply.

a)

Mid 1930s to mid 1970s

b)

1980s to early 2000s

c)

2008 to present

d)

1870s to 1890s

118.

Which are the two types of economic stabilizers used by Keynesian economists? Select all that apply.

a)

Automatic stabilizers (built-in tax and transfer mechanisms)

b)

Discretionary fiscal policy (deliberate government actions)

c)

Supply-side tax credits

d)

Wage and price controls

119.

What is “the Fed”?

a)

The central bank of the U.S.

b)

A private banking consortium with no government oversight

c)

The Department of the Treasury

d)

A state-level banking authority

120.

What created the Fed?

a)

Federal Reserve Act of 1913

b)

Glass–Steagall Act of 1933

c)

Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890

d)

Sarbanes–Oxley Act of 2002

121.

How many Federal Reserve Bank districts are there in the U.S.?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

8

d)

15

122.

Select the three main jobs of the Fed.

a)

Make sure banks are sound and safe

b)

Provide financial and payment services to banks

c)

Promote a healthy economy using monetary policy

d)

Set individual banks’ lending rates for each loan

e)

Write federal tax law

123.

What is the typical effect of an increase in the money supply on the economy?

a)

It should boost the economy

b)

It should slow inflation

c)

It immediately causes a recession

d)

It has no measurable impact

124.

What is the typical effect of a decrease in the money supply on the economy?

a)

It should slow inflation

b)

It should boost the economy

c)

It guarantees hyperinflation

d)

It eliminates unemployment

125.
Question Image

Match each monetary policy tool with how it can help grow or slow the economy.

a)

Buying/Selling government securities (bonds)

1.

Buying bonds grows by putting more money into circulation; selling bonds slows by pulling money out

b)

Increasing/Decreasing reserve requirement

2.

Decreasing the reserve requirement grows by allowing more loans; increasing it slows by forcing banks to hold more

c)

Increasing/Decreasing discount rate

3.

Decreasing the discount rate grows by making borrowing cheaper; increasing it slows by making borrowing more expensive

126.

Using the information above, identify the actions associated with expansionary fiscal and monetary policy. Select all that apply.

a)

Business cycle: recession

b)

Taxes: decrease

c)

Government spending: increase

d)

Money supply: increase

e)

Government securities: buy

127.

Using the information above, identify the actions associated with contractionary fiscal and monetary policy. Select all that apply.

a)

Business cycle: expansion

b)

Taxes: increase

c)

Government spending: decrease

d)

Money supply: decrease

e)

Government securities: sell

128.

Using the information above, which actions on banking requirements and rates are contractionary? Select all that apply.

a)

Decrease the reserve requirement

b)

Increase the reserve requirement

c)

Decrease the discount rate

d)

Increase the discount rate