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Biology Quarter 1 Test

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Living organisms are made up of units called 1)________________ and they 2)________________ to generate offspring. The genetic code for living things is carried in 3)________________, which conveys instructions for 4)________________. Living things obtain and use 5)___________________, and respond to 6)________________ in their environment. They 7)________________ and maintain 8)________________, a stable internal environment.
4 lines
2.

Carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen atoms are found in all biological macromolecules. Which macromolecules are made ONLY of these three elements?

(a)  

3.
Choose the correct 3 terms. Glucose is an example of a (monosaccharide/polysaccharide/disaccharide). Many glucose molecules may join together to form a complex (lipid/carbohydrate/protein), such as ( carbonic anhydrase/cellulose/RNA).
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4.
Use the picture to describe the energy/mass pyramid for the following scenario. The original energy is 10,000 kJ and the original mass is 20,000 kg. Use the following terms: Primary Producer, Primary Consumer, Secondary Consumer, and Tertiary Consumer.
4 lines
5.
A carnivore obtains energy by eating other animals. Which of the following shows the process by which energy flows to a carnivorous animal?
a)
(A) light energy → plant → carnivore
b)
(B) plant → light energy → carnivore
c)
(C) light energy → herbivore → carnivore
d)
(D) light energy → plant → herbivore → carnivore
e)
(E) light energy → plant → decomposer → herbivore → carnivore
6.
The diagram is a pyramid of biomass for a meadow ecosystem. The triangular shape of the diagram is useful for explaining which relationship among the trophic levels?'
a)
The amount of living organic matter is equal at all trophic levels in this ecosystem.
b)
Third-level consumers in this ecosystem have the greatest amount of living organic matter.
c)
With each step to a higher trophic level in this ecosystem, the amount of living organic matter increases.
d)
Third-level consumers in this ecosystem provide living organic matter to producers and other consumers.
e)
The amount of living organic matter decreases at each trophic level in this ecosystem.
7.
Which of the following explains the role of plants in the carbon cycle?
a)
Plants transfer carbon dioxide in the atmosphere to carbohydrates in the biosphere.
b)
Plants transport carbon dioxide in the atmosphere to groundwater.
c)
Plants transfer oxygen and carbohydrates in the biosphere to carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
d)
Plants transfer oxygen in the atmosphere to fossil fuels.
e)
Plants transfer carbon dioxide in the groundwater to carbon and oxygen in the atmosphere.
8.
Which factors are used to characterize a biome, such as the desert, tropical rainforest, or temperate grasslands? Select two answers.
a)
biotic factors, such as plant and animal life
b)
abiotic factors, such as climate and soil.
c)
precise lines of latitude and longitude
d)
levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
9.
The soil of the temperate forest is often rich in humus. Which statement best explains the presence of humus in the temperate forest?
a)
Tree roots break rocks into humus as they grow.
b)
Cold winter weather preserves humus in the soil.
c)
Dry conditions allow humus to form.
d)
Humus forms from fallen leaves, dead wood, and other dead organic matter.
10.
The cell is the smallest unit that can perform all of the processes necessary for life.
a)
True
b)
False
11.
Who was the first person to describe cells?
a)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
James O'Brien
d)
None of the above
12.

The name cell comes from the small "boxes" that he had seen in the (a)   of a tree.

13.
In 1673, _____________________, looked at some pond scum under his own microscope.
a)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Charles Barkley
d)
None of the above
14.
What does the cell theory consist of? (Choose all that apply)
a)
all organisms are made of one or more cells
b)
the cell is the basic unit of all living things
c)
only multicellular organisms reproduce sexually
d)
all cells come from existing cells
e)
all cells differentiate
15.
(Pick 2) Despite many differences, all cells contain:
a)
DNA
b)
Cell membrane
c)
Nucleus
d)
Flagella
e)
Cell wall
16.
What is the most important difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
a)
prokaryotes have membrane bound organelles
b)
eukaryotes lack nuclei
c)
prokaryotes lack nuclei
d)
there is no significant difference
17.
What are the two types of prokaryotes?
a)
Eubacteria
b)
Archaea
c)
Protozoa
d)
Plants
e)
Animals
18.
Eukaryotic cells are typically larger and more complex than prokaryotic.
a)
True
b)
False
19.
Bacterial DNA can be found within the nucleus in a long loop like a wound up rubberband.
a)
True
b)
False
20.

This organelle is often called the command center of the cell; what organelle is this a picture of?

(a)  

21.
What does this organelle do?
a)
produce proteins
b)
store genetic material
c)
store water and nutrients
d)
photosynthesize
22.

What substance is found in Peroxisomes?

(a)  

23.

Which organelle is covered in ribosomes, and attached to the nucleus of the cell? (Full name please...)

(a)  

24.

This organelle packages and labels proteins, what is it?

(a)  

25.
Which organelle produces ATP?
a)
golgi complex
b)
nucleolus
c)
mitochondria
d)
all of the above
26.
Ribosomes are responsible for the production of proteins.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
The lipid bilayer that surrounds the cell is called _________________. (choose all that apply)
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
nuclear membrane
d)
plasma membrane
28.

What is the name for the fluid inside the cell excluding the nucleus?

(a)  

29.

Which organelle is responsible for cell structure and often used as a cellular highway?

(a)  

30.

Often called the powerhouse of the cell, this is a picture of what?

(a)  

31.

What organelle is responsible for photosynthesis in a plant cell?

(a)  

32.

This organelle is responsible for turgor pressure, and storage of water, carbs, and chemicals in plant cells what is it?

(a)  

33.

The movement of particles from an area of high concentration to a low concentration is called…

(a)  

34.

Sometimes certain chemicals can only pass through specific pores in the cell membrane this action is called (a)   diffusion.

35.
True or False: Osmosis is the diffusion of water across a semipermeable membrane.
a)
True
b)
False
36.

(a)   transport requires energy.

37.

(a)   transport does not require energy.

38.

This cell is most likely in a (a)   solution.

39.
Phagocytosis represents what form of transport? (Hint: The cell is eating that large particle...)
a)
endocytosis
b)
exocytosis
c)
ectocytosis
d)
none of the above
40.
We and cells survive on what form of energy?
a)
electrical
b)
heat
c)
light
d)
none of the above
41.
Chemical energy is from the high energy bonds between atoms that are broken, releasing energy, then lower energy bonds take their place.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
This organism is a(n) _________________, which come from the root words for other eater.
a)
carnivore
b)
omnivore
c)
heterotroph
d)
autotroph
43.
This organism is a(n) ________________ which is derived from the roots meaning self feeder.
a)
producer
b)
autotroph
c)
heterotroph
d)
consumer
44.
ADP has ___________ phosphates, while ATP has _____________ phosphates.
a)
one ; three
b)
one ; two
c)
two ; three
d)
three ; two
45.
ATP is used for...
a)
active transport
b)
turning cilia and flagella
c)
producing light in fireflies
d)
all of the above
46.
Plants gather the sun’s energy in light-absorbing molecules called...
a)
Pigments
b)
Photocollectors
c)
carotinoids
d)
all of the above
47.
Plants' principal pigment is ________________, giving them their distinct green color.
a)
chloroplast
b)
chlorophyll
c)
carotinoids
d)
chlorine
48.
Label at least 5 parts of this chloroplast. (Ex. 10 - ribosomes, 11 - DNA)
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49.
The light dependent reactions occur within the thylakoid ________________.
a)
Space
b)
Membrane
c)
Lumen
d)
None of the above
50.
Electron _________ __________ is a series of proteins that shuttle electrons along during ATP generating reactions.
a)
transport train
b)
transport molecules
c)
transport chain
d)
none of the above
51.
ATP synthase is an enzyme that produces __________.
a)
ADP
b)
ATP
c)
NADH
d)
FADH
52.
During the electron transport chain, hydrogen ions are pumped across the thylakoid membrane from the stroma into the thylakoid space. This makes a _______________ gradient. (pick 2)
a)
hydrogen ion
b)
electron
c)
proton
d)
stroma
53.
Select the statement that is not true about the light dependent reaction of photosynthesis.
a)
Oxygen gas is produced
b)
NADP+ is converted to NADPH
c)
ADP is converted to ATP
d)
Oxygen is converted to carbon dioxide
54.
The ___________________ cycle is also known as the light-independent reaction.
a)
Krebs
b)
Citric Acid
c)
Calvin
d)
all of the above
55.
During the light-independent reactions, carbon-dioxide is converted into G3P.
a)
True
b)
False
56.
Define gluconeogenesis:
a)
the creation of proteins by cells that uses DNA, RNA, and various enzymes
b)
a series of reactions that extract energy from glucose by splitting it into two three-carbon molecules called pyruvates
c)
a metabolic pathway that results in the generation of glucose from certain non-carbohydrate carbon substrates
d)
the formation of glycogen from sugar
57.
How many calories does it take to raise one gram of water one degree Celsius?
a)
a) 1
b)
b) 10
c)
c) 100
d)
d) 1000
58.
The Calorie (capital C) is these same as ___________________ calories (lowercase c).
a)
a) 1
b)
b) 10
c)
c) 100
d)
d) 1000
59.
How many calories does one gram of protein or one gram of sugar (carbohydrates) produce?
a)
a) 4
b)
b) 9
c)
c) 4000
d)
d) 9000
60.
Which is the correct chemical equation for photosynthesis and respiration with only one equation.
a)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy <--> C5H10O5 + 6O2
b)
6C2 + 6H2O + Energy <--> C12H12O12 + 6O2
c)
6CO + 6H2O + Energy <--> C6H6O6 + 6O2
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy <--> C6H12O6 + 6O2
61.
What are the three stages of respiration?
a)
Gluconeogenesis, Krebs cycle, and the Electron Transport Chain
b)
Glycolysis, Calvin cycle, and the Electron Transport Chain
c)
Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the Proton Transport Chain
d)
Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, and the Electron Transport Chain
62.
What is the main difference between anaerobic and aerobic respiration?
a)
Aerobic processes break down molecules, Anaerobic build up molecules
b)
Aerobic does not require oxygen, Anaerobic requires oxygen
c)
Aerobic processes absorb energy, Anaerobic release energy
d)
Aerobic requires oxygen, Anaerobic does not require oxygen
63.
The products of ______________________ are CO2, NADH, and FADH2.
a)
a) The Krebs Cycle
b)
b) Glycolysis
c)
c) The ETC
d)
d) None of the Above
64.
How many total ATP are produced during aerobic respiration?
a)
2
b)
8
c)
36
d)
52
65.
During which stage of respiration is most ATP produced?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Krebs cycle
c)
Calvin Cycle
d)
Electron Transport Chain
66.
If a cubic cell with 2 cm sides doubles the dimensions of its sides, what change occurs to the ratio of its surface area to volume?
a)
a. The ratio is halved.
b)
b. The ratio is doubled.
c)
c. The ratio is quadrupled.
d)
d. The ratio is quartered.
67.
If the side of a cubic cell were doubled, what would the cell then require? Select all of the correct answers.
a)
a. eight times more nutrients
b)
b. to excrete eight times more waste
c)
c. four times more nutrients
d)
d. to excrete four times more waste
68.
What useful purpose is served by cell division in a multicellular organism? Select all the correct answers.
a)
a. to ensure that a cell does not become too large
b)
b. to produce new cells during an organism’s growth
c)
c. to replace damaged cells and tissues
d)
d. to ensure all cells remain undifferentiated
69.
Paramecium is a single-celled protozoan. The graph shows a typical growth curve for a colony of Paramecium in a nutrient culture. Two Paramecium cells sometimes engage in a sexual process in which genetic materials are exchanged, but no new cells are produced. Which additional observation would provide the strongest evidence that Paramecium reproduces asexually?
a)
a. The cells in the colony are genetically identical.
b)
b. The colony begins decreasing in population size after day 14.
c)
c. The cells in the colony are genetically different from one another.
d)
d. The cells in the colony become smaller over time.
70.
Japanese scientists created pluripotent stem cells (iPS), a type of stem cell similar to embryonic stem cells. The researchers made the iPS stem cells from mouse fibroblasts. Then they used the stem cells to grow heart and brain cells. How are the iPS cells developed by the researchers different from naturally occurring embryonic stem cells?
a)
The iPS cells were made from undifferentiated cells.
b)
b. The iPS cells were made from differentiated cells.
c)
c. The iPS cells can develop into more than one type of tissue.
d)
d. The iPS cells can divide to form additional undifferentiated cells.
71.
Which of the following are TRUE about totipotent cells?
a)
(A) Embryonic stem cells are totipotent cells.
b)
(B) Totipotent cells are differentiated cells.
c)
(C) Totipotent cells can differentiate into any type of cell or tissue.
d)
(D) Adult stem cells are totipotent cells.
e)
(E) Totipotent cells can form any cells except those surrounding the embryo.
72.
What structure is found in prokaryotic cells but not in eukaryotic cells?
a)
a. a single, circular DNA chromosome found in the cytoplasm
b)
b. a chromosome that contains many histones
c)
c. a chromosome found within a membrane-bound nucleus
d)
d. a shorter, condensed chromosome in the nucleus
73.
Which of the following are advantages of sexual reproduction compared to asexual reproduction? I. increased survival in changing conditions II. increased genetic diversity III. increased rate of reproduction
a)
(A) I only
b)
(B) II only
c)
(C) III only
d)
(D) I and II only
e)
(E) I, II, and III
74.
What does the G in G1 stand for?
a)
a) Group
b)
b) Gap
c)
c) Gather
d)
d) None of the above
75.
What happens in the S phase of the cell cycle?
a)
a) RNA is replicated
b)
b) DNA is replicated
c)
c) The cell builds proteins
d)
d) All of the above
76.
What is the purpose of DNA replication in the cell cycle?
a)
(A) to replace old DNA
b)
(B) to increase genetic diversity
c)
(C) to have two copies of each chromosome
d)
(D) to help the cell grow larger
e)
(E) to form the spindle
77.
What are the two combinations of chromosomes that represent male and female?
a)
a) male = XX female = XY
b)
b) male = XY female = XX
78.
Which of the following is the correct order of the cell cycle?
a)
a) G1, G2, S, M
b)
b) G1, S, G2, M
c)
c) M, G1, S, G2
d)
d) none of the above
79.
The division of the nucleus is known as _____________________________ in the first half of the M phase. (Hint: It’s why we call it the M-phase.)
a)
a) meiosis
b)
b) mitosis
c)
c) metaphase
d)
d) none of the above
80.
Which of the following are the correct steps of mitosis in order: metaphase, prophase, telophase, and anaphase.
a)
a) metaphase, prophase, telophase, and anaphase
b)
b) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
c)
c) telophase, metaphase, prophase, and anaphase
d)
d) none of the above
81.
Which of the following happens when cancer occurs?
a)
The control of the cell cycle is impaired.
b)
Cells cannot pass the G1 checkpoint.
c)
Apoptosis or programmed cell death takes place.
d)
The cells can no longer enter the cell cycle.
82.
Look at the picture. What does it represent? (Pick 2)
a)
Differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized.
b)
The outer cells of the blastocyst become the embryo.
c)
The inner mass of cells of the blastocyst will form the specialized cells in the body.
d)
Specialized blastocyst cells become stem cells in the adult.
83.
During Meiosis _________________ cells are formed
a)
4 haploid
b)
genetically different
c)
reproductive
d)
all of the above
84.
Which of the following contributes to genetic diversity in offspring?
a)
crossing over
b)
random alignment of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I and II
c)
segregation of alleles in reproductive cells
d)
nutrients taken in by the mother during pregnancy
e)
polar cells fusing with ovum
85.
Mendel studied 7 traits in pea plants. One monohybrid cross he made was between plants with round seeds (R) and plants with wrinkled seeds (r). All of the seeds in the F1 generation had a round shape. Next, Mendel allowed the peas in the F1 generation to self-pollinate, forming the F2 generation. What describes Mendel's observations and conclusion about the F2 generation?
a)
Three-fourths of the F2 plants show the round seed phenotype and carry the dominant allele for roundness.
b)
One-fourth of the F 2 plants show the round seed phenotype and are heterozygous for roundness.
c)
The F2 plants are all heterozygous.
d)
The F2 plants all have wrinkled seeds, and some carry the allele for round seeds.
86.
An organism’s physical appearance is its
a)
genotype.
b)
phenotype.
c)
codominance.
d)
heterozygous.
87.
The different forms of a gene are called
a)
factors.
b)
masks.
c)
traits.
d)
alleles.
88.
An organism’s genotype is its
a)
genetic makeup
b)
feather color
c)
physical appearance
d)
stem height
89.
The Punnett square shown below describes a cross between two pea plants. The letter T represents the dominant allele for tall plant height and the letter t represents the recessive allele for short plant height.
a)
Tt for both parents
b)
TT for one parent, tt for the other parent
c)
TT for one parent, Tt for the other parent
d)
TtTt for both parents
90.
Study the Punnett square shown here. It describes the potential offspring of a cross between two parents. What phenotypes will be demonstrated by the offspring?
a)
All offspring will show the recessive phenotype for this trait.
b)
All offspring will show the dominant phenotype for this trait.
c)
Half of the offspring will show the dominant phenotype and half will show the recessive phenotype.
d)
Three-fourths of the offspring will show the dominant phenotype and one-fourth will show the recessive phenotype.
91.
What type of blood (phenotype) will a person with a genotype of AO have?
a)
O
b)
A
c)
AB
d)
B
92.
In cattle, if a red cow is crossed with a white bull, a mixture of red and white color, called roan, is produced in the F1 generation. Crosses between animals in the F1 generation produce white, roan, and red cattle in the F2 generation. Describe the pattern of inheritance in these types of cattle, and identify the ratio of the expected offspring in the F2 generation.
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