wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Part 107 Weather Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can greatly influence sUAS performance and risk management?

a)

Atmospheric pressure and stability

b)

Wind and currents

c)

Type of sUAS battery used

d)

Precipitation

2.

What is the major source of all weather?

a)

The moon

b)

The sun

c)

The ocean

d)

The Earth's core

3.

Why does less atmospheric heating take place at the poles compared to the equator?

a)

The sun is farther from the poles

b)

Sunrays are more concentrated at the poles

c)

Sunrays are less concentrated over a larger area at the poles

d)

The poles have more vegetation

4.

Which of the following surfaces is most likely to result in updrafts due to radiating a large amount of heat?

a)

Water

b)

Trees

c)

Plowed ground

d)

Grass

5.

How can wind and currents affect sUAS performance during flight?

a)

They have no effect on sUAS performance

b)

They can affect performance and maneuverability in all phases of flight

c)

They only affect performance during takeoff

d)

They only affect performance during landing

6.

What is a potential danger of obstructions on the ground with respect to wind?

a)

They always block the wind completely

b)

They can create rapidly changing wind speed and direction

c)

They have no effect on wind

d)

They make wind predictable

7.

Why do convective currents pose a risk to remote PICs operating sUAS at low altitudes?

a)

They make the air colder

b)

They can cause turbulent air that affects control of the aircraft

c)

They improve visibility

d)

They reduce precipitation

8.

What effect can high winds have on maintaining a geographical position in flight for an unmanned aircraft?

a)

They make it easier to maintain position.

b)

They may make it difficult to maintain position and consume more battery power.

c)

They have no effect on flight.

d)

They always improve aircraft control.

9.

When operating close to a building, what can winds blowing against the building cause?

a)

Downdrafts that sink the aircraft.

b)

Updrafts that can result in ballooning or loss of positive control.

c)

No effect on the aircraft.

d)

Only turbulence with no change in altitude.

10.

What happens to the wind as it flows down the leeward side of a mountain?

a)

It becomes less turbulent and slows down.

b)

It follows the contour of the terrain and becomes increasingly turbulent.

c)

It stops completely.

d)

It always creates updrafts.

11.

What is a front in meteorological terms?

a)

The area of highest temperature in a region.

b)

The division line where an air mass with different properties advances upon a dissimilar air mass.

c)

The center of a high-pressure system.

d)

The lowest point in a valley.

12.

Which of the following best describes a cold front?

a)

The leading edge of an advancing warm air mass.

b)

The leading edge of an advancing cold air mass, often accompanied by poor weather ahead of the front.

c)

An area of high pressure.

d)

The center of a cyclone.

13.

Why should remote pilots be aware of terrain/object wind effects?

a)

Because wind effects only occur at high altitudes.

b)

Because wind effects can exist for some distance downwind of the actual terrain or object.

c)

Because wind effects are always beneficial for flight.

d)

Because wind effects are only present in valleys.

14.

How do warm fronts typically move compared to cold fronts?

a)

Warm fronts move faster than cold fronts.

b)

Warm fronts move about half as fast as cold fronts.

c)

Warm fronts and cold fronts move at the same speed.

d)

Warm fronts do not move.

15.

What is a ridge in meteorological terms?

a)

An elongated area of low pressure.

b)

An elongated area of high pressure.

c)

The leading edge of a cold front.

d)

The center of a cyclone.

16.

What is air mass modification?

a)

When an air mass remains unchanged as it moves.

b)

When an air mass takes on the properties of a new underlying surface as it moves from its source region.

c)

When a front becomes stationary.

d)

When a cyclone forms.

17.

What weather conditions are often associated with cold fronts?

a)

Clear skies and calm winds.

b)

Poor weather ahead of the front, wind shift, increased wind speeds, and sometimes thunderstorms, hail, and tornadoes.

c)

Only light rain.

d)

High temperatures and humidity.

18.

Which color and symbol combination on a surface weather map represents a warm front?

a)

Blue with triangles

b)

Blue with lines and triangles

c)

Red with semicircles

d)

Purple with alternating triangles and semicircles

19.

What is the most easily recognizable discontinuity indicating the passage of a frontal boundary?

a)

A shift in wind direction

b)

A temperature change

c)

A decrease in humidity

d)

An increase in cloud cover

20.

Which of the following best defines atmospheric stability?

a)

The ability of the atmosphere to resist any upward or downward movement

b)

The temperature at the surface of the Earth

c)

The amount of precipitation in the atmosphere

d)

The speed of the wind at high altitudes

21.

What type of clouds and weather are typically associated with a stable air mass forced aloft?

a)

Cumulus clouds, turbulence, and showery precipitation

b)

Stratus clouds, calm air, steady precipitation, and poor visibility

c)

Cirrus clouds and clear skies

d)

Thunderstorms and high winds

22.

Why is it important to determine the stability of the atmosphere for sUAS (small Unmanned Aircraft Systems) operations?

a)

It affects the color of the sky

b)

It determines the amount of sunlight

c)

It impacts the local air mass stability, which can affect flight conditions

d)

It changes the type of precipitation

23.

A student observes a continuous decrease in pressure followed by an increase as a front passes. What does this indicate?

a)

The presence of a ridge

b)

The passage of a frontal boundary

c)

The formation of a squall line

d)

The development of a trough

24.

If the ambient temperature lapse rate is much less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, what can be inferred about the atmospheric stability?

a)

The atmosphere is unstable

b)

The atmosphere is stable

c)

There is no effect on stability

d)

The atmosphere is saturated

25.

Which of the following is a characteristic of stable air?

a)

Cumuliform clouds

b)

Showery precipitation

c)

Rough air (turbulence)

d)

Stratiform clouds and fog

26.

What is the minimum visibility required from the control station for a remote PIC to operate a small unmanned aircraft system (sUAS)?

a)

1 statute mile (SM)

b)

2 statute miles (SM)

c)

3 statute miles (SM)

d)

5 statute miles (SM)

27.

According to the text, what should a remote PIC do if there is more than one local aviation reporting station near the operating area?

a)

Choose the station with the highest visibility reading

b)

Choose the closest station to the operating area

c)

Choose the station most representative of the terrain surrounding the operating area

d)

Ignore all stations and estimate visibility visually

28.

Which of the following best describes the difference between stable and unstable air in terms of precipitation?

a)

Stable air has showery precipitation, unstable air has continuous precipitation

b)

Stable air has continuous precipitation, unstable air has showery precipitation

c)

Both have the same type of precipitation

d)

Stable air has no precipitation, unstable air has heavy precipitation

29.

A remote pilot is preparing for flight and observes that a known point 3 SM away is visible. What does this indicate about the operational altitude available for use?

a)

The operational altitude is limited to 100 feet AGL

b)

The operational altitude is limited to 200 feet AGL

c)

The operational altitude is at least 1,000 feet AGL if clouds are above the top

d)

The operational altitude is not affected by visibility

30.

Why is it important for the sUA not to be operated above any cloud?

a)

It increases the risk of turbulence

b)

It reduces the visibility between the sUA and the remote PIC

c)

It causes continuous precipitation

d)

It is required for fuel efficiency

31.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three conditions necessary for the formation of a thunderstorm?

a)

Sufficient water vapor

b)

An unstable lapse rate

c)

High atmospheric pressure

d)

An initial lifting force (upward boost)

32.

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

a)

Cumulus, mature, dissipating

b)

Stratus, cumulus, cirrus

c)

Mature, declining, stable

d)

Updraft, downdraft, virga

33.

Which stage of a thunderstorm is characterized predominantly by downdrafts?

a)

Cumulus stage

b)

Mature stage

c)

Dissipating stage

d)

Virga stage

34.

What is virga, as described in the context of thunderstorms?

a)

Lightning that never reaches the ground

b)

Precipitation that evaporates before reaching the ground

c)

A type of cloud associated with thunderstorms

d)

The initial lifting force in a thunderstorm

35.

How can you estimate the distance to a thunderstorm using lightning and thunder?

a)

Count the number of lightning flashes in one minute

b)

Divide the number of thunderclaps by 10

c)

Count the seconds between seeing lightning and hearing thunder, then divide by 5

d)

Multiply the number of seconds between lightning and thunder by 2

36.

Why might the method of counting seconds between lightning and thunder not be feasible during some storms?

a)

The storm is too far away

b)

There is frequent lightning or multiple storms

c)

The thunder is too quiet to hear

d)

The sky is too cloudy to see lightning

37.

During which stage of a thunderstorm do updrafts and downdrafts both occur inside the cloud?

a)

Cumulus stage

b)

Mature stage

c)

Dissipating stage

d)

Virga stage

38.

What is a good indicator of the severity of a thunderstorm?

a)

The color of the clouds

b)

The frequency of lightning

c)

The amount of rain

d)

The temperature drop

39.

What is hail formed by inside thunderstorms?

a)

The constant freezing, melting, and refreezing of water as it is carried about by the up- and downdrafts.

b)

The condensation of water vapor at high altitudes.

c)

The rapid cooling of rain as it falls to the ground.

d)

The collision of ice crystals with dust particles.

40.

Which type of thunderstorms generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft?

a)

Squall-line thunderstorms

b)

Warm-front thunderstorms

c)

Isolated thunderstorms

d)

Coastal thunderstorms

41.

What is a microburst?

a)

A small-scale intense downdraft that spreads outward from the center in all directions near the ground.

b)

A sudden increase in temperature during a thunderstorm.

c)

A type of hail formation inside a thunderstorm.

d)

A rotating column of air extending from a thunderstorm to the ground.

42.

What is the main hazard associated with tornadoes for remote pilots?

a)

The strong winds and debris generated by the vortex.

b)

The increase in temperature at higher altitudes.

c)

The formation of hail outside the storm center.

d)

The accumulation of ice on the aircraft.

43.

Which of the following is NOT an effect of structural icing on an sUAS?

a)

Lift increases

b)

Lift decreases

c)

Thrust decreases

d)

Drag increases

44.

Why should remote pilots exercise extreme caution when operating in conditions that may generate thunderstorms?

a)

Phenomena like hail, lightning, windshear, and microbursts can occur far from the storm center.

b)

Thunderstorms only affect the immediate area below the clouds.

c)

Only visible rain is dangerous to aircraft.

d)

Thunderstorms never produce strong winds.

45.

What is the necessary condition for structural icing to form on an aircraft?

a)

Visible moisture and temperature below freezing

b)

High altitude and clear skies

c)

Warm temperatures and dry air

d)

Strong winds and no precipitation

46.

How long do the maximum intensity winds of a microburst typically last?

a)

Approximately 2–4 minutes

b)

More than 30 minutes

c)

Less than 1 minute

d)

About 20 minutes

47.

What happens to the weight and stalling speed of a fixed-wing aircraft when structural icing occurs?

a)

Both increase

b)

Both decrease

c)

Weight increases, stalling speed decreases

d)

Weight decreases, stalling speed increases

48.

What is fog primarily composed of?

a)

Water droplets or ice crystals

b)

Dust particles

c)

Carbon dioxide gas

d)

Pollen grains

49.

Which type of fog forms when terrestrial radiation cools the ground, cooling the air in contact with it?

a)

Advection fog

b)

Radiation fog

c)

Steam fog

d)

Upslope fog

50.

What is the main factor that makes fog prevalent in industrial areas?

a)

High wind speeds

b)

Abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products

c)

Low temperatures only

d)

High humidity only

51.

Which type of fog is most commonly associated with frontal activity and forms from drizzle or rain falling through cooler air?

a)

Upslope fog

b)

Steam fog

c)

Precipitation-induced fog

d)

Radiation fog

52.

Why should remote pilots be cautious when conditions are conducive to the formation of fog?

a)

Fog can increase aircraft speed

b)

Fog can reduce visibility below the 3 SM minimum

c)

Fog can improve communication signals

d)

Fog can increase battery life

53.

What is density altitude?

a)

The altitude at which fog forms

b)

The altitude corrected for non-standard temperature and pressure

c)

The altitude above sea level

d)

The altitude at which ice forms

54.

How does a change in temperature and/or pressure from standard conditions affect sUAS performance?

a)

It does not affect performance

b)

It changes the air density, which affects performance

c)

It only affects battery life

d)

It only affects visibility

55.

A remote pilot observes ice pellets at the surface. What does this indicate about the weather at a higher altitude?

a)

There is freezing rain at a higher altitude

b)

The temperature is above freezing at all altitudes

c)

There is no precipitation at higher altitudes

d)

There is only snow at higher altitudes

56.

Which type of fog forms when warm, moist air moves over a colder ground or water surface?

a)

Radiation fog

b)

Advection fog

c)

Steam fog

d)

Upslope fog

57.

What should a remote pilot do if it appears that ice is accumulating on the sUAS?

a)

Continue flying as normal

b)

Increase altitude

c)

Recover the sUAS immediately to avoid loss of control

d)

Decrease speed

58.

What is the main purpose of obtaining a weather briefing before a flight as a remote PIC?

a)

To ensure the remote PIC is aware of current and forecasted weather conditions

b)

To check the aircraft's maintenance schedule

c)

To review the flight path for obstacles

d)

To confirm the identity of the remote PIC

59.

Which website provides free, web-based aviation weather services without requiring registration?

a)

NWS Aviation Weather Center (AWC) at aviationweather.gov

b)

FAA.gov

c)

NOAA.gov

d)

weather.com

60.

What does the abbreviation METAR stand for?

a)

Aviation routine weather reports

b)

Meteorological altitude readings

c)

Mechanical error tracking and reporting

d)

Monthly environmental temperature and rainfall

61.

Which system is the primary surface weather observing system of the U.S.?

a)

Automated Surface Observing System (ASOS)

b)

Global Positioning System (GPS)

c)

Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS)

d)

Remote Piloted Aircraft System (RPAS)

62.

What does the prefix "AUTO" in AWOS observations indicate?

a)

The data is derived from an automated system

b)

The report is for automobile weather only

c)

The observation is made by a human

d)

The data is outdated

63.

Why should remote pilots familiarize themselves with abbreviations and symbols in weather reports?

a)

To interpret weather information properly

b)

To improve their flying skills

c)

To reduce aircraft maintenance costs

d)

To avoid air traffic control communication

64.

For aviation purposes, what is considered the ceiling in weather reports?

a)

The lowest broken or overcast layer, or vertical visibility into an obscuration

b)

The highest cloud layer

c)

The temperature at ground level

d)

The altitude of the aircraft

65.

What does the acronym TAF stand for in aviation weather reporting?

a)

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast

b)

Total Aviation Forecast

c)

Technical Aeronautical Form

d)

Terminal Altitude Forecast

66.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a surface aviation weather observation?

a)

Runway visual range (RVR)

b)

Type of report

c)

Aircraft registration number

d)

Temperature/dew point

67.

What is the main purpose of automated weather sources like AWOS and ASOS?

a)

To provide continuous up-to-date weather information

b)

To control air traffic

c)

To schedule airport maintenance

d)

To manage airport security

68.

According to the material, what is the benefit of surface observation reports for remote pilots?

a)

They provide valuable information about individual airports around the country.

b)

They help pilots file flight plans.

c)

They are used to calculate fuel requirements.

d)

They determine aircraft maintenance schedules.

69.

Which of the following best describes the type of information included in a surface aviation weather observation? (DoK Level 2)

a)

Weather conditions, station identifier, date and time, wind, visibility, RVR, weather phenomena, sky condition, temperature/dew point, altimeter reading, and applicable remarks

b)

Flight schedules, aircraft types, and passenger numbers

c)

Airport security protocols and emergency procedures

d)

Aircraft maintenance logs and repair history

70.

A remote pilot is planning a flight and needs up-to-date weather information for a specific airport. Which resource should they consult based on the material? (DoK Level 2)

a)

Surface aviation weather observations

b)

Aircraft maintenance records

c)

Flight training manuals

d)

Passenger manifests

71.

Why might automated weather stations be particularly important for remote pilots operating in less populated areas? (DoK Level 3)

a)

They provide continuous, up-to-date weather information even in areas with few human observers.

b)

They can replace the need for air traffic controllers.

c)

They offer flight training for new pilots.

d)

They manage airport finances.

72.

Which of the following best describes a METAR report?

a)

An observation of current surface weather reported in a standard international format

b)

A forecast of future weather conditions for a specific region

c)

A summary of past weather events over a month

d)

A report on oceanic weather patterns

73.

What does the station identifier "KGGG" represent in a METAR report?

a)

The type of weather event

b)

The location of the reporting airport

c)

The time of the report

d)

The wind speed at the airport

74.

How is the date and time of a METAR report typically depicted?

a)

As a four-letter code

b)

In a six-digit group followed by a "Z"

c)

As a three-digit number

d)

In alphabetical order

75.

If a METAR report contains the modifier "COR," what does it indicate?

a)

The report is for a military airport

b)

The report was corrected and replaces an earlier report

c)

The report is for a forecasted event

d)

The report is for a non-automated station

76.

Which of the following statements about wind reporting in METARs is correct?

a)

Wind is always reported with three digits

b)

If the wind is gusting, the letter "G" is used to indicate the peak gust recorded

c)

Wind direction is not included in METAR reports

d)

Wind speed is only reported in miles per hour

77.

What does the visibility value "3/4 SM" in a METAR report indicate?

a)

The wind speed is 3/4 knots

b)

The temperature is 3/4 degrees Celsius

c)

The prevailing visibility is three-fourths of a statute mile

d)

The report was issued at 3:45 AM

78.

Suppose you are given a METAR report with the station identifier "PHNL." Based on the information provided, which region is this report most likely from?

a)

Alaska

b)

Hawaii

c)

Texas

d)

California

79.

A METAR report includes the remark "AO2." What does this indicate about the reporting station?

a)

The station is located outside the United States

b)

The station has a precipitation sensor

c)

The report is a forecast

d)

The station is not automated

80.

Which of the following is the correct order for reporting sky condition in a METAR?

a)

Type, amount, height

b)

Height, amount, type

c)

Amount, height, type

d)

Type, height, amount

81.

What does the qualifier "VC" indicate in a METAR weather report?

a)

Weather is very clear

b)

Weather phenomenon is in the vicinity of the airport

c)

Visibility is clear

d)

Clouds are variable

82.

Which contraction is used to report a sky cover of 5/8–7/8 in a METAR?

a)

SCT

b)

OVC

c)

BKN

d)

FEW

83.

What does the descriptor "TS" stand for in a METAR weather report?

a)

Tornado

b)

Thunderstorms

c)

Temperature shift

d)

Thick snow

84.

If the temperature in a METAR is reported as M05, what does it mean?

a)

5°C above zero

b)

5°C below zero

c)

5°F above zero

d)

5°F below zero

85.

A METAR report lists "RA" under precipitation. What weather phenomenon is being reported?

a)

Rain

b)

Hail

c)

Snow

d)

Drizzle

86.

Which of the following is NOT a reportable contraction for sky condition in a METAR?

a)

SCT

b)

CLR

c)

BKN

d)

FOG

87.

What is the meaning of the qualifier "MI" in a METAR weather report?

a)

Moderate intensity

b)

Shallow

c)

Mist

d)

Mountainous

88.

Which of the following is a descriptor for precipitation in a METAR?

a)

BR

b)

DZ

c)

FG

d)

SA

89.

How is the amount of sky coverage reported in a METAR?

a)

In tenths of the sky

b)

In eighths of the sky

c)

In quarters of the sky

d)

In halves of the sky

90.

What does the letter "A" indicate when reporting the altimeter setting in a METAR?

a)

It precedes the four-digit number group representing inches of mercury ("Hg")

b)

It indicates automated weather reporting

c)

It denotes the presence of thunderstorms

d)

It marks the end of the METAR report

91.

What is "Zulu time" in aviation terminology?

a)

Local time at the airport

b)

UTC, which places the entire world on one time standard

c)

The time of sunrise at the airport

d)

The time of sunset at the airport

92.

Which section of a METAR report always begins with the letters "RMK"?

a)

Altimeter setting

b)

Zulu time

c)

Remarks

d)

Visibility

93.

What is the primary purpose of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)?

a)

To provide a weather report for the entire country

b)

To forecast weather conditions for the 5 SM radius around an airport

c)

To report current weather at sea level

d)

To summarize global weather patterns

94.

Which of the following is NOT included in the sequential order of information in a TAF?

a)

Type of report

b)

ICAO station identifier

c)

Runway length

d)

Date and time of origin

95.

A TAF is valid for which of the following time periods?

a)

1 hour

b)

6 hours

c)

24 or 30 hours

d)

48 hours

96.

If a TAF is issued at 081125Z, what does the "08" represent?

a)

The hour of issuance

b)

The day of the month for the start of the TAF

c)

The month of issuance

d)

The year of issuance

97.

Why might a remark such as "OCNL LTGICCG" appear in the remarks section of a METAR?

a)

To indicate the presence of snow

b)

To report occasional lightning in the clouds and from cloud to ground

c)

To show the airport is closed

d)

To indicate a change in runway direction

98.

Which of the following is a weather advisory that pilots need to be familiar with for flight planning?

a)

METAR

b)

SIGMET

c)

TAF

d)

RMK

99.

How often are 24 and 30 hour TAFs issued each day?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Four times

d)

Eight times

100.

What does the five-digit wind group in a TAF forecast represent?

a)

The direction and speed of the wind

b)

The temperature and humidity

c)

The visibility and cloud cover

d)

The probability of precipitation