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Worksheets

instru 101-150

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In the vicinity of the magnetic North Pole the magnetic compass is useless because:

a)

The magnetic field is too strong.

b)

The magnetic pole is moving.

c)

The horizontal component of the magnetic field is too weak.

d)

The variation is too large.

2.

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn towards North if

a)

a) a right turn is entered from an east heading.

b)

b) a left turn is entered from a west heading.

c)

c) an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.

d)

d) an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

3.

The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from: 1. magnetic masses; 2. ferrous metal masses; 3. non ferrous metal masses; 4. electrical currents. The combination of correct statements is:

a)

1, 2, 3

b)

1, 2, 4

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

d)

1, 3, 4

4.

Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:

a)

of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose

b)

due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headings

c)

due to Schüler type oscillations

d)

in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading

5.

Concerning magnetic compasses, deviation is:

a)

The angular difference between magnetic North and true North.

b)

The angular difference between magnetic North and compass North.

c)

Compass North.

d)

A card in the cockpit showing compass heading errors.

6.

Variation is defined as the angle between:

a)

MN and CN.

b)

TN and CN.

c)

TN and MN.

d)

CN and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

7.

83) The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:

a)

4200 MHz to 4400 MHz

b)

5400 MHz or 9400 MHz

c)

2700 to 2900 MHz

d)

5 GHz

8.

Modern low altitude radio altimeters emit waves in the following frequency band:

a)

HF (High Frequency)

b)

VLF (Very Low Frequency)

c)

SHF (Super High Frequency)

d)

UHF (Ultra High Frequency)

9.

The operating frequency of the Radio Altimeter is normally

a)

between 4,250 and 4,350 kHz, FMCW

b)

between 4,250 and 4,350 MHz, FMCW

c)

between 4,250 and 4,350 kHz, CW

d)

between 4,250 and 4,350 MHz, AM

10.

The modulation technique used by the Radio Altimeter is referred to as

a)

Continuous Modulated Frequency Wave

b)

Amplitude Modulated Continuous Wave

c)

Pulse Modulated Continuous Wave

d)

Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave

11.

In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it is necessary to:

a)

change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.

b)

place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.

c)

compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above the ground and coaxial cables length.

d)

account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a correction factor to the reading.

12.

The data supplied by a radio altimeter:

a)

concerns only the decision height.

b)

indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

c)

is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.

d)

is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

13.

In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement (above the ground) is based upon:

a)

a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured

b)

a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen.

c)

a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured.

d)

a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency variation between the transmitted wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.

14.

The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:

a)

amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.

b)

frequency modulation of the carrier wave.

c)

pulse modulation of the carrier wave.

d)

a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.

15.

During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:

a)

height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.

b)

height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.

c)

height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any time.

d)

altitude of the aircraft.

16.

The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when an aircraft:

a)

passes over the outer marker.

b)

descends below a pre-set radio altitude.

c)

descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.

d)

passes over the ILS inner marker.

17.

For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs during approach the

a)

DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds

b)

Height indication is removed

c)

DH lamp flashes red

d)

Audio warning signal sounds

18.

Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS): 1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars. 2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display). 3- the PFD is the main flying instrument. 4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

a)

1, 2.

b)

3, 4.

c)

1,4

d)

2,3

19.

The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:

a)

weather situation.

b)

piloting.

c)

engines and alarms.

d)

systems.

20.

All the last generation aircraft use flight control systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) is the most advanced system; it can be defined as a:

a)

global 3-D Flight Management System

b)

management system optimized in the vertical plane

c)

management system optimized in the horizontal plane

d)

global 2-D Flight Management System

21.

When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto-throttle (ATS) systems the:

a)

true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

b)

indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.

c)

true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

d)

indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto-throttle system.

22.

Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in the form of command bars on the following instrument:

a)

BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.

b)

ADI Attitude Display Indicator.

c)

RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.

d)

HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.

23.

Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means:

a)

Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized

b)

System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will occur upon capturing center line

c)

Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to capture the centerline

d)

Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning disappears

24.

The essential components of a flight director are: 1- a computer 2- an automatic pilot 3- an autothrottle 4- command bars. The combination of correct statements is:

a)

1, 2

b)

1, 4

c)

2, 4

d)

2, 3

25.

On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:

a)

upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).

b)

upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).

c)

upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C Management).

d)

control panel of the flight director only.

26.

The aim of the flight director is to provide information to the pilot:

a)

allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45° intercept angle.

b)

about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis.

c)

allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.

d)

allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30° intercept angle.

27.

The flight director indicates the:

a)

optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial.

b)

optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a selected radial.

c)

path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.

d)

path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum distance.

28.

The command bars of a flight director are generally represented on an:

a)

HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator)

b)

ADI (Attitude Director Indicator)

c)

RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)

d)

ILS (Instrument Landing System)

29.

An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with crosshair trend bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode (heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the vertical trend bar:

a)

deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director.

b)

deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading 360°.

c)

disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.

d)

deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected heading.

30.

The position of a Flight Director command bars:

a)

repeats the ADI and HSI information

b)

indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain a flight situation.

c)

enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.

d)

only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.

31.

The Altitude Select System:

a)

Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude

b)

Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained

c)

Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected altitude

d)

Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude

32.

Landing shall be considered as having been carried out automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew:

a)

during the flare.

b)

during ground roll.

c)

at the decision height.

d)

at the outer marker.

33.

An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and heading mode is compulsory:

a)

on airplanes over 5.7 t.

b)

on multpilot airplanes.

c)

for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.

d)

for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.

34.

A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of the automatic pilot is at least to hold the:

a)

altitude

b)

heading

c)

heading and to hold the altitude

d)

heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking function

35.

An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic pilot:

a)

and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out while the human pilot controls the power

b)

ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll while the human pilot controls the power

c)

and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to flare-out

d)

and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll

36.

The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the :

a)

1,2.

b)

1, 2, 3, 4.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

2, 3, 4.

37.

The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude will be all the more significant when the:

a)

1, 2 and 4.

b)

1, 2, 3 and 4.

c)

3 and 4.

d)

1, 2 and 3.

38.

When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is considered:

a)

"fail passive" or without failure effect but with disconnection.

b)

"fail soft" or with minimized failure effect.

c)

"fail survival" or without failure effect with function always ensured.

d)

"fail safe" with failure effect without disconnection.

39.

An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots is called "FAIL...:

a)

"REDUNDANT"

b)

"PASSIVE"

c)

"SAFE"

d)

"OPERATIONAL"

40.

An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a system failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL….."

a)

"PASSIVE"

b)

"OPERATIONAL"

c)

"SAFE"

d)

"REDUNDANT"

41.

A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically:

a)

at the decision height.

b)

at approximately 100 ft.

c)

on ground.

d)

when going around.

42.

A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the final approach:

a)

during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft comes to a complete stop.

b)

until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is automatically disconnected.

c)

until the flare.

d)

until reaching decision height.

43.

When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot:

a)

temporarily switches over to the heading mode.

b)

is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.

c)

remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.

d)

is temporarily disconnected.

44.

The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be defined as the relationship between the:

a)

computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.

b)

computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servo actuators.

c)

input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control deflection signals.

d)

crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane).

45.

During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is supplied by the:

a)

altimeter.

b)

GPS (Global Positioning System).

c)

encoding altimeter

d)

radio altimeter

46.

A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot will:

a)

restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.

b)

roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.

c)

maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

d)

maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.

47.

The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of:

a)

monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

b)

stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity.

c)

guiding the airplane path.

d)

stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre.

48.

Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the airplane guidance are: 1- pitch attitude holding; 2- horizontal wing holding; 3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding; 4- altitude holding; 5- VOR axis holding 6- yaw damping. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

1, 2, and 6.

b)

3, 4 and 5.

c)

1, 2, 3 and 6.

d)

1, 3, 4 and 5.

49.

When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to: cancel the hinge moment of the elevator, ease as much as possible the load of the servocatuator; restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the autopilot disengagement. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

1 and 2.

b)

3.

c)

1 and 3.

d)

1, 2 and 3.

50.

When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around : 1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust; 2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane; 3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag; 4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane; 5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a)

1,2 and 5

b)

1, 4 and 5

c)

1, 3 and 4

d)

1,2 and 3