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FAA sUAS Regulations Worksheet

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You are operating a 1,280g (2.8 lb) quadcopter for your own enjoyment. What FAA regulation is this sUAS operation subject to?

a)

14 CFR Part 48

b)

14 CFR Part 107

c)

This operation is not subject to FAA regulations

2.

You have accepted football tickets in exchange for using your sUAS to videotape a future construction zone. What FAA regulation is this sUAS operation subject to?

a)

This operation is not subject to FAA regulations

b)

14 CFR Part 107

c)

14 CFR Part 101

3.

You plan to operate a 33 lb sUAS to capture aerial imagery over real estate for use in sales listings. What FAA regulation is this sUAS operation subject to?

a)

14 CFR Part 101

b)

14 CFR Part 107

c)

This operation is not subject to FAA regulations

4.

Which of the following types of operations are excluded from the requirements in 14 CFR Part 107?

a)

UAS used for motion picture filming

b)

Model aircraft for hobby use

c)

Quadcopter capturing aerial imagery for crop monitoring

5.

Which of the following is operations would be regulated by 14 CFR Part 107?

a)

Conducting public operations during a search mission

b)

Flying for enjoyment with family and friends

c)

Operating your sUAS for an imagery company

6.

As a remote pilot with a sUAS rating, under which situation can you deviate from 14 CFR Part 107?

a)

In response to an in-flight emergency

b)

Flying for enjoyment with family and friends

c)

When conducting public operations during a search mission

7.

What action, if any, is appropriate if the remote pilot deviates from Part 107 during an emergency?

a)

Submit a detailed report to the FAA upon request

b)

Ignore the deviation

c)

Continue flying without reporting

d)

Notify local authorities

8.

Which of these operations must comply with 14 CFR Part 107?

a)

Public and military operations

b)

Civil and public operations

c)

Civil operations

9.

To avoid possible collision with a manned aircraft, you estimate that your sUAS climbed to an altitude greater than 600 feet AGL. To whom must you report the deviation?

a)

the NTSB

b)

Air Traffic Control

c)

Upon request to the FAA

10.

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no remote PIC may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

a)

File a detailed report to the FAA Administrator, upon request

b)

Notify the ATC immediately

c)

Continue flying as planned

d)

Request a new clearance

11.

When the clearance states "at pilot's discretion"

a)

an emergency

b)

if the clearance contains a restriction

12.

14 CFR Part 107 applies to

a)

Public sUAS

b)

civil sUAS

c)

all sUAS

13.

To satisfy medical requirements, all sUAS crewmembers must

a)

hold a valid Third Class Medical Certificate

b)

complete a physical with an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME)

c)

be free of any physical or mental condition that would interfere with the safe operation of the small unmanned aircraft system

14.

Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough crewmembers for a sUAS operation?

a)

Person manipulating the controls

b)

Remote pilot-in-command

c)

Visual Observer

15.

Who is ultimately responsible for preventing a hazardous situation before an accident occurs?

a)

Remote pilot-in-command

b)

Person manipulating the controls

c)

Visual Observer

16.

Which crewmember must hold a remote pilot certificate with an sUAS rating?

a)

Remote pilot-in-command

b)

Visual Observer

c)

Person manipulating the controls

17.

When using an sUAS in a commercial operation, who is responsible for briefing the participants about emergency procedures?

a)

The lead VO

b)

The FAA Inspector in charge

c)

The remote pilot-in-command

18.

The remote PIC may operate how many sUAS at a time?

a)

5

b)

1

c)

No more than 2

19.

Which crewmember is required to be under direct supervision of the remote PIC when operating an sUAS?

a)

Remote pilot-in-command

b)

Visual Observer

c)

Person manipulating the controls

20.

A person without a Part 107 Remote Pilot certificate may operate an sUAS for commercial operations

a)

alone, if operating during daylight hours

b)

only when visual observers participate in the operation

c)

under the direct supervision of a remote PIC

21.

Whose sole task during an sUAS operation is to watch the sUAS and report potential hazards to the rest of the crew?

a)

Remote pilot-in-command

b)

Person manipulating the controls

c)

Visual Observer

22.

Which of the following crewmembers must be used during Part 107 operations?

a)

Remote PIC, VO, and person manipulating the controls

b)

Remote pilot-in-command

c)

Remote PIC and visual observer

23.

An autonomous operation requires the following crewmembers:

a)

Remote PIC and visual observer

b)

Remote PIC, VO, and person manipulating the controls

c)

Remote pilot-in-command

24.

You are part of a news crew, operating an sUAS to cover a breaking story. You experience a flyaway during landing. The unmanned aircraft strikes a vehicle causing approximately $800 worth of damage. When must you report the incident to the FAA?

a)

Within 24 hours

b)

Within 10 days

c)

Within 30 days

d)

No need to report

25.

Within how many days must an sUAS accident be reported to the FAA?

a)

90 Days

b)

10 Days

c)

30 Days

26.

As you are flying your sUAS, valued at 1,000,overahometophotographitforreal−estatesalespurposes,thesUAShasafailurecausingittofallontoanawningcausingsomeminordamage.Thefairmarketvalueoftheawningis1,000, over a home to photograph it for real-estate sales purposes, the sUAS has a failure causing it to fall onto an awning causing some minor damage. The fair market value of the awning is 800 but it can be repaired for $400. What type of report is required?

a)

An sUAS incident report to the FAA, within 10 days of the operation

b)

An sUAS accident report to the FAA, within 10 days of the operation

c)

No report required

27.

When must a current remote pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

a)

At all times during operation

b)

Only during takeoff

c)

Only during landing

d)

Whenever requested by an FAA inspector

28.

Who is authorized to inspect these documents?

a)

federal, state, or local law enforcement officer

b)

authorized representative of the Administrator of the Department of Transportation

c)

authorized representative of the Department of State

29.

If requested, to whom must I present my remote pilot certificate?

a)

A person of authority

b)

Authorized representative of the Department of State

c)

FAA Inspector

30.

A small, unmanned aircraft does not have to be registered before operating in the US under which condition?

a)

If it weighs less than 0.55 pounds (250 grams)

b)

If it is flown only indoors

c)

If it is used for commercial purposes

d)

If it is operated by a licensed pilot

31.

Which statement is correct?

a)

When the aircraft has a takeoff weight that is more than .55 pounds but less than 55 pounds, not including fuel and necessary attachments

b)

When the aircraft weighs less than .55 pounds on takeoff, including everything that is on-board or attached to the aircraft

c)

All small unmanned aircraft need to be registered regardless of the weight of the aircraft before, during, and after the flight

32.

A civil small unmanned aircraft operating under Part 107 is permitted to

a)

operate only if possessing a US registration certificate

b)

operate if possessing either a US registration or foreign registration certificate

c)

have dual registration in both the US and a foreign country

33.

Where must a small unmanned aircraft's serial number be listed when using either standard remote ID or a broadcast module?

a)

The manufacturer's Method of Compliance

b)

The Certificate of Aircraft Registration

c)

The aircraft's Document of Compliance

34.

Does an sUAS equipped with ADS-B meet the requirements for remote identification?

a)

Yes

b)

No

35.

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

a)

Visually inspect the pilot certificates of all crewmembers

b)

Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries

c)

Assess the operating environment including local weather conditions, local airspace and any flight restrictions, the location of persons and property on the surface, and other ground hazards

36.

You intend to conduct an unmanned aircraft operation 60 minutes past the end of evening civil twilight to inspect a flashing beacon atop a radio tower. To conduct this operation, you will be required to

a)

obtain a certificate of waiver

b)

have functioning anti-collision lighting which is visible for at least 3 statute miles

c)

contact the nearest air traffic control facility to advise them of your operation

37.

Always

a)

No

b)

Yes

38.

What should you do if there are high intensity pulsating lights in the area during a night flight?

a)

Ask them to be turned off

b)

Use the first person view (FPV)

c)

Determine if they are turned on full strength

39.

How should the control station backlighting be set for night flight?

a)

Set to pulsating mode

b)

As low as possible to maintain night vision

c)

As bright as possible

40.

A crew conducting surveillance anticipates losing visual sight with the sUAS within a small segment of the flight plan. The flight

a)

may be conducted if the visual line of sight can be maintained for 50% of the route

b)

must be rerouted to maintain visual line of sight

c)

may be conducted using binoculars

41.

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum airspeed at which a person may operate an sUAS below 400ft?

4 lines
42.

According to 14 CFR Part 107, what is the maximum airspeed for a small UA?

a)

200 knots

b)

80 mph

c)

100 mph

43.

According to 14 CFR Part 107, what is the maximum ground speed for a small UA?

a)

87 mph

b)

87 knots

c)

100 knots

44.

In accordance with 14 CFR Part 107, at what maximum altitude can you operate a sUAS when inspecting a tower with a top at 1,000 feet AGL at close proximity (within 100ft)?

a)

1,400 feet MSL

b)

400 feet AGL

c)

1,400 feet AGL

45.

What may be used to assist compliance with sUAS see-and-avoid requirements?

a)

Binoculars

b)

remote pilot diligence

c)

First-person view cameras

46.

During a flight of your small unmanned aircraft, you observe a hot air balloon entering the area. You should

a)

ensure the unmanned aircraft passes below, above, or ahead of the balloon

b)

yield the right-of-way to the hot air balloon

c)

expect the hot air balloon to climb above your altitude

47.

A professional wildlife photographer operates an sUAS from a moving truck to capture aerial images of migrating birds in remote wetlands. The driver of the truck does not serve any crewmember role in the operation. Is this sUAS operation in compliance with 14 CFR Part 107?

a)

Compliant with Part 107

b)

Not compliant with state and local traffic laws

c)

Not compliant with Part 107

48.

Which of the following operations is compliant with 14 CFR Part 107?

a)

Remote PIC is a passenger on an aircraft in flight while operating a sUAS

b)

Remote PIC is a passenger in a moving boat while operating an sUAS in an unpopulated area

c)

Remote PIC is driving a moving vehicle while operating an sUAS in a sparsely populated area

49.

Which categories of operation require an FAA accepted current DOC?

a)

Categories 1 and 4

b)

Categories 1 and 2

c)

Categories 2 and 3

50.

Personnel at an outdoor concert venue use an sUAS to drop promotional T-shirts and CDs over the audience. Is this sUAS operation in compliance with 14 CFR 107?

a)

Not compliant with Part 107

b)

Yes, compliant with Part 107

c)

No, unless authorized by the venue

51.

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from the sUAS?

a)

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface

b)

In an emergency

c)

If prior permission is received from the FAA

52.

You plan to release golf balls from your small unmanned aircraft at an altitude of 100 feet AGL. You must ensure the objects being dropped will

a)

not cause property damage in excess of $300

b)

not create an undue hazard to persons or property

c)

land within 10 feet of the expected landing zone

53.

You wish to start a local delivery business using an sUAS to drop small packages at the front door of a customer. The customer's residence is not always within visual line of sight (VLOS) of the remote PIC located at the delivery facility. Under which circumstance would this be authorized?

a)

There is currently no way to do this in compliance with AC 107-2

b)

By utilizing a vehicle to follow the sUAS while enroute to maintain VLOS

c)

With a waiver from the FAA

54.

After having dinner and wine, your client asks you to go outside to demonstrate the small unmanned aircraft's capabilities. You must

a)

not operate a small unmanned aircraft within 8 hours of consuming any alcoholic beverage

b)

ensure that your visual observer has not consumed any alcoholic beverages in the previous 12 hours

c)

pass a self-administered sobriety test before operating the small unmanned aircraft

55.

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a sUAS with

a)

.004% by weight or more alcohol in the blood

b)

.04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood

c)

.4% by weight or more alcohol in the blood

56.

A law enforcement officer witnesses careless or reckless behavior while observing sUAS operations and requests the operator submit to a drug or alcohol test. What are the consequences if this request is denied?

a)

The operator may be denied an application for a Remote Pilot Certificate for up to 30 days

b)

The operator may have their Remote Pilot Certificate with sUAS rating suspended or revoked

c)

The operator may have to pay a fine but their Remote Pilot Certificate will not be affected.

57.

When can someone with a marijuana conviction apply for a Remote Pilot Certificate?

a)

Never

b)

1 year

c)

18 months

58.

If you are caught smoking marijuana the FAA will

a)

issue an immediate suspension or revocation of your pilot certificate

b)

deny all future pilot applications

c)

Send you to a drug treatment center

59.

What FAA resource can pilots reference to learn more about the impact of drugs and alcohol on flight?

a)

The Pilot's Handbook of Aeronautical Knowledge

b)

The Pilot operating Handbook

c)

NOTAMs

60.

If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privilege of the pilot certificate for a period of only

a)

60 days after the date of the move

b)

30 days after the date of the move

c)

90 days after the date of the move

61.

Flight Data Center (FDC) NOTAMs are issued by the National Flight Data Center and contain regulatory information such as:

a)

markings and signs used at airports

b)

standard communication procedures at uncontrolled airports

c)

temporary flight restrictions

62.

Time-critical information on airports and changes that affect the national airspace system (NAS) are provided by:

a)

Advisory Circulars (AC)

b)

The Chart Supplement

c)

Notices to Air Missions (NOTAMs)

63.

One of the purposes for issuing a temporary flight restriction (TFR) is to:

a)

announce Parachute Jump Areas

b)

identify Airport Advisory Areas

c)

protect public figures

64.

Public figures are protected by:

a)

temporary flight restrictions

b)

airport advisory areas

c)

parachute jump areas

65.

Which of the following is a type of airspace that can be temporarily restricted for flight operations?

a)

prohibited areas

b)

special use airspace

c)

temporary flight restrictions

66.

Your surveying company is a title sponsor for a race team at the Indy 500. To promote your new aerial surveying department, you decide to video part of the race using a small unmanned aircraft. The FAA has issued a TFR for the race in the area you plan to fly. In this situation:

a)

flying your drone is allowed if you notify all non-participating people of the closed course of the small unmanned aircraft operation

b)

you may fly your drone in the TFR since your company is sponsoring a team in the race

c)

the TRF applies to all aircraft; you may not fly in the area without a Certificate of Waiver of Authorization

67.

Refer to Figure 31. Within what airspace is Coeur D'Alene Pappy Boyington Field located?

a)

Class E

b)

Class B

c)

Class D

68.

What special conditions do remote pilots need to be on the lookout for while operating near Lincoln Airport?

a)

Parachute operations

b)

Birds in the vicinity

c)

Deer near the runway

69.

When can UAS operations resume relative to this NOTAM?

a)

Once the Blue Angels have landed

b)

With ATC authorization

c)

Immediately, so long as a 1NM distance is maintained

70.

Refer to Figure 25, Area 4. The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is

a)

3,200 feet MSL

b)

4,000 feet MSL

c)

at the surface

71.

Refer to Figure 25, Area 4. What is the base of the Class B airspace over Hicks Airport (T67)?

a)

3,000 feet MSL

b)

4,000 feet MSL

c)

5,000 feet MSL

d)

6,000 feet MSL

72.

Refer to Figure 25, Area 3. The floor of Class B airspace at Dallas Executive (RBD) is

a)

3,000 feet MSL

b)

3,100 feet MSL

c)

at the surface

73.

Refer to Figure 23, Area 3. What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

a)

1,300 feet MSL

b)

1,300 feet AGL

c)

1,700 feet MSL

74.

According to 14 CFR Part 107, the remote PIC of a small unmanned aircraft planning to operate within Class C airspace

a)

must use a visual observer

b)

is required to file a flight plan

c)

is required to receive ATC authorization

75.

According to 14 CFR Part 107, how may a remote PIC operate an unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace?

a)

The remote PIC must monitor the ATC frequency from launch to recovery

b)

The remote PIC must have prior authorization from the ATC facility having jurisdiction over that airspace

c)

The remote PIC must contact the ATC facility after launching the unmanned aircraft

76.

The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on

a)

the number of airports that lie within the Class D airpace

b)

the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

c)

5 SM from the geographical center of the primary airport

77.

What ATC permissions are required to operate near Anderson Airport?

a)

ATC clearance required

b)

No ATC permission is required

c)

Waiver must be requested

78.

Refer to Figure 78. What class of airspace is associated with Sioux Gateway/Col Day (SUX) airport?

a)

Class C

b)

Class B

c)

Class D

79.

The typical outer radius limits of Class C airspace are

a)

10 NM

b)

30 NM

c)

20 NM

80.

Refer to Figure 25, Area 2. The airspace directly overlying Addison Airport (ADS) is

a)

Class D up to but not including 3,000 feet MSL

b)

Class D up to 3,000 feet MSL

c)

Class E from the surface up to 3,000 feet MSL

81.

Refer to Figure 26, Area 1. The airspace overlying Tomlinson Airport is:

a)

Class G up to 18,000

b)

Class E from 700 up to but not including 18,000

c)

Class E from 1,200 up to but not including 18,000

82.

Refer to Figure 78. You have been hired to fly your UA to inspect train tracks from the town of Hinton to the town of Winnebego. Will you be able to conduct this flight without contacting ATC?

a)

No because you will pass through Class Echo airspace

b)

No because you will pass through Class D airspace

c)

Yes because you will remain under 400 feet

83.

Refer to Figure 78. You have been hired to use your small UAS to inspect the railroad tracks from Blencoe (SE of Sioux City) to Onawa. Will ATC authorization be required?

a)

Yes, Onawa is in Class D airspace that is designated for an airport

b)

No, your entire flight is in Class G airspace

c)

Yes, you must contact the Onawa control tower to operate within 5 miles of the airport

84.

Refer to Figure 78. You are hired to inspect the railroad tracks from the town of Hinton, north of Sioux City, to the town of Winnebago. Will you require ATC authorization?

a)

Yes

b)

No

85.

You have been hired by a farmer to use your small unmanned aircraft to inspect his crops. The area that you are to survey is in the Devil's Lake West MOA, east of area 2. How would you find out if the MOA is active?

a)

Refer to the military operations directory

b)

This information is available in the Small UAS database

c)

Refer to the legend for special use airspace phone number

86.

Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

a)

air traffic control

b)

all pilots

c)

the controlling agency

87.

At Couer D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

4 lines
88.

Which frequency is correct?

a)

122.05 MHz

b)

135.075 MHz

c)

122.8 MHz

89.

Refer to Figure 26, Area 4. You have been hired to inspect the tower under construction at 46.9N and 98.6W, near Jamestown Regional (JMS). What must you receive prior to flying your unmanned aircraft in this area?

a)

Authorization from the military

b)

Authorization from ATC

c)

Authorization from the National Park Service

90.

Refer to Figure 59, Area 2. The chart shows a gray line with "VR1667, VR1617, VR1638, and VR1668." Could this area present a hazard to the operations of a small unmanned aircraft?

a)

No, all operations will be above 400 feet

b)

Yes, the defined route provides traffic separation to manned aircraft

c)

Yes, this is a Military Training Route from 1,500 feet AGL and below

91.

Refer to Figure 24, Area 5. You are operating an sUAS in the vicinity of Sulphur Springs Airport (SUR) where there is active air traffic. Who has priority and right-of-way within the traffic pattern area?

a)

Manned aircraft

b)

sUAS

c)

Drones

d)

Helicopters

92.

Priority and right-of-way goes to the aircraft closest to the landing runway. Who has the right-of-way?

a)

The existing manned aircraft

b)

The sUAS

93.

Refer to Figure 71, Area 6. Sky Way Airport is

a)

an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots

b)

a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace

c)

a non-public use airport

94.

Refer to Figure 71, Area 1. The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (E36) is at

a)

the surface

b)

700 feet AGL

c)

3,823 feet MSL

95.

Refer to Figure 75. The airspace surrounding the Gila Bend AF Aux Airport (GXF) (area 6) is classified as Class

a)

A) B

b)

B) C

c)

C) D

96.

Under what condition, if any, may remote pilots fly through a Restricted Area?

a)

When flying on airways with an ATC clearance

b)

Regulations do not allow this

c)

With the controlling agency's authorization

97.

Where can you find information about operating in an MOA along your planned route of flight?

a)

Chart Supplement

b)

Sectional Chart

c)

Aeronautical Information Manuel

98.

Refer to Figure 75, Area 6. During preflight planning, you plan to operate in R-2305. Where would you find additional information regarding this airspace?

a)

In the Aeronautical Information Manual

b)

In the Special Use Airspace area of the chart

c)

In the Charts Supplements US

99.

Refer to Figure 24, Area 6. What type of airport is Card Airport?

a)

Private non-towered

b)

Public towered

c)

Public non-towered

100.

Refer to Figure 26. What does the line of latitude at area 4 measure?

a)

The degrees of latitude east and west of the line that passes through Greenwich, England

b)

The degrees of latitude east and west of the Prime Meridian

c)

The degrees of latitude north and south of the equator