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International Business p2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the nature of a WTO ruling?

a)

A recommendation but not an order

b)

A legally binding order

c)

A financial penalty

d)

A trade agreement

2.

Which of the following is NOT a long-standing controversy in the WTO?

a)

Climate change

b)

Agricultural subsidies in developed countries

c)

Tariffs in industries where developing countries may have comparative advantages

d)

IP protection

3.

Which issue has further complicated WTO negotiations in recent years?

a)

Climate change

b)

Agricultural subsidies

c)

Tariffs on textiles

d)

IP protection

4.

What is a Free Trade Area (FTA)?

a)

A group of countries that remove trade barriers among themselves

b)

A single country with no trade barriers

c)

A global organization regulating trade

d)

A bilateral agreement between two countries

5.

Which countries are part of the USMCA (formerly NAFTA) agreement?

a)

USA, Mexico, Canada

b)

USA, Brazil, Argentina

c)

Canada, UK, Australia

d)

Mexico, China, India

6.

What is the main role of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?

a)

Underpinning regional economic integration in Southeast Asia

b)

Regulating global trade

c)

Providing financial aid to developing countries

d)

Negotiating climate change agreements

7.

Which multilateral trade agreement was established in 1954 and includes 27 member countries in Europe?

a)

EU (formerly European Community)

b)

USMCA (formerly NAFTA)

c)

ASEAN

d)

Mercosur

8.

Why might agricultural subsidies in developed countries be controversial in the context of WTO negotiations?

a)

They inhibit exports from developing countries

b)

They increase climate change risks

c)

They promote digital economy growth

d)

They encourage state ownership

9.

How do tariffs in certain industries affect developing countries in WTO negotiations?

a)

They may have comparative advantages in those industries

b)

They lose all trade opportunities

c)

They gain exclusive rights to trade

d)

They are exempt from all tariffs

10.

Which countries are covered by the South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA)?

a)

India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, The Maldives, Nepal, Bhutan

b)

China, Japan, Korea, Australia, New Zealand

c)

Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Bahrain, Oman, Qatar, UAE

d)

Brazil, Argentina, Paraguay, Uruguay

11.

What is the main purpose of the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)?

a)

Political and economic integration

b)

Currency unification

c)

Customs union

d)

Military alliance

12.

Which economic partnership was launched in 2020 and includes 10 ASEAN countries along with China, Korea, Japan, Australia, and New Zealand?

a)

Mercosur

b)

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP)

c)

ECOWAS

d)

SAFTA

13.

Mercosur is best described as:

a)

A customs union in South America

b)

A currency union in West Africa

c)

A free trade area in South Asia

d)

An economic partnership in the Middle East

14.

What is the common currency of French-speaking countries in West Africa?

a)

CFA franc

b)

Euro

c)

Dollar

d)

Peso

15.

Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with the African Continental FTA (AfCFTA)?

a)

Unequal benefits

b)

Asymmetric shocks

c)

Currency devaluation

d)

Controversial protection rules

16.

What is a key criticism of bilateral trade and investment agreements?

a)

They increase trade diversion

b)

They promote global free trade

c)

They eliminate fragmented rules

d)

They reduce bargaining power of large markets

17.

How do bilateral FTAs affect countries with large markets, according to critics?

a)

They allow these countries to use their bargaining power more effectively

b)

They weaken their economic influence

c)

They create a single currency

d)

They eliminate trade barriers completely

18.

What is the hub and spoke system in international trade?

a)

A system that strengthens countries at the hubs

b)

A system that creates a single global market

c)

A system that eliminates all trade barriers

d)

A system that unifies currency across countries

19.

Why do advocates of bilateral FTAs support them?

a)

They see them as a convenient substitute for global free trade

b)

They believe they increase trade diversion

c)

They think they create fragmented rules

d)

They argue they weaken large markets

20.

What is the primary role of the IMF?

a)

Promoting international monetary cooperation and providing temporary financial assistance to countries with balance of payments problems

b)

Regulating global trade agreements

c)

Monitoring climate change impacts

d)

Enforcing peace treaties between nations

21.

Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary activities of the IMF?

a)

Monitoring the global economy

b)

Providing technical assistance to developing countries

c)

Lending to countries in financial difficulties

d)

Regulating greenhouse gas emissions

22.

Why does IMF conditionality often require countries to undertake reforms?

a)

To encourage belt-tightening and push governments to embark on reforms they might not have otherwise undertaken

b)

To increase greenhouse gas emissions

c)

To promote peace treaties

d)

To regulate international trade

23.

Which countries does the IMF have no power over regarding its loans?

a)

Countries that do not need its loans, even when running major budget deficits or current account deficits, such as the USA and the EU

b)

Developing countries in financial difficulties

c)

Countries that signed the Kyoto Protocol

d)

Nations affected by climate change

24.

What was the main goal of the Kyoto Protocol signed in 1997?

a)

To cut CO2 emissions of developed countries by 6% of 1990 levels by 2012

b)

To regulate international monetary cooperation

c)

To provide technical assistance to developing countries

d)

To monitor the global economy

25.

What is the focus of the Climate Change Agenda mentioned in the document?

a)

The environmental impact of human activity and the warning of the Earth's atmosphere due to greenhouse gas emissions

b)

Promoting international monetary cooperation

c)

Monitoring the global economy

d)

Providing financial assistance to countries in crisis

26.

What is the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)?

a)

A global collaboration of climate scientists that updated its alarming forecast in 2021

b)

An organization that provides loans to countries in financial difficulties

c)

A committee regulating international trade

d)

A group monitoring peace treaties

27.

Based on the table of selected multilateral organizations, which organization is responsible for global climate change policy?

a)

Kyoto Agreement, Paris Agreement

b)

World Bank

c)

UN

d)

WTO

28.

How did the financial crisis of 2008 affect debates around the IMF?

a)

It led to renewed debates around the pros and cons of IMF conditionality

b)

It resulted in the signing of the Paris Agreement

c)

It increased greenhouse gas emissions

d)

It ended the need for technical assistance to developing countries

29.

Which of the following is a challenge faced by the World Trade Organization (WTO) in reforming global trade policy?

a)

Conflicting interests of member countries

b)

Lack of international currency

c)

Insufficient export markets

d)

Limited access to technology

30.

What is one advantage of regional economic integration?

a)

It brings together groups of likeminded countries, making negotiation easier

b)

It eliminates all tariffs globally

c)

It guarantees equal export opportunities for all countries

d)

It removes the need for trade agreements

31.

Which institution provides temporary financial assistance to countries with balance of payments problems?

a)

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

b)

World Trade Organization (WTO)

c)

Basel Committee

d)

Kyoto Protocol

32.

Which of the following is a criticism of the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement?

a)

They are widely criticized for lacking tangible commitments

b)

They provide loans for infrastructure projects

c)

They promote business process outsourcing

d)

They reduce tariffs on manufactured goods

33.

Which of the following is an example of a direct export?

a)

A firm sells directly to overseas customers

b)

A firm uses a foreign distributor to sell abroad

c)

A firm hires consultants based abroad

d)

A firm engages in R&D contracts

34.

In indirect exporting, intermediaries can be based in which locations?

a)

The firm’s home country or the host country

b)

Only the host country

c)

Only the firm’s home country

d)

Any country except the home country

35.

Which of the following is a non-equity internationalization mode for services?

a)

Delivering services to customers abroad

b)

Direct import of goods

c)

Subcontracting of manufacturing

d)

Licensing of technology

36.

Why are regional trade agreements often not very effective for developing countries?

a)

Main export markets are outside the region

b)

They eliminate all tariffs

c)

They provide unlimited financial assistance

d)

They guarantee infrastructure development

37.

Which organization provides loans for projects such as infrastructure in developing countries?

a)

World Bank

b)

IMF

c)

WTO

d)

Basel Committee

38.

What is a common feature of bilateral Free Trade Agreements (FTAs)?

a)

They include a commitment to reduce tariffs and adjust industry regulations

b)

They eliminate all trade barriers globally

c)

They provide direct financial assistance to exporters

d)

They guarantee equal market access for all countries

39.

Which of the following best describes the role of a sales agent?

a)

Receives a commission on sales

b)

Buys the products directly

c)

Manufactures the products

d)

Provides after-sales service

40.

What is the main difference between a distributor and a sales agent?

a)

Distributors buy the products, while sales agents receive a commission on sales

b)

Distributors manufacture products, while sales agents sell them

c)

Distributors provide services, while sales agents provide goods

d)

Distributors only work locally, while sales agents work internationally

41.

Based on the trends shown in the diagram, which type of export saw a significant increase in 2022 compared to previous years?

a)

Commercial services

b)

Goods

c)

Agricultural products

d)

Technology services

42.

Which country had the highest share in world merchandise exports in 2022?

a)

China

b)

United States

c)

Germany

d)

India

43.

Which region consistently had the highest percentage share of merchandise exports from 2018 to 2022?

a)

Europe

b)

Asia (including Oceania)

c)

North America

d)

Africa

44.

Which of the following is NOT a regional integration agreement shown on the map?

a)

NAFTA

b)

GCC

c)

European Union

d)

SAARC

45.

Why are regional integration agreements important for international trade?

a)

They facilitate trade between member countries by reducing barriers

b)

They increase tariffs between member countries

c)

They restrict exports to non-member countries

d)

They eliminate all forms of trade

46.

Which of the following best describes licensing in international business?

a)

The owner of an asset gives a foreign party the right to use the asset in exchange for royalties.

b)

The owner of a business sells the entire business concept to a foreign party.

c)

A company merges with a foreign company to expand operations.

d)

A company provides only advertising support to a foreign party.

47.

What is the main difference between technology licensing and brand licensing?

a)

Technology licensing involves a trademark, while brand licensing involves a technology.

b)

Technology licensing involves a technology, while brand licensing involves a trademark.

c)

Both involve selling the entire business concept.

d)

Both involve only advertising support.

48.

Which of the following is NOT typically included in a franchising arrangement?

a)

Brand name

b)

Store layout

c)

Operation manuals

d)

Ownership of the franchisor’s company

49.

Why is franchising popular in consumer retailing?

a)

It allows for complete ownership transfer.

b)

It provides support such as training and advertising.

c)

It only involves technology transfer.

d)

It does not require any manuals or procedures.

50.

Which company is ranked number one among the top 10 global franchises by system sales?

a)

KFC

b)

McDonald's

c)

Subway

d)

Burger King

51.

According to the OLI paradigm, what is the main focus when considering foreign expansion?

a)

The sequence of inter-related expansion decisions over time

b)

Individual foreign expansion decisions, such as whether to use FDI or a contractual mode

c)

Only the use of franchising for expansion

d)

The transfer of technology assets

52.

How can internationalization be viewed according to process models?

a)

As a single decision made at the start of expansion

b)

As a sequence of inter-related expansion decisions over time

c)

As only technology licensing

d)

As only brand licensing

53.

Which of the following is a support typically provided by a franchisor?

a)

Ownership of the franchisee’s company

b)

Training and advertising

c)

Only technology transfer

d)

Only brand licensing

54.

Which model describes internationalizing firms gradually gaining experiential knowledge and incrementally committing more resources to foreign markets?

a)

Uppsala model

b)

Network internationalization model

c)

Stages models

d)

Transaction cost model

55.

What is experiential knowledge in the context of internationalization?

a)

Knowledge learned by reading textbooks

b)

Knowledge learned by engaging in the activity and context

c)

Knowledge learned from advertisements

d)

Knowledge learned from competitors

56.

According to the stages models, what is the typical sequence of entry modes from low to high commitment?

a)

Licensing → joint ventures → wholly-owned subsidiaries

b)

Sporadic exports → exports through sales agents → sales subsidiary → production subsidiary

c)

Franchising → direct investment → exporting

d)

Joint ventures → sporadic exports → licensing

57.

Which company is given as an example of successively entering countries characterized by greater cultural or institutional distance?

a)

Honda

b)

Ikea

c)

Toyota

d)

Samsung

58.

What does the network internationalization model emphasize in the process of internationalization?

a)

Building production subsidiaries

b)

Network building in foreign countries to reduce the liability of outsidership

c)

Licensing agreements

d)

Sporadic exports

59.

How do firms benefit from committing resources to foreign markets according to the network internationalization model?

a)

They avoid learning from network partners

b)

They create international networks and learn from network partners

c)

They only focus on domestic expansion

d)

They reduce their resource commitment over time

60.

Which statement best describes the difference between the Uppsala model and the network internationalization model in their approach to internationalization?

a)

Uppsala model focuses on gradual experiential learning, while network internationalization model emphasizes network building and learning from partners.

b)

Both models focus only on exports.

c)

Uppsala model emphasizes licensing, while network internationalization model focuses on joint ventures.

d)

Both models ignore the importance of knowledge acquisition.

61.

Which type of business seeks to derive significant competitive advantage from the use of resources and the sale of outputs in multiple countries from inception?

a)

Born globals

b)

Domestic firms

c)

Local retailers

d)

Family-owned businesses

62.

Which of the following is NOT a strategic objective of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?

a)

Tapping into new markets

b)

Gaining access to natural resources

c)

Enhancing the firm’s efficiency

d)

Reducing employee turnover

63.

What is one way a firm can enhance its efficiency through FDI?

a)

By accessing cheap labor and locating activities close to customers

b)

By increasing advertising in domestic markets

c)

By hiring more local employees

d)

By reducing the number of products offered

64.

According to the material, when is domestic expansion usually preferable to foreign expansion?

a)

When the domestic opportunity is comparable to the foreign one

b)

When the firm has no international experience

c)

When the firm wants to avoid technological innovation

d)

When the firm is focused on local branding only

65.

Which of the following is a reason for preferring domestic expansion over foreign expansion?

a)

Liability of outsidership associated with foreign expansion

b)

Higher import tariffs in domestic markets

c)

Lack of technological know-how

d)

Limited access to natural resources

66.

What should a firm consider when deciding where to expand internationally?

a)

The location that offers the best chance to realize its strategic objectives

b)

The location with the lowest taxes

c)

The location with the most competitors

d)

The location closest to its headquarters

67.

Which of the following is a characteristic of 'global cities'?

a)

Cities with low interconnectedness

b)

Cities with high interconnectedness and cosmopolitanism

c)

Cities with poor infrastructure

d)

Cities with limited producer services

68.

Which strategic goal is associated with seeking strong market demand and customers willing to pay?

a)

Market-seeking

b)

Efficiency-enhancing

c)

Capability-enhancing

d)

Natural resource-seeking

69.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a location disadvantage (LDA)?

a)

Cultural differences

b)

Geographic remoteness

c)

Strong market demand

d)

Poor infrastructure

70.

What is one advantage of being a first-mover in market expansion?

a)

Opportunity to free-ride on first-mover investments

b)

Proprietary, technological leadership

c)

Resolution of technological uncertainty

d)

Difficulty in adapting to market changes

71.

Which of the following is a contractual expansion mode?

a)

FDI-based modes

b)

Direct & indirect exporting

c)

Market-seeking

d)

Capability-enhancing

72.

Why might a company choose a late-mover strategy when expanding internationally?

a)

To establish entry barriers for late entrants

b)

To resolve technological and market uncertainty

c)

To pre-empt scarce resources

d)

To build relationships with key stakeholders

73.

Which of the following FDI-based modes provides the highest degree of equity control and is associated with internal (organic) resource growth?

a)

Wholly owned Greenfield

b)

Partial Acquisition

c)

Newly created Joint Venture

d)

Full Acquisition

74.

What is a key reason for choosing a wholly owned Greenfield or full acquisition in market-oriented FDI?

a)

Need for speed

b)

Reducing local resources

c)

Avoiding replication of capabilities

d)

Decreasing industry supply

75.

Why might replication of existing capabilities be harder in the case of an acquisition?

a)

Because acquisitions often involve mature industries

b)

Because acquisitions may face governmental restrictions

c)

Because existing capabilities may not transfer easily

d)

Because acquisitions always increase industry supply

76.

Which industry stage is characterized by increasing sales over time before reaching maturity?

a)

Introduction

b)

Growth

c)

Maturity

d)

Decline

77.

If an industry is mature or an oligopoly, what is the desirability of increasing industry supply through acquisition?

a)

High

b)

Moderate

c)

Low

d)

Unaffected

78.

Which of the following is NOT typically a consideration when deciding between wholly owned Greenfield and full acquisition?

a)

Need for complementary local resources

b)

Availability of acquisition targets

c)

Governmental restrictions on FAs and incentives for WOGs

d)

Reducing the speed of market entry

79.

Which of the following best describes a newly created JV (Joint Venture)?

a)

A new corporate entity created and jointly owned by two or more parent companies

b)

A company acquired through a conventional acquisition

c)

A subsidiary formed by a single parent company

d)

A merger between two competing firms

80.

What is one purpose of a joint venture between companies such as Sony-Ericsson?

a)

Realizing economies of scale

b)

Reducing dissemination risk

c)

Avoiding governmental restrictions

d)

Increasing risk of expropriation

81.

Which of the following is a risk associated with local market entry?

a)

Need for complementary local resources

b)

Integration of multiple local units

c)

Post-acquisition integration

d)

Not overpaying for assets

82.

What does the term "attack" refer to in the context of competitive dynamics?

a)

An initial set of actions to gain competitive advantage

b)

A defensive response to a competitor’s move

c)

A strategy to avoid direct confrontation

d)

A framework for coordinating subsidiaries

83.

Which framework helps firms decide when to attack and counter-attack each other?

a)

AMC framework

b)

BOS framework

c)

JV framework

d)

WOG framework

84.

What is the main focus of the Blue Ocean Strategy (BOS)?

a)

Avoiding direct confrontation with incumbents

b)

Maximizing dissemination risk

c)

Increasing governmental restrictions

d)

Building a fragmented market share

85.

Haier’s entry into the US white goods market is an example of which strategy?

a)

Blue Ocean Strategy (BOS)

b)

Conventional acquisition

c)

Brownfield acquisition

d)

Staged acquisition

86.

Which term describes a market structure with only a small number of competing firms?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Oligopoly

c)

Perfect competition

d)

Monopsony

87.

What is the main focus of competitive dynamics?

a)

The process of fixing prices

b)

The actions and responses undertaken by competing firms

c)

The creation of new products

d)

The reduction of market barriers

88.

Which of the following best describes competitor analysis?

a)

The process of setting prices above competitors

b)

The process of anticipating a rival’s actions to revise a firm’s plan and prepare for rivals’ responses

c)

The process of merging with competitors

d)

The process of creating new market structures

89.

Collusion refers to:

a)

Firms working independently to increase competition

b)

Collective attempts between competing firms to reduce competition

c)

Firms merging to create a monopoly

d)

Firms competing for market share

90.

What distinguishes tacit collusion from explicit collusion?

a)

Tacit collusion involves direct negotiation, while explicit collusion is indirect

b)

Tacit collusion involves indirect coordination, while explicit collusion involves direct negotiation

c)

Both involve direct negotiation

d)

Both involve indirect coordination

91.

Which entity engages in output- and price-fixing involving multiple competitors?

a)

Monopoly

b)

Cartel

c)

Oligopoly

d)

Duopoly

92.

In game theory, what is a prisoners’ dilemma?

a)

A situation where only one party benefits

b)

A type of game in which the outcome depends on two parties deciding whether to cooperate or defect

c)

A game where all parties always cooperate

d)

A game with no strategic decisions

93.

Based on the table, which industry characteristic increases the possibility of collusion?

a)

Many firms with low concentration

b)

Homogenous products

c)

Low market commonality

d)

No industry price leader

94.

Using strategic thinking, explain why high entry barriers might facilitate collusion among firms in an industry.

a)

High entry barriers prevent new competitors, making it easier for existing firms to coordinate and maintain collusion.

b)

High entry barriers increase competition, making collusion less likely.

c)

High entry barriers have no effect on collusion.

d)

High entry barriers only benefit consumers.

95.

What does the concentration ratio measure in an industry?

a)

The percentage of total industry sales accounted for by the top firms

b)

The average price of products in the industry

c)

The total number of firms in the industry

d)

The annual growth rate of the industry

96.

Which index is calculated as the sum of squared market shares of all players in a market?

a)

Price Index

b)

Herfindahl-Hirschman Index

c)

Consumer Price Index

d)

Market Growth Index

97.

What does a Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (H) below 0.15 (or 1,500) indicate?

a)

High concentration

b)

Moderate concentration

c)

Unconcentrated index

d)

Highly competitive index

98.

What is a price leader in an industry?

a)

A firm that follows the prices set by competitors

b)

A firm that has a dominant market share and sets ‘acceptable’ prices and margins

c)

A firm that only sells at the lowest price

d)

A firm that avoids competition

99.

Which of the following is an example of signalling through entry of new markets?

a)

Filing an anti-dumping complaint

b)

Big 4 brewers in Central and Eastern Europe seeking mutual forbearance

c)

Announcing a price increase in the media

d)

Forming a joint venture

100.

Why might a firm file an anti-dumping complaint with the government?

a)

To increase its own prices

b)

As a signal to competitors that it’s time to negotiate

c)

To avoid paying taxes

d)

To reduce production costs